TODO ALV 5.5 actualizadoo

TODO ALV 4.0 RECARGADO
When unberthing a conventional ship port side to with no wind and tide present, what will be
your first engine and rudder movements
>
(A)
Dead slow ahead / hard to port
(B)
Dead slow ahead / hard to starboard
(C)
Half ahead / hard to starboard
(D)
Midships / dead slow ahd
When unberthing a conventional vessel starboard side to with no wind or tide present, what
line will you let go last
(A)
Sternline
(B)
Headline
(C)
Forward breast line
>
(D)
Aft breast line
You are required to berth your vessel alongside a fragile berth - which anchor would you
use to minimise any impact while berthing
(A)
The inshore anchor
>
(B)
The offshore anchor
(C)
Any anchor
(D)
I would not use an anchor
When unberthing in calm weather and with no current - what will be the last line you let go
(A)
Headline
(B)
Back spring
(C)
Sternline
>
(D)
Forward spring line
When unberthng a conventional ship port side to with no wind and tide present, which line
will you single up to
(A)
Any line
(B)
Forward head line
(C)
Forward breastline
>
(D)
Forward spring line
Your vessel is approaching a sharp bend with the tide astern - where should you position
your vessel
(A)
On the outside of the bend
(B)
Any of the above
(C)
In the middle of the channel
>
(D)
On the inside of the bend
You are berthed with a strong offshre wind blowing - which of the following manoevres would
be recommended
(A)
Single up to aft spring - dead slow ahd - rudder midships
(B)
Single up to a fwd spring - engine dead slow ahd - rudder hard to starboard
>
(D)
(C)
Single up to breasts fwd and aft _ slack off ropes allow wind to blow vessel off the
Single up to a fwd spring - engine dead slow ahd- rudder hard to port
You are required to berth your vessel with a strong offshore wind blowing, what angle of
approach is required
(A)
At an angle parallel to the berth
>
(B)
A broad angle of approach
(C)
At an angle recommended by rhe pilot
(D)
A narrow angle of approach
When berthing with a strong head wind - which rope should you deploy first
(A)
Forward backspring
>
(B)
Headline
(C)
Forward breastline
(D)
Any available
Your vessel has a right handed propellor - what direction does it turn when going astern
>
(A)
Anti clockwise
(B)
(C)
Clockwise
(D)
Your vessel is approaching a sharp bend against the tide - where should you position your
vessel
(A)
Any of the above
(B)
In the middle of the channel
(C)
On the inside of the bend
>
(D)
On the outside of the bend
Under normal circmstances how is it recommended to berth with a strong stern wind
(A)
It is recommended to use the offshore anchor as a brake
>
(B)
This manoevre is not recommended
(C)
Approach at slow speed with engines on stand by
(D)
It is recommended to drag both anchors
You are unberthing port side to with a strong head tide running , what line will you let go last
(A)
Forward breast line
(B)
Headline
>
(C)
Aft spring
(D)
Forward spring line
When unberthing with a strong onshore wind port side to - what will be your initial
(A)
Single up to fwd spring around the bow - engine dead slow ahead - rudder hard to port
(B)
Single up to backspring - rudder hard to starboard - dead slow astern
(C)
Single up to a fwd spring - engine dead slow ahd rudder hard to starboard
>
(D)
Single up to back spring - engine dead slow astern - rudder hard to port
When moored between 2 buoys -one forward one aft, with the wind and tide ahead , what
will be your first action
>
(A)
Release the sternline -rudder to starboard - dead slow ahead
(B)
Release the headline
(C)
Slack off head line and half ahead
(D)
Release the sternline - rudder to port - dead slow ahead
You intend to berth your vessel port side to. There is no wind and no tide present, what
angle of approach is best
(A)
An angle of approximately 60 degrees
>
(B)
An angle of 30 to 40 degrees
(C)
An angle parallel to the berth
(D)
A narrow angle
When turning in a river with a following tide - which anchor will you use
(A)
Both
(B)
Downstream
(C)
Either
>
(D)
Upstream
If you are berthing a conventional ship with no bow thruster in an onshore wind, how will
you control the rate of drift of the bow
(A)
By approaching the berth at a wide angle and using the engines
(B)
By approaching the berth at a narrow angle
(C)
By altering the angle of approach
>
(D)
By using the offshore anchor
When moored between 2 buoys -one forward one aft, with the wind and tide astern , what
will be your first action
(A)
Let go stern line
>
(B)
Slack off stern line to see if stern cants away from bouy
(C)
Slack off head line to see if vessel cants off
(D)
Let go head lines
You intend to berth with a strong tide running, how will you position your vessel in relation to
the tide
>
(A)
With the head to the tide
(B)
With the tide astern
(C)
I would not consider berthing with a strong tide running
(D)
With the head outward
When unberthing a conventional vessel starboard side to with no wind or tide present, what
will you single up to
(A)
Headline and stern line
(B)
Forward headline
(C)
Sternline and forward breastline
>
(D)
Forward spring and an aft breast line
You intend to berth your vessel starboard side to. There is no wind and no tide present. How
will you approach the berth
>
(A)
At a narrow angle with minimum headway
(B)
At a narrow angle at a medium speed
(C)
At an angle of 30 - 40 degrees
(D)
At an angle parallel to the berth
DM-11-Manoeuvring and Emergency Action
ID 14360 What action should be taken immediately after a fire has been extinguished?
>
(A)
Establish a continuous watch at the fire area against re-ignition and remove any
smouldering material.
(B)
Report the incident to the vessel operator and flag state authorities.
(C)
Write a non-conformance report in compliance with chapter 9 of the International
Safety Management Code.
(D)
Hold a de-briefing of the incident with all officers and fire fighters present.
You are involved in a collision what will be your initial actions
(A)
(B)
(C)
>
Broadcast urgency signal
Exchange details with other vessel
call master
(D)
Sound general emergency signal
When unberthng a conventional ship port side to with no wind and tide present, what will be
your first engine and rudder movements
>
(A)
Dead slow ahead / hard to port
(B)
Dead slow ahead / hard to starboard
(C)
Half ahead / hard to starboard
(D)
Midships / dead slow ahd
You detect flooding in a cargo hold on passage what should be your first reaction
(A)
Contact bridge
(B)
Call Engine room
>
(C)
Sound the general alarm signal
(D)
Call master
How frequently must portable fire extinguishers be hydraulically tested
(A)
(B)
(C)
>
Every 5 years
Every 3 years
Annually
(D)Every 10 years
When unberthing a conventional vessel starboard side to with no wind or tide present, what
line will you let go last
(A)
Sternline
(B)
Headline
(C)
Forward breast line
>
(D)
Aft breast line
SPECT2IHRVKNGN8
>
(A)
N
7.
What is the best strategy for fighting a fire in a general cargo hold?
Keep hatches battened down and control the fire with smothering gas until the nearest
port is reached. Boundary cool and monitor temperatures.
(B)
Have water hoses ready for immediate use and open the hatch to determine the seat
of the fire.
(C)
Open the small personnel entry hatch, and by applying water hoses flood the hold until
at least two feet of water covers the double-bottom tank tops.
(D)
Open the small personnel entry hatch & get the Breathing Apparatus team in ASAP to
determine the seat of the fire. Based on BA Team findings, act!
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operations
(A)
Vol 1
(B)
Vol 3
>
(C)
(D)
Vol 4
8.
Which volume of IAMSAR contains information about search and rescue
9.
You are required to berth your vessel alongside a fragile berth - which
Vol 2
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anchor would you
use to minimise any impact while berthing
(A)
The inshore anchor
>
(B)
(C)
Any anchor
(D)
I would not use an anchor
The offshore anchor
SET01DM11000045 N
>
(A)
(B)
Weekly
(C)
Annually
(D)
Quarterly
10.
How frequently must all lifesaving appliances be inspected
Monthly
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11.
Where is the International shore connection kept
(A)
On the bridge
(B)
In the Engine room control room
>
(C)
(D)
In the Safety gear locker
At the gangway
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last line you let go
(A)
Headline
12.
When unberthing in calm weather and with no current - what will be the
(B)
Back spring
(C)
Sternline
>
(D)
Forward spring line
SPECTSZ6DLRK03D
strategy for the next
N
13.
Once the fire is contained, the Master needs to evaluate the best
stage. This might include a number of actions. In your opinion which action does NOT
(A)
The use of fixed installations to put it out.
>
(B)
(C)
Keeping the fire contained.
(D)
Other means of control.
Re-introducing air circulation by opening up fire dampers and other openings.
Page 117 of 901
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present, which line
14.
When unberthng a conventional ship port side to with no wind and tide
will you single up to
(A)
Any line
(B)
Forward head line
(C)
Forward breastline
>
(D)
Forward spring line
SET01DM11000017 N
should you position
15.
Your vessel is approaching a sharp bend with the tide astern - where
your vessel
(A)
On the outside of the bend
(B)
Any of the above
(C)
In the middle of the channel
>
(D)
On the inside of the bend
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manoevres would
16.
You are berthed with a strong offshre wind blowing - which of the following
be recommended
(A)
Single up to aft spring - dead slow ahd - rudder midships
(B)
Single up to a fwd spring - engine dead slow ahd - rudder hard to starboard
>
(C)
Single up to breasts fwd and aft _ slack off ropes allow wind to blow vessel off the
(D)
Single up to a fwd spring - engine dead slow ahd- rudder hard to port
SET01DM11000052 N
17.
Which organisations publish the IAMSAR manual
(A)
International pilotage authority
(B)
hamber of shipping
(C)
Intertanko and Nautical institute
>
(D)
IMO and International civil aviation organisation
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18.
How would you conteract an angle of loll following a collision
(A)
I would not counteract it
(B)
Ballast Amidships
(C)
Ballast on the high side
>
(D)
Ballast on the low side
SPECTAP0F5HEYX N
19.
Why are accommodation fires difficult to contain?
(A)
The question is not correct, accommodation fires are relatively easy to tackle.
(B)
The vertical distance of fire hoses from the emergency fire pump makes it difficult to
bring sufficient water pressure to bear on the fire.
(C)
Access to the various decks by narrow staircases makes it difficult for the fire fighters
to reach the seat of the fire.
>
(D)
Ventilation systems, open alleyways, and stairwells can aid the spread of fire.
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actions
20.
You receive a distress signal on 2187.5 khz in Area 2 - what will be your
(A)
Call the distress vessel on 2187.5 khz
(B)
Tune to VHF ch 16 and listen for distress communications
>
(C)
(D)
Call nearest coast radio station on 2187.5 khz
tune to 2182 khz and listen for distress communications
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what angle of
approach is required
21.
You are required to berth your vessel with a strong offshore wind blowing,
(A)
At an angle parallel to the berth
>
(B)
(C)
At an angle recommended by rhe pilot
(D)
A narrow angle of approach
A broad angle of approach
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22.
Which vessels must be fitted with Emergency towing equipment
(A)
Offshore supply vessels
(B)
Tankers over 10 000 dwt
(C)
All vessels on International voyages over 500 grt
>
(D)
Tankers over 20 000 dwt
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warning - what type of
23.
Your engines have broken down -The master asks you to transmit a
message will you broadcast
(A)
Mayday
(B)
Securite
(C)
Mayday relay
>
(D)
Pan Pan
SPECTHUYEHV2U7 N
when an incident
W
24.
What is the responsibility of the Master and the emergency organisation
arises?
(A)
To establish reliable communication links.
(B)
To review the emergency response plan.
>
(C)
To assess, with minimum delay, the best possible action to take when the incident
arises.
(D)
To check that all fire fighting equipment is in good working order and that the crew are
fully trained in emergency response to the incident.
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issue water to
25.
survivors
(A)
After 12 hours
(B)
after 6 hours
>
(C)
After 24 hours
You have to abandon your vessel -how soon after abandonment will you
(D)
Immmediately
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checked and
26.
>
(A)
(B)
6 monthly
(C)
Monthly
(D)
Before each port visit
How often would you expect the International shore connection to be
Quarterly
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abandonment drill
27.
How often should a crew member participate in a fire drill and an
(A)
Twice a month
(B)
Once a week
>
(C)
(D)
Once during an International voyage
Once a Month
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28.
What does IAMSAR mean
(A)
International Airport and marine rescue manual
(B)
International maritime search and resue manual
>
(C)
(D)
International aeroplane and marine search and rescue
International Aeronautical & Maritime search and rescue
SET01DM11000043 N
event of a fire
29.
(A)
Back up party
(B)
Emergency Party
(C)
Bridge team
>
(D)
Which emergency party would you expect to operate the fire pumps in the
Engine room party
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manual
30.
(A)
At the gangway
(B)
With the safety officer
In vessels over 500 grt where must there be a copy of the Solas training
(C)
On the bridge
>
(D)
In the crew mess / recreation room
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first
31.
(A)
Forward backspring
>
(B)
(C)
Forward breastline
(D)
Any available
Headline
SET01DM11000025 N
going astern
>
(A)
When berthing with a strong head wind - which rope should you deploy
32.
Your vessel has a right handed propellor - what direction does it turn when
Anti clockwise
(B)
(C)
Clockwise
(D)
SET01DM11000026 N
has been changed
33.
How soon after departure from a port where more than 25% of the crew
must you hold an abandon ship drill
(A)
12 hours
(B)
36 hours
>
(C)
(D)
48 hours
24 hours
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34.
You are involved in a collision what will be your first action
(A)
Send urgency signal
>
(B)
(C)
Call master
(D)
Contact other vessel on VHF
Sound general alarm signal
SET01DM11000016 N
you position your
35.
Your vessel is approaching a sharp bend against the tide - where should
vessel
(A)
Any of the above
(B)
In the middle of the channel
(C)
On the inside of the bend
>
(D)
On the outside of the bend
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support party to
36.
In an emergency with risk for total loss of the ship, the Master orders the
lower the life boats to embarkation level and prepare them in readiness to abandon ship.
When should abandonment be undertaken?
(A)
As soon as your instinct tells you that fire fighting is no longer effective.
(B)
As a first priority on hearing the alarm.
(C)
Immediately after all persons have reported to their muster stations.
>
(D)
As a last resort on orders from the Master.
SET01DM11000071 N
(A)
Securite
(B)
PAN PAN
(C)
Mayday relay
>
(D)
37.
Your vessel is sinking what message will you send
Mayday
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38.
(A)
At least 15 minutes
(B)
At least 5 minutes
>
(C)
(D)
12 minutes
What is the duration of an Emergency Escape Breathing Device
At least 10 mins
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39.
You witness a man falling overboard - what will be your first action
>
(A)
Release lifebouy and smoke signal
(B)
Call master
(C)
Send urgency signal
(D)
Put engines on stand by
SET01DM11000036 N
(A)
Every 4 years
40.
How often should an EPIRB hydrostatic release be serviced
(B)
Every 3 years
>
(C)
(D)
Annually
Every 2 years
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stern wind
41.
Under normal circmstances how is it recommended to berth with a strong
(A)
It is recommended to use the offshore anchor as a brake
>
(B)
(C)
Approach at slow speed with engines on stand by
(D)
It is recommended to drag both anchors
This manoevre is not recommended
SET01DM11000059 N
42.
Which of the following will not be contained in the vessels fire wallet
>
(A)
Current muster list
(B)
Current stability information
(C)
General arrangement plan
(D)
Emergency contact details
SET01DM11000014 N
will you let go last
43.
(A)
Forward breast line
(B)
Headline
>
(C)
(D)
Forward spring line
You are unberthing port side to with a strong head tide running , what line
Aft spring
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equipment lockers
44.
(A)
Annually
>
(B)
(C)
Every month
(D)
Once a voyage
Every 3 months
SET01DM11000042 N
(A)
How often would you expect a full inventory to be made of the fire fighting
ALRS Vol 1
45.
You are proceeding to a distress which publication should you consult
>
(B)
IAMSAR Vol 3
(C)
IAMSAR Vol 2
(D)
ALRS Vol 5
SET01DM11000038 N
46.
What is the main advantage of a 406 mhz EPIRB
>
(A)
It provides worldwide coverage
(B)
It requires less battery power
(C)
It is easily transportable
(D)
It has a hydrostatic release
SET01DM11000028 N
extinquishers that should
47.
You are planning a fire drill - what is the minimum number of fire
be discharged
>
(A)
At least one.
(B)
At least three
(C)
At least two.
(D)
One of each type
SPECTCHLKWJ06O N
information of a
48.
What is the best strategy for the Master to follow after receiving the initial
fire on board?
>
(A)
Immediate response and rapid attack by the emergency party.
(B)
Prepare the ship's hospital for treatment of casualties.
(C)
Put the engineers on stand-by with orders to run the fire pumps, emergency pump,
and other vital auxiliary engine room facilities.
(D)
Call an urgent meeting of senior officers to discuss a comprehensive plan of attack.
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stability information
49.
You have a fire onboard your vessel in port - where wil you find updated
to give to shore authorities
(A)
In the SOLAS manual
(B)
In the vessels stability booklet
(C)
From the OOW
>
(D)
In the Fire wallet
SET01DM11000024 N
when going astern
(A)
50.
Your vessel has a left handed propellor - what direction does it turn in
Anti clockwise
(B)
>
(C)
Clockwise
(D)
SET01DM11000013 N
your initial
51.
When unberthing with a strong onshore wind port side to - what will be
(A)
Single up to fwd spring around the bow - engine dead slow ahead - rudder hard to port
(B)
Single up to backspring - rudder hard to starboard - dead slow astern
(C)
Single up to a fwd spring - engine dead slow ahd rudder hard to starboard
>
(D)
Single up to back spring - engine dead slow astern - rudder hard to port
Page 122 of 901
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tide ahead , what
52.
When moored between 2 buoys -one forward one aft, with the wind and
will be your first action
>
(A)
Release the sternline -rudder to starboard - dead slow ahead
(B)
Release the headline
(C)
Slack off head line and half ahead
(D)
Release the sternline - rudder to port - dead slow ahead
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(A)
Spanish
>
(B)
(C)
English
(D)
French
53.
What language should be used in the SOLAS training manual
A common language understood by the crew
SPECTCBA3CP44A N
54.
An EPIRB is used on life boats after abandoning ship, what is the EPIRB?
(A)
Electronic Positioning Instrument and Receiving Device.
>
(B)
(C)
It is a smoke generator used to indicate the position of a vessel on fire.
Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon.
(D)
Emergency Receiving Beacon.
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overboard incident
55.
Under what circumstances would you use a single turn during a man
(A)
If you are informed a person is missing suspected overboard
(B)
To stop the vessel in the water
>
(C)
(D)
To bring the vesel around to its reciprocal heading
In an immediate situation to bring ship around in quickest time
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(A)
56.
What is needed for a successful response to an emergency situation?
An effectively trained emergency party led by an experienced senior officer with the
necessary STCW Advanced Fire Fighting certificate.
(B)
A well constructed ship which has been equipped with fire fighting equipment
prescribed by the SOLAS Convention.
(C)
An experienced Master who holds valid Advanced Fire Fighting course certificates.
>
(D)
A small close-knit group working together as a team w/ effective leadership &
understanding the importance of: Co-ordination, Communication & Control.
SPECTMC9G91TXA N
does NOT
57.
After a fire the Master will need to take several actions. Which item below
(A)
Examine and document the cause of the fire and whether it could have been prevented.
>
(B)
(C)
Hold an inquiry involving all relevant personnel.
(D)
Report casualties and arrange for their treatment.
Establish who is to blame.
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be in your initial
58.
In the event of a man overboard which of the following actions would not
response
(A)
Sound 3 prolonged blasts
(B)
Release lifebouy and smoke signal
(C)
Put wheel over on side of casualty
>
(D)
Update GMDSS information
SET01DM11000068 N
(A)
Mayday
>
(B)
59.
Pan Pan
What is the urgency signal
(C)
Securite
(D)
mayday relay
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take control
(A)
60.
If there is an isolated incident on the poop deck, where should the Master
The emergency headquarters/store where he can select the correct response
equipment and dispatch the best trained and fittest people to the site.
(B)
The ship's office where he can assemble his team and give clear instructions.
>
(C)
(D)
The incident site so that rational decisions can be taken w/o delay. To see the
The bridge, using this facility as a control and communications centre.
situation for himself and like a good general "lead from the front".
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present, what
61.
You intend to berth your vessel port side to. There is no wind and no tide
angle of approach is best
(A)
An angle of approximately 60 degrees
>
(B)
(C)
An angle parallel to the berth
(D)
A narrow angle
An angle of 30 to 40 degrees
SET01DM11000034 N
62.
Where will you find information on sources of radio medical aid.
(A)
In the International code of signals
(B)
In the SOLAS manual
>
(C)
(D)
On the internet
ALRS vol 1
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63.
>
(A)
(B)
Below 12 deg celcius
(C)
Below 5 deg celcius
(D)
Below 10 dec celcius
Below what sea temperature should abandonment suits be worn
Below 16 deg celcius
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the Master?
64.
In case of fire on board, what do you think is the primary consideration of
(A)
To liaise with the head office and shore authorities.
(B)
To follow instructions as given in the emergency response manual prepared in
compliance with the International Safety Management (ISM) Code.
>
(C)
The safety of the crew.
(D)
To save the ship.
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65.
What is the emergency signal for a man overboard
>
(A)
3 prolonged blasts
(B)
One prolonged blast followed by two short blasts
(C)
3 short blasts
(D)
One prolonged blast
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your reaction
66.
You receive a distress message on VHF ch 70 in area 1 - what will be
(A)
Keep listening to CH 70
>
(B)
(C)
Call the distress vessel on CH 16
(D)
Call the distress vessel on 2182 khz
Tune to CH 16 and listen for distress communications
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the fire services
67.
You have a fire onboard in port - how is stability information passed on to
(A)
Verbally by the OOW
(B)
It is contained in the vessels Solas manual
>
(C)
(D)
Verbally by the chief Officer
It is contained in the fire walllet
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(A)
Both
(B)
Downstream
(C)
Either
68.
When turning in a river with a following tide - which anchor will you use
>
(D)
Upstream
SET01DM11000039 N
69.
Where must the ships fire control plans be kept
>
(A)
At the gangway
(B)
On the bridge
(C)
With the Safety Officer
(D)
With the master
SET01DM11000053 N
>
(A)
(B)
1
(C)
7
(D)
5
How many volumes of the IAMSAR are there
71.
Which frequencies are used in EPIRBS
3
SET01DM11000066 N
(A)
2182.5 knz
(B)
501 mhz
(C)
2187.5 khz
>
(D)
121.5 or 406 mhz
SPECT1IMIFFQS1J N
emergency?
(A)
70.
72.
Why should the Master remain at the control centre at all times during an
The Master need not remain at the control centre as long as he retains good
communication with the emergency response parties.
(B)
The Master should lead from the front and be at the emergency site to ensure that
correct action is being taken.
>
(C)
As the person with the greatest overview and authority, the Master must be at the
control centre to receive information and to give orders.
(D)
The Master's place on board is always on the bridge.
SET01DM11000005 N
wind, how will
73.
If you are berthing a conventional ship with no bow thruster in an onshore
you control the rate of drift of the bow
(A)
By approaching the berth at a wide angle and using the engines
(B)
By approaching the berth at a narrow angle
(C)
By altering the angle of approach
>
(D)
By using the offshore anchor
SET01DM11000019 N
tide astern , what
74.
When moored between 2 buoys -one forward one aft, with the wind and
will be your first action
(A)
Let go stern line
>
(B)
(C)
Slack off head line to see if vessel cants off
(D)
Let go head lines
Slack off stern line to see if stern cants away from bouy
SET01DM11000056 N
(A)
Vol 4
(B)
Vol 2
(C)
Vol 1
>
(D)
75.
Which volume of IAMSAR is it compulsory to carry onboard ships
76.
When might you send a distress on behalf of another vessel
Vol 3
Page 125 of 901
SET01DM11000065 N
>
(A)
When the vessel itself cannot send the distress
(B)
When you do not hear a response
(C)
When requested to do so by a coast radio station
(D)
When mayday relay is required
SET01DM11000061 N
77.
How many fire extinguishers should be used in an emergency drill
(A)
The number is not specified
>
(B)
(C)
At least two
(D)
At least one of each type carried
At least one.
SET01DM11000004 N
vessel in relation to
the tide
78.
You intend to berth with a strong tide running, how will you position your
>
(A)
With the head to the tide
(B)
With the tide astern
(C)
I would not consider berthing with a strong tide running
(D)
With the head outward
SET01DM11000011 N
tide present, what
79.
When unberthing a conventional vessel starboard side to with no wind or
will you single up to
(A)
Headline and stern line
(B)
Forward headline
(C)
Sternline and forward breastline
>
(D)
Forward spring and an aft breast line
SET01DM11000077 N
(A)
Pan Pan
(B)
Mayday
>
(C)
(D)
All stations
80.
You are towing an offshore rig how will you inform other vessels
Securite
SET01DM11000032 N
81.
Where must records of emergency and abandon ship drills be kept
(A)
In the Deck log
(B)
In the SOLAS manual
(C)
In the Safety Officers log
>
(D)
In the Official log book
SET01DM11000040 N
the vicinity
82.
you experience a steering gear failure , how will you alert other vessels in
(A)
Exhibit visual signal of ball - diamond - ball or white - red - white all round lights
(B)
By exhibiting signal flag D
>
(C)
(D)
By continuous sounding of ships whistle
Exhibit NUC signals and broadcast urgency signal
SET01DM11000046 N
83.
(A)
At least 3
(B)
Number not specified
How many fire pumps must a cargo vessel of over 1000 grt have
>
(C)
At least 2
(D)
At least one.
Page 126 of 901
SET01DM11000070 N
broadcast
84.
You have a serious medical injury on board what type of message will you
(A)
Mayday
(B)
All stations, please observe radio silence on 2182 kHz due to distress traffic!
(C)
Securite
>
(D)
Pan Pan medico
SET01DM11000069 N
(A)
PAN PAN
>
(B)
(C)
Securite
(D)
Pan medico
85.
You have a man overboard what signal will you broadcast
Mayday
SET01DM11000075 N
vessel
86.
Which search pattern does the IAMSAR manual recommend for a single
>
(A)
Expanding square search
(B)
Parallel sweep search
(C)
Creeping line search
(D)
Sector search
SET01DM11000002 N
tide present. How
87.
You intend to berth your vessel starboard side to. There is no wind and no
will you approach the berth
>
(A)
At a narrow angle with minimum headway
(B)
At a narrow angle at a medium speed
(C)
At an angle of 30 - 40 degrees
(D)
At an angle parallel to the berth
GOOD BUNKERING PRACTICE-962
1.-Which information about the fuel oil that has been delivered does the BDN ( BUNKER DELIVERY NOTE)
.-FLASH POINT
2.-The BDN ( BUNKER DELIVERY NOTE) must be kept on board at least:
-3 years
3.-The simple of fuel oil required for MARPOL should not be less tan:
-400ml
4.-What is the MARPOL annex VI máximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oil used within a SECA?
-1.5% M/M
5.-In some ports such as singapore, a system of hands signals is required, and the bunkering team should be
familiar with these.
-start, wait, reduce pumping rate, increase pumpig rate,stop, finish.
6.-What are most of spills at sea caused by?
.-overspills during bunkering.
7.-What dangerous gas may be present during bunkering?
Hydrogen sulphide.
8.-Are these statements about bunker fuel true or false?
.-Bunker fuek used in the auxiliary engines as well as the main engines. true
.-Bunker fuel is the highest quallity product distilled from crude oil. False
9.-When should fuel oil samples be taken?
.-Continuosly during transfer.
10.-What is the MARPOL, annex VI máximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oils used outside a
SECA?
.-4.5% M/M
11.-Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about measuring the volumen of bunker fuel
delivered,
.-Throughout the bunkering operation, the ship’s representative on the BARGE should therefore witness and
monitor tank LEVELS by cheking the reference HEIGHTS and tank NUMBER in the CALIBRATION tables
supplied by the barge.
12.-Are these statements about bunkering procedures true or false?
T.-When preparing for bunkering, any unused flanges should be blanked.
F.-A member of the ship’s engine department should board the barge to be in overall control of the bunkering
operation.
F.-The position of the hose should never be changed once the bunkering transfer has started.
T.-The tank gauge can indicate a false measurement, depending on the vessel’s trim.
13.-Is this statement about risk assessment true or false?
F.-Risk assesment should take place as son as the barge arrives.
14.-Which of the ítems listed is NOT regulated by MARPOL annex VI?
N.-Maximum sulphur content
N.-Quality of the fuel oil
N.-Information on the BDN
Y.-Emergency shut-down procedures
N.-Sampling procedures.
15.-Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about material safety data sheets.
Material safety detalling any DANGEROUS characterics of the fuel oil should have been received from the
SUPPLIER in advance of the bunkering OPERATION and the bunkering TEAM should be made familiar with
them.
16.-How many fuel oil samples need to be taken?
.-4
SAFE CARGO STOWAGE AND SECURING TEST-747
1.-True or false
1.- Cargo should be stowed so as to leave gaps to make crew inspections easier….f
2.- Placing cargo on strips of Woods is an excellent way of increasing friction at the point of contact….t
3,.Cargo lashings should be attached to the ship-not to other cargo or lashing...t.
4.-it may sometimes be necessary to weld temporary securing points to the ships
structure….t
2.-Safe cargo stowage and securing test
wich of the information listed would NOT be included in the cargo securing manual?
1.-all the necessary information regarding the correct loading, stowage and lashing of the cargoes on board the
ship….n
2.-lists of all the lashing equipment which will be carried on the ship….n
3.-details of all the likely cargo types which the ship may carry and how to lash them properly in accordance
with the SOLAS requirements….n
4.-the size limitations on individual havy items….y
3.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
leading a wire round a bar of its own diameter or smaller can reduce its breaking load by up to.
.-50%
4.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
the video refers to the carriage of a large cased item. such items should be lashed:
1.-firmily at the base….n
2.-below the centre of gravity....n
3.-above the centre of gravity….y
5.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
the first priority when preparing a stowage plan is:
1.- the safety of the ship...y
2.-to th fit as much cargo as possible on board....n
3.-to guarantee that the ship can leave port on schedule….n
4.-to ensure acces ways are not obstructed….n
6.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
What is the maximum securing load value, (MSL), of a lashing consisting of a wire, turnbuckle and shackle?
1.-the last msl figure of all the elements in the lashing, including the deck ring….y
2.-the mean of all the MSL values of the elements in the lashing….n
3.-the total of the MSL values of the elements in the lashing….n
7.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
are the statements listed true or false
1.-aceceleration forces on cargo increase the further it is from the centre of the ship….t
2.-as the ship rises on a swell, the cargo effectively becomes lighter….f
3.-when the ship rolls, cargo lashings will be stretched and compressed alternately….t
4.-if the lashings become to loose, an item can lose contact with the deck and slide….t
8.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
the vertical lashing angles should not be greater than.
.-60 grados.
9.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
how should lashings be distributed at a cargo unit with single stowage pattern?
1.-equally to fore and aft….n
2.-equally to all sides….n
3.-80% to port and starboard, 20% to fore and aft….y
4.-50% to port and starboard, 50% to fire and aft….n
10.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
complete the following sentences about some common problems of cargo stowage.
a pre-arranged stowage plan may show...INADEQUATE DISTRIBUTION OF CARGO, OFTEN NOT
REFLECTING SUITABLE CARGO HANDLING IN SUBSEQUENT PORTS.
heavy cargo unitsmay be offered for shipment without..HEAVING SUITABLE LIFTING AND SECURING
POINTS.
cargo weights and dimensions may…DIFFER CONSIDERABLY FROM FIGURES GIVEN WHEN IT WAS
BOCKED.
cargo may not be…REALLY AVAILABLE AS NEEDED FOR LOADING ACCORDING TO THE PLAN.
11.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
which of the stowage patterns listed is NOT a recognised pattern?
1.-single stowage.
2.-vertical stowage.--- correct
3.-side stowage.
4.-cross stowage.
12.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
the diagram shows a load of 80 tonnes with lashings to either side. what should be the MSL of each lashing?
la imagen muestra un 80 tonnes en un recuadro.
.-20 tonnes.
13.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
complete the sentences about cargo stowage by dragging the correct ending onto each one.
1.-The purpose of the cargo securing manual is...TO GIVE DETAILS ON THE STOWAGE AND SECURING
OF ALL CARGOES THE SHIP IS LIKELY TO CARRY.
2.-Well managed cargo must be stowed...SO AS TO MAINTAIN THE STABILITY OF THE SHIP.
3.-The stowage plan must be...FLEXIBLE ENOUGH TO ACCOMMODATE LAST MINUTE CHANGES.
4.-During a voyage the cargo will be...SUBJECTED TO CONTINUALLY CHANGING ACCELERATION
FORCES.
938-HATCH COVERS- A PRACTICAL GUIDE
1.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
the main advantages of ultrasonic testing are:
1.-that it can be used whether tha holds are full or empty.
2.-that it reduces the risk of pollution.
3.-that it can be operated in all weather conditions.
4.-all of the above….y
2.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
the use of flexible hoses as a substitute for an approved non-return drainage system:
1.-is good practice and is strongly recommended….n
2.-may be accepted as a temporary solution only….y
3.-is a bad practice-they should never be used….n
3.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
when opening or closing the hatch covers, wich of the occurrences listed could signify a problem to be
investigated further?
1.-uneven or unusual movement….n
2.-abnormal variation in speed….n
3.-unusual vibration….n
4.-all the above….y
4.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
true or false?
1.-bearing pads are intended to take the vertical load of the hatch cover….t
2.-the primary function of the cleats is to pull the hatch covers down for a tighter seal….f
3.-over-tightening the securing devices may permanentyl damage the rubber seals….t
4.-if wear of the steel-to-steel contact arrangements results in the rubber packings becoming permanently
deformed,the solution is to replace the rubbers….f
5.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
in order to remain water-tight, hatch covers must:
1.-not move at all when secured to the hatch coamings….n
2.-not move at all when the ship is flexing at sea….n
3.-move slightly when secured to the hatch coamings to allow for the ship flexing at sea….y
6.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
what water pressure should be used when hose testing?
1.-1 bar….n
2.- 2-3 bar….y
3.-5 bar ….n
7.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
when checking the hatch covers while at sea you need to pay particular attention to the area where the sea
loads are greatest. this is:
1.-the forward 25% of the ships length….y
2.-the area just forward or the superstructure...n
3.-the forward 10% of the ships length...n
8.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
locators:
1.-are used to ensure steel-to-steel contact….n
2.-guide the panels into their correct closing position...y
3.-should be flexible...n
9.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
minor damage to compression bars, such as small cuts and gouges:
1.-are usually acceptable and should not affect the sealing ability….n
2.-should be added to the list of dry-dock repairs….n
3.-are unaceptable as compression bars must always be completely straight,levels and structurally sound….y
10.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
during a hose test, the first indication that hatch covers are water-tight is if water is seen:
1.-dripping from the drain valves….y
2.-leaking into the cargo hold….n
3.-dripping into the cargo hold and from the drain valves simultaneously….n
11.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
which of these statements about cleats is not correct?
1.-cleats should allow the panels to move to a limited extent….n
2.-cleats should be closed in a specific order….n
3.-cleats are used to hold the panels in place when at sea….n
4.-cleats should be tightenend very hard in order to prevent the panels flexing….y
12.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
packing rubbers should be replaced:
1.- if they have a permanent imprint….n
2.-every 2 years….n
3.-if there is a permanent imprint which exceeds the manufacturers specified design limits….y
13.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
to prove that due diligence has been exercised, which of the documents and records listed should be avalaible
on board?
1.-manufacturers manual for the hatch covers….n
2.-records of inspection, maintenance and repair….n
3.-hatch cover test reports….n
4.-all the above….y
14.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
in order to be efficent, the rubber packing needs to:
1.-be flexible and resilient….y
2.-be hard and resilient….n
3.-show a deep permanent imprint….n
15.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
hatch coaming brackets should be checked regulary for:
1.-deformation….n
2.-wastage….n
3.-cracks….n
4.-all the above….y
16.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
are these statements about hatch cover operation true or false?
1.-when opening and closing the hatches at leas two crewmembers should be involved….t
2.-you should never climb on the hatch covers while they are moving….t
3.-once the hatch covers are fully open the securing devices should be applied….t
4.-high expansion foam may sometimes be useful to help reduce the risk of leaks round the hatch coaming….f
17.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
the hydraulic oil in the hatch cover power unit should be:
1.-replaced automatically every 2 years….n
2.-be analysed regulary and replaced as necessary….y
3.-kept at 35°c….n
18.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
the video states that a significant proportion of major bulk cargo claims are due to hatch cover leakage- the
figure given was approximately:
1.-one quarter….n
2.-one third….y
3.-one half….n
19.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
which of the methods listed would NOT be appropiate for testing hatch covers?
1.-chalk test….n
2.-air test….n
3.-x-ray examination….y
4.-light infiltration test….n
1.-967-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
1.-drag abd drop the appropiate instruction on to the hands signals to the lifting operator.
2.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
All lifting equipments should be maintained:
1.-whrn it needs attention….n
2.-when it is broken….n
3.-once a year….n
4.- to the manufacturers recommendations….y
3.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the crane and equipment operator.
The operator should CHECK safety devices fitted to lifting APPLIANCES before works starts and at regular
intervals thereafter to ennsure that they are working properly. The CONTROLS of liting appliances should be
permanently and legibly marked with their FUNCTION and their operating directions shown by ARROWS or
other simple means.
4.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
What is the recommended minimum number of people to be involved in a lift.?
1.-Two people….n
2.-Three people….y
3.-Four people….n
4.-Five people….n
5.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
Each piece of equipment for lifting must have a certificate. How long should that certificate be for?
1.-one year….n
2.-two years….n
3.-three years….n
4.-five years….y
6.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
which of these statements is correct?
1.-SWL must never be exceeded on any piece of lifting equipment….y
2.-it is ok as long as you do not exceed the SWL by more than 10%....n
3.-it is ok as long as you do not exceed the SWL by more than 20%....n
4.-SWL can be exceeded if the person in charge of the lift gives you the authority to do so….n
7.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
Who should be in charge of a lifting operation?
1.-the captain….n
2.-crane operator….n
3.-appointed signaller….n
4.-designated team leader….y
8.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
who should keep records of lifting equipment?
1.-the chief officer….y
2.-the safety officer….n
3.-a responsible crew member….n
4.-the bosun….n
9.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
which of these is usually the best method for the signaller to communicate to other crew members involved in
the lifting operation?
1.-flags….n
2.-walkie-talkie….n
3.-hand signals….y
4.-a clear voice….n
10.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
where should lifting appliances and associated equipment be stored?
1.-near the place last used….n
2.-in a dedicated central location….y
3.-each piece near the place it is likely to be most used…..n
4.-it does not matter as lang as it is properly logged….n
11.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
how often should a lifting appliance or item of loose lifting gear be inspected?
1.-every year….y
2.-every two years….n
3.-every three years….n
4.-every five years….n
12.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
are these statements about lifting do’s and don’ts false or false?
1.-at the start of the operation, you should lift the load in a smooth continuous movement without stopping…..f
2.-never allow a load to be lifted over other people….t
3.-you should only lift people in a properly certified personnel basket….t
13.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about typical causes of lifting accidents.
1.-There might be poor COMMUNICATION between key PERSONNEL.Someone might have DISABLED and
endstopper, or a level switch, perhaps, or another safety DEVICE on the lifting equipment. Or maybe someone
has not checked that the LOAD does not exced the SWL of the gear.
14.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
true or false.
1.-when lifting a load, SWL is not affected by the angle at which slings are used….f
2.-when carrying out risk assesment for lifting a load, you should check maintenance records….t
3.-everyone involved in a lift should be wearing gloves….t
4.-the first action before carrying out a lift is to check weather and sea conditions….f
15.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
What does SWL stand for
1.-Short working life….n
2.-Safe working load….y
3.-Soft working load….n
4.-Sequential weight lift….n
972-Working with tugs Test.
1.- True or false.
1.- The tugmaster and pilot must be made aware of the minimum speed of the towed vessel….t
2.-The pilot must know the power of the tugs….t
3.-Communications channels should be left open and adaptable to further agreement….f
2.-Working with tugs Test.
Why is it important to check and protect towlines regulary when offshore towing?
1.-because towlines tend to be longer….n
2.-because there is rarely a constant distance between the towing vessel and tow, putting its own stress on the
lines….n
3.-to minimise shock loads to the tow….n
4.-for all the reason above….y
3.-Working with tugs Test.
how often should emergency towing drills be carried out on the vessel?
1.-once a year….n
2.-once a month….n
3.-every 3 months…n.
4.-every 6 months or when a significant number of crew members are replaced...y
4.-Working with tugs Test.
who is legally responsible for any damage caused if there is a collision with dock installations, jetties or another
vessel when being towed?
1.-the tugmaster….n
2.-the master of the vessel being towed….n
3.-the pilot….n
4.-the owner of the towed ship….y
5.-Working with tugs Test.
in mooring and towing, what is the main danger to seafarers on the deck of the vessel being towed?
1.-death or injury caused by the failure of on-board ropes and gear….y
2.-collision with another vessel….n
3.-running aground….n
6.-Working with tugs Test.
what size of tanker requires emergency towing arrangements to be fitted a both ends?
1.-5,000 to 9,000 tonnes deadweight….n
2.-9,000 to 20,000 tonnes deadweight….n
3.-over 20,000 tonnes deadweight….y
4.-all the above….n
7.-Working with tugs Test.
which of the statements about carrying out a risk assessment of towing operation is correct?
1.-a standar risk assessment should be carried out only in excepcional circumstances….n
2.-a stardard risk assessment should be carried out for each and every towing operation….n
3.-a standard risk assesment should be carried out of each and every towing operation, but varied for
individual circumstances….y
4.- a standard risk assessment need to be carried out for most common towing operations….n
8.-Working with tugs Test.
which of the factors listed are important on a long tow?
1.-wing speeds….n
2.-knowing how much extra power the towing tugs can generate….n
3.-state of the tide at your destination….n
4.-speed and direction of any currents….n
5.-the nearest port should and emergency occur….n
6.-all the above….y
9.-Working with tugs Test.
select the correct towing situation.
1.-When tight control and manoeuvrability are required in restricted in restricted waters: Alongside / hip tows.
2.-Where assisted steering and braking from the stern of the vessel is required: Active escort tows.
3.-Better for longer distances and in open waters: Stern tows.
4.-Where the tug is standing close by the vessel in case it is needed: Passive escort.
10.-Working with tugs Test.
Which of the measures listed would NOT stop the tow line chafing and endangering the tow?
1.-Pay out the tow line periodically….n
2.-fit a suitable protector to the tow line….n
3.-keep the tow line in one position….y
4.-monitor the tow line on the vessel being towed and freshen the contact point if required….n
11.-Working with tugs Test.
who would not be involved in approving all emergency towing gear.
1.-the master of the vessel….y
2.-a naval architect….n
3.-a marine engineer….n
4.-the appropiate classification society prior to use….n
12.-Working with tugs Test.
are the statements about emergency towing true or false?
1.-communications must be established with local maritime authorities and the towing vessel….t
2.-the disabled vessels position should be plotted frequently and reported to the local authorities and assisting
vessel(s)....t
3.- the disabled vessels rudder should not be used during the tow, even if it has steering capability….f
13.-Working with tugs Test.
are the statements about the pilot and the master of the vessel planning true or false?
1.-the master should provide the pilot with a deck general arrangement showing the layout and safe working
load ( SWL ) of the mooring fittings….t
2.-the master should inform the pilot which fairleads, chocks, bitts and strong points should be used for
towing….t
3.- the pilots should inform the master of the SWL of the tugs equipment….f
14.-Working with tugs Test.
the number of tugs required for towing will depend on.
1.-the type of tug used….n
2.- the weight of the vessel to be towed….n
3.- the support needed to tow the vessel to its destination….n
4.-the type of tugs used and the support needed….y
15.-Working with tugs Test.
are the statements about towing offshore true or false.
1.-it is importan to consider the condition, size and loading of the towed vessel of plataform….t
2.-wind, tide, current and sea conditions must all be taken into account….t
3.-details of the destination berth can be sorted out nearer the arrival time….f
4.-if something goes wrong, a contingency meeting should be held….f
16.-Working with tugs Test.
when planning a safe tow, which of the actions below are important?
1.-good teamwork between everyone involved….n
2.-understanding of towing techniques, tug capabilities and the ships requirements….n
3.-effective communications between the master, the pilot, the tugmaster, the bridge team and deck crew….n
4.-agreeing a plan and operational procedures in advance….n
5.-all the above….y
17.-Working with tugs Test.
which of the items of information listed should the pilot give the master when advising him about the
forthcoming tow?
1.-the number ot tugs and the mode of towage....n
2.-the type of tugs to be used and their bollard pull(s)....n
3.-maximum planned speed for the passage….n
4.-the method by which the ships crew should take on board and release the tugs tow line….n
5.-primary and secondary VHF channels for use in the operation….n
6.- all the above….y
18.-Working with tugs Test.
which of the areas listed should be considered as a possible attachment point an emergency tow line?
1.-structural members….n
2.-anchor windlass on the bow….n
3.-anchor chain-if secured from running out….n
4.-all the above….y
19.-Working with tugs Test.
are the statements about towing procedures true or false?
1.-ensure that the heaving line is long enough and ligh enough to allow the tug to stand off as far as
possible….t
2.-when casting off at the stern, drop the line onto the tugs deck below….f
3.-all radios should be tested before operations begin to ensure they are working properly….t
20.-Working with tugs Test.
are the statements about the planning of a tow by the pilot and tugmaster true or false?
1.-there is no need to check the SWL of the vessels chocks, bitts and strong points to be used for towing….f
2.-the maximum speed of the tug should be discussed….t
3.-details of the vessels passage into the harbour while accompanied by the tugs should be discussed….t
21.-Working with tugs Test.
towing by tugs is more hazardous than it used to be. which of the causes listed does NOT contribute to this
problem?
1.-increased vessel size making them more difficult to manoeuvre….n
2.-more traffic in general….n
3.-smaller, less powerful tugs….y
4.-more complex harbour operations….n
5.-greater variety of tug types….n
6.-difficulties in communication….n
22.-Working with tugs Test.
match the hand signals on the righ with the pictures by dragging and dropping them with your mouse:
1.-stop 2.-emergency stop 3.-hoist slowly 4.-raise 5.-lower 6.-make fast
1104-theory of mooring
1.- which of these factors can affect a ships moorings?
1.-wind….n
2.-currents….n
3.-the ships drafts….n
4.-all of these….y
2.--theory of mooring
what is the force of a wind at 60 metres compared to the same wind at sea level?
1.- much the same….n
2.-less….n
3.-greater….y
4.-depends on wind direction….n
3.--theory of mooring
how many times greater is the force of a three-knot current on a vessel’s hull compared to that of a one knot
current?
1.- the same….n
2.-double….n
3.-three times greater….n
4.-nine times greater….y
4.--theory of mooring
in ports with a large tidal range , what precaution should be taken to ensure a vessel remains safely moored?
1.-use automatic self-tensioning winches….n
2.-use additional mooring lines forward and aft….n
3.-use the largest steel wire ropes the vessel has available….n
4.-check the tide tables and regulary inspect all morings….y
5.--theory of mooring
is the following statement true or false?
1.- you should avoid mixing lines made of different materials….t
6.--theory of mooring
what is a 6x 36 mooring wire?
1.-a rope constructed from six strands of an inner core made of one type of synthetic fibre material, surrounded
by 36 strands of a second layer of a different type of synthetic fibre material….n
2.-a rope constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of steel wire, surrounded by six strands of a
second layer of synthetic fibre material….n
3.-a rope constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of steel wire, surrounded by six strands of a
second layer of synthetic fibre material….y
4.-a line constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of one type of synthetic fibre material, surrounded
by six strands of a second layer made from a different type of synthetic fibre material….n
7.--theory of mooring
what does MBL standd for?
1.-maximum bollard layers….n
2.-minimum breaking load….y
3.-maximum breaking load….n
4.-maximum berth length….n
8.-theory of mooring
how is the size of a wire rope measured?
1.-by the circumference….n
2.-by the diameter….y
3.-by the number of strands….n
4.-by the number of individual wires….n
9.--theory of mooring
when mooring lines change direction around rollers, fairleads of panama leads, there can be a further loss of
effectiveness of up to:
1.-25%....y
2.-30%....n
3.-10%....n
4.-50%....n
10.--theory of mooring
which of tnose listed is the strongest synthetic material commonly used in rope construction?
1.-polyamide….N
2.-polyamide….N
3.-polypropylene….N
4.-HMPE….Y
11-theory of mooring
Which is the only one of these materials that floats?
1.-polyester….n
2.- polyamide….n
3.-polypropylene….y
4.-aramid….n
12.--theory of mooring
how much elasticity does a high modulus synthetic fibre rope typically have?
1.- more than 20%....n
2.-1-2%....y
3.-4-5%....n
4.-about 10%....n
13-theory of mooring
how much elasticity does a conventional synthetic fibre ropw typically have?
1.-about 30%....y
2.-about 10%....n
3.-about 4-5%....n
4.-about 60%....n
14.--theory of mooring
which lines may be deployed in a mooring arrangement to counteract any turning force on a ship?
1.-spring lines….n
2.-head and breast lines….n
3.-head and stern lines….y
4.-breast lines….n
15.--theory of mooring
currents with a small angle off the bow:
1.-can create a considerable transverse force….y
2.-can usually be ignores….n
3.-are not very common….n
4.-will usually be weak….n
16.--theory of mooring
what percentage of a ropes MBL should the primary brake on a mooring winch be set to?
1.-50%....n
2.-60%....y
3.-70%....n
4.-75%....n
17.--theory of mooring
which end of the brake should a rope fitted to a winch drum always pull against?
1.- the fixed or anchored end….y
2.-the floating end….n
3.-it doesn’t matter….n
4.-only the centre….n
18.--theory of mooring
how many rope layers should there be on the tension drum of a split drum winch?
1.-two….n
2.-three….n
3.-one….y
4.-several….n
1148-leadership and team working skills-vessel resourcee managment series part 7
1.-what type of situational leader would allow the team to allocate task and processes?
1.-delegating leader….n
2.-telling leader….n
3.-managing leader….n
4.-supporting leader….y
2.-leadership and team working skills
among the strategies you can develop for coping with stress, which is the least effective?
1.-use of alchohol….y
2.-physical exercise….n
3.-assertiveness training….n
4.-getting enough sleep….n
3.-leadership and team working skills
is the statement about resource management true or false?
1.-in a perceptual set there is a bias or readiness to perceive certain of the available data and to ignore
otheers….t
4.-leadership and team working skills
to participate effectively in your ships emergency procedures, you first need to:
1.-be trained for emergency duties….n
2.-understand what other emergency parties are doing….n
3.-be completely familiar with the entire set of personnel, equipment and duties….y
4.-become a member of one of the emergency response teams….n
5.-leadership and team working skills
which of the symptoms listed would not normally be one of the physical effects of stress?
1.-heart rate increases….n
2.-body prepares for fight or flight….n
3.-lungs take on more air….n
4.-eyesight blurs….y
6.-leadership and team working skills
can you name one of the chief qualities of situational leadership?
1.-it emohasises clarity of communication….n
2.-it works in most environments for most people….y
3.-it rapidly assesses the situation….n
4.-it guarantees a set of standing orders in place….n
7.-leadership and team working skills
true or false
1.-when conducting an emergency drill it is generally not necessary to hold a debrief afterwards….f
8.-leadership and team working skills
what qualities do you need for really effective drill?
1.-avoiding routine and creating surprise….n
2.-working with others to build teamwork….n
3.-taking it seriously….n
4.-careful planning….n
5.-all the above….y
9.-leadership and team working skills
what is the golden rule when thinking about calling the master in a amergency?
1.-wait, things mighy improve….n
2.-surely somebody else can deal with this?….n
3.-if you are thinking about calling the master, call the master….y
4.-i’ll sort this out and prove myself….n
10.-leadership and team working skills
true or false?
1.-leadership and managements skills are essentially the same….f
11.-leadership and team working skills
what is the process called that can allow one wrong assumption to be made which leads onto another until a
particular view is created?
1.-vicious circle….n
2.-error chain….y
3.-bad faith….n
4.-information overload….n
12.-leadership and team working skills
which of the items listed is not an essential component of good resource management?
1.-a strong sense of hierarchy….y
2.-good teamwork….n
3.-good leadership….n
4.-effective communication….n
5.-good situational awareness….n
926-(AIS) Automatic identification system.
1.-What is the VHF communications element of ais?
1.-two VHF transmitters, one VHF receiver, one dsc receiver….n
2.-one vhf transmitter, two vhf receiver, one dsc receiver….y
3.-one vhf transmitter, two vhf receivers, one dsc transmitter….n
4.-one vhf transmitter, one vhf receiver, one dsc receiver….n
2.-Automatic identification system.
true or false?
1.-radar gives a tagets position relative to own ship….t
2.-ais relies on other vessels transmitting information correctly….t
3.-ais supplies less information than radar….f
4.-radar is able to see targets that are not fitted with ais….t
3.-Automatic identification system.
what is the reporting speed or a normal vessel underway with a speed of less than 14 knots?
1.-10 times per miute….n
2.-10 times per hour….n
3.-once every 10 seconds….y
4.-once every 10 minutes….n
4.-Automatic identification system.
which vessels have to be fitted with ais?
1.-all solas vessels….n
2.-vessels of 500 GT and above trading internationally, all other vessels of 1000 GT and above….n
3.-all ships of 10,000 GT and above….n
4.-vessels of 300 GT and above trading internationally, all other vessels of 500 GT and above….y
5.-Automatic identification system.
if clicks are heard when using the primary VHF what might this indicate?
1.-it is usual for this to occur and shows that the ais is working properly….n
2.-it highlights the possibility of a faulty AIS installation and should be investigated and rectified….y
6.-Automatic identification system.
what does ais stand for?
1.- automatic identification system….y
2.-autonomous identification system….n
3.-automatic identification of ships….n
4.-automatic identify system….n
7.-Automatic identification system.
what does srm stand for?
1.-safety related message….y
2.-safety request message….n
3.-security related message….n
4.-none of these….n
8.-Automatic identification system.
which of the items listed is not included as AIS voyage related data?
1.-ETA a next port….n
2.-draught….n
3.-destination….n
4.-heading….y
9.-Automatic identification system.
what category does navigation status, such as at anchor, come under?
1.-static data….n
2.-voyage related data….n
3.-dynamic data….y
4.-safety related messages….n
10.-Automatic identification system.
what is the MKD?
1.-the unit which specially houses the VHF transceivers and GPS receiver….N
2.-the master key descryption circuitry that deals with AIS passwords….N
3.-the minimum kinect distance, which is the minimum distance that should separate the AIS display unit from
other equipment to avoid heat damage….N
4.-the minimum keyboard and display, which houses the AIS display and keyboard and provides the minimum
functionally as defined by IMO….Y
11.-Automatic identification system.
1.-It uses the DSC channel to allocate a unique frequency to each vessel….n
2.-it uses the long-range communication facility to allocate unique time slots to each vessel….n
3.-vessels autonomously self organise unique time slots for their use….y
4.-vessels autonomously self organise unique frequencies for their use…n
12.-Automatic identification system.
which of the messages listed would be a legitimate of an AIS SRM?
1.-See you in rotterdam….n
2.-sighted semi-submerged container 4 miles south of berry head….y
3.-hi-have a nice day….n
4.-jus look at that sunset...n
13.-Automatic identification system.
which of the items listed is not included as AIS static data?
1.-Ships name….n
2.-call sign….n
3.-beam….n
4.-draught….y
14.-Automatic identification system.
what is the primary purpose of the AIS internal position fixing system?
1.-to generate position…n
2.-to generate a location position if the ship is involved in an accident….n
3.-to generate accurate time…y
4.-to generate accurate frequency….n
705- The safe use of electronics charts
1.-The safe use of electronics charts
what is the dual-fuel system?
1.-when the ECDIS can display radar and ARPA information at the same time….n
2.-when the ECDIS can display both a raster and vector chart on scren at the same time….n
3.-when the ECDIS can display either a raster or vector chart….y
4.-when the ECDIS can be powered by either the ships power supply or its own batteries….n
2.-are these statements about the ECDIS true or false?
1.-if an electronic chart system is not classified as an ECDIS, it should not be used at all for primary
navigation….t
2.-an ECDIS is any electronic chart system which can display vectors charts….f
21853 an ECDIS can display vector charts if available, or raster if vector is not available….t
4.-generating an alarm when crossing a safety contour is a standared ECDIS function….t
3.-The safe use of electronics charts
what should the master or bridge team agree upon about the ECDIS at the start of a voyage?
1.-the colours used on the display screen….n
2.-during which watches it should be in operation….n
3.-what levels of information should be kept on displays as standard….y
4.-how loud the alarmsd should be….n
4.-The safe use of electronics charts
what does a raster chart look like?
1.-a standard paper char….y
2.-a standard paper chart without any shore navigational features….n
3.-a satellite photograph of a sea area….n
4.-a satellite photograph of a sea area laid over a standard paper chart….n
5.-The safe use of electronics charts
if you are using a n unofficial electronic chart how would yout system be classified?
1.-as an ECS….Y
2.-As an ECDIS….N
3.-as an RCDS….N
4.-As a SENC….N
6.-The safe use of electronics charts
Which of these is the most important factor to check before passage planning on an ECDIS?
1.-the weather forecast….n
2.-the tide levels….n
3.-that the most recent chart updates have been received….n
4.-information downloads….n
7.-The safe use of electronics charts
how does an ECDIS in RCDS mode trigger an alarm about a navigational hazard?
1.-information on the possible hazard has to be entered into the system by the operator….y
2.-such hazard can be pre-set automatically to trigger an alarm….n
3.-the potential hazard and location has to be entered electronically into the ECDIS system….n
4.-the ECDIS system in RCDS mode is not capable of triggering an alarm….n
8.-The safe use of electronics charts
how does an ECDIS operator ensure the electronic chart in use is on the same scale as other sensor
information being input?
1.-by checking the scales on each item in operation and adjusting them to match the ENC or RNC….n
2.-the ECDIS should provide an indication if there is a scale mis-match….y
3.-the ECDIS will not accept sensor information on a scale different to the electronic chart….n
4.-by adjusting the scale of the ENC or RNC to match those of the sensors….n
9.-The safe use of electronics charts
if you have to plan your passage after the vessel is underway, when is the best time to do it?
1.-as the vessel clears the harbour….n
2.-in the estuary….n
3.-a mile out to sea….n
4.-in deep sea areas….y
10.-The safe use of electronics charts
when does an ENC become a SENC?
1.-when it is updated with new navigational information….n
2.-when it is has been transformed by the ECDIS into a database format….y
3.-when it has been issued by a RENC….n
4.-when it is given IMO approval….n
11.-The safe use of electronics charts
what are the four main components of an ECDIS?
1.-a computer, printer, scanner, and display screen….n
2.-a computer,screen, electronic charts and radar….n
3.-a computer, electronic charts, display screen and speaker….n
4.-a computer, electronic charts, colour display screen and operators control….y
12.-The safe use of electronics charts
what must an ECDIS operator have when using the system in RCDS mode?
1.-conversion tables to re-calculate the different scale….n
2.-a second GPS system to provide an accurate position fix….n
3.-a portfolio of appropiate paper charts….y
4.-the latest ENC updates….n
13.-The safe use of electronics charts
when using ECDIS in RCDS mode what officially-approved back-up do you need?
1.-a second GPS….N
2.-another ECS….N
3.-paper charts….N
4.-ARPA….N
14.-The safe use of electronics charts
Which of these events would trigger only a visual warning on ECDIS?
1.-Failure of the positioning system….y
2.-crossing a safety contour….n
3.-deviation from route….n
4.-approaching a critical point….n
15.-The safe use of electronics charts
which of these is NOT a feature of vectors charts
1.-they are open to interrogation….n
2.-they are multi-layered….n
3.-they use the chart-by-chart system….y
4.-the allow zooming in to see more detail….n
16.-The safe use of electronics charts
how can an ECDIS operator know if part of this electronic chart is based on unofficial data?
1.-the suspect section is marked in red….n
2.-the suspect section may have hatching around it….y
3.-the suspect section should flash….n
4.-the suspect section will have unofficial written across it….n
17.-The safe use of electronics charts
why is it important to use official electronic charts?
1.-they are in english and easier to undestand….n
2.-they have more detail than unofficial charts….n
3.-unofficial charts do not meet the regulations permitting their use in passage planning….y
4.-unofficial charts are usually out of date….n
18.-The safe use of electronics charts
how many waypoints can an ECDIS normally store?
1.-9….n
2.-29….n
3.-99….n
4.-999….y
19.-The safe use of electronics charts
when using RNCs, what does the message shift not know mean when it appears on an ECDIS screen?
1.-the operator has chosen a chart for display which the ECDIS does not have….n
2.-The operator tried to input data from another instrument not connected to the ECDIS….n
3.-the ECDIS cannot match the datum of the RNC….y
4.-The ECDIS is signalling a prohibited manoeuvre by the operator….n
20.-The safe use of electronics charts
which chart display first appears on the ECDIS screen when it is switched on?
1.-star-up display….n
2.-head-up display….n
3.-standard display….y
4.-display base….n
21.-The safe use of electronics charts
what is the best method fo confirming the accuracy of information shown on the ECDIS display?
1.-by visual observation….y
2.-radar….n
3.-comparison with a paper chart….n
4.-zooming in on the ECDIS display for more detail….n
22.-The safe use of electronics charts
what is the minimum periodd for which your navigational instruments should run from your emergency power
supply?
1.-12….n
2.-18….y
3.-24….n
4.-48….n
23.-The safe use of electronics charts
which organization has set the specifications for ECDIS?
1.-IMO….N
2.-USCG….N
3.-NOAA…N.
4.-IHO….Y
24.-The safe use of electronics charts
How many levels of warning does an ECDIS give alerting the operator to a hazard?
1.-two….y
2.-three…n.
3.-five….n
4.-one….n
25.-The safe use of electronics charts
which of these is a problem with vector charts?
1.-they are not capable of showing underwater hazards….n
2.-they are difficult to upgrade with new navigational information….n
3.-they do not yet cover every sea in the world….y
4.-they are difficult to operate….n
26.-The safe use of electronics charts
which of these navigational situations requires ECDIS to give more than a visual alarm?
1.-loss of ships position data….n
2.-different references being used….n
3.-approach to a critical point….y
4.-the vessel crossing a specified area….n
27.-The safe use of electronics charts
what is the difference between an ENC and other electronic charts?
1.-An ENC has more navigational features than any other electronic chart….n
2.-an ENC is an officially approved vector electronic chart….y
3.-an ENC is an officially approved raster electronic chart….n
4.-an ENC is easier to view than other electronic charts….n
927.-navigating in ice
1.-the best to maintain while in ice depends on which two factors?
1.-the vessels course and wind speed….n
2.-the vessels tonnage and the desnsity of the ice….y
3.-the wather conditionsand the vessels tonnage….n
2.-navigating in ice
drag the appropiate words from the list to complete the sentences about the responsibilities of the chief
engineer.
he needs to aware of the dangers ice poses to the RUDDERS.
he needs to make sure the internal WATER circulation is functioning
he must ensure the engine has sufficient power to maintain MANOEUVRABILITY
he should ensure that the fuel oil being used will not freeze or CRYSTALLISE.
3.-navigating in ice
Ships built to the specification for ice class 1a should be able to cope with ice floes up to a thickness.
1.-0.5 metres….n
2.-0.6 metres….n
3.-0.8 metres….y
4.-1.o metres….n
4.-navigating in ice
when following an iceberg through reasonably open ice, what is the ships speed likely to be?
1.-4-5 knots….n
2.-5-6 knots….n
3.-6-7 knots….y
4.-8-10 knots….n
5.-navigating in ice
roughly what proportion of an iceberg is usually below the surface?
1.-¼….n
2.-⅓….n
3.-½….n
4.-⅞….y
6.-navigating in ice
why should all tanks be no more than 90% full when traveling in ice zones?
1.-to allow air to circulate….n
2.-to minimise the free surface effect….n
3.-because if they are full and freeze solid, they could split….y
7.-navigating in ice
when estimating ice drift you must consider the presence of sea currents. which of the currents listed is NOT a
recognised type of current in this context?
1.-permanent currents…n.
2.-periodic currents….n
3.-seasonal currents….y
4.-temporary currents….n
8.-navigating in ice
in calm conditions, at what sort of upper range is radar reliable dor detecting large icebergs?
1.-5 to 8 miles….n
2.-8 to 12 miles….n
3.-12 to 15 miles….y
4.-15 to 20 miles….n
9.-navigating in ice
drag the appropiate words from the list to complete the sentences about preparation for entering an ice zone.
the master orders checks on the ships SYSTEM to make sure all are prepared for extreme cold, These will
include checking the searchlights, greasing and PROTECTING anchor winches, ensuring adequate protective
clothing for the crew and MONITORING the internal water supply. Bridge windows willa also require heating to
prevent condensation FREEZING.
10.-navigating in ice
what is the usual southerly llimit for icebergs in the northern hemisphere?
1.-35th parallel….n
2.-42nd parallel….y
3.-50th parallel….n
4.-62nd parallel….n
11.-navigating in ice
which of the principles listed is not one the three basic ship-handling rules when moving through ice?
1.-keep moving…n
2.-work with the ice….n
3.-keep the vessels speed slow….n
4.-use the rudder frequently….y
12.-navigating in ice
if collision with pack ice is unavoidable, how should the ship enter the ice?
1.-at and angle of about 60°….n
2.-as squarely as possible….y
3.-with a glancing blow….n
4.-at an angle of 45°….n
13.-navigating in ice
are the statements about working with icebreakers true or false?
1.-the master of the icebreaker should ask the ship how they would like to proceed….f
2.-all instructions from the icebreaker must be acknowledged and executed immediately….t
3.-icebreaker signals are shown in the international code of signals….t
14.-navigating in ice
before entering an ice zone the master needs to brief his team. which of the items listed would not need to
feature in the briefing?
1.-number of crew onboard….y
2.-state of hull, machinery and equipment….n
3.-ice experiences of the officers and crew….n
4.-area of operation and acces to icebreakers….n
15.-navigating in ice
when icebergs break up the remains, which may also be dangerous, are know as growlers and:
1.-mush….n
2.-shuga ice….n
3.-bergy bits….y
4.-brash ice….n
16.-navigating in ice
when ice is confirmed, various procedures need to be followed. which of those listed is NOT necessary?
1.- the master must be informed and come to the bridge….n
2.-the master must report to the local authorities….n
3.-all crew must be woken and a muster taken….n
4.-the chief engineer must be informed that they are approaching ice….y
17.-navigating in ice
are the statements about travelling in icebergs zones true or false?
1.-in poor conditions icebergs can be difficult to see, blending in with the grey sky and sea….t
2.-sea clutter may hide the radar reflections from an iceberg….t
3.-the sound of breakers where no lands is expected might indicate the presence of a large iceberg….t
4.-when you approach pack ice it is always easy to see….f
18.-navigating in ice
what is the typical size of icebergs in the artic?
1.-about 45 m tall and 180 m long….y
2.-about 30 m tall and 250 m long….n
3.-about 75 m tall and 100 m long….n
19.-navigating in ice
what is the name given to the small ice plates that first start to form on the surface of the sea as the
temperature drops?
1.-brash ice….n
2.-frazil ice….y
3.-grease ice….n
4.-bergy bits….n
985-search and rescue:
1.-what is the minimum required range for a NAVTEX transmitterP
1.-50 nautical miles….n
2.-150 nautical miles….n
3.-250 nautical miles….y
4.-350 nautical miles….n
2.-search and rescue
which organisation jointly produce the IAMSAR manual?
1.-I….n
2.-II….n
3.-III….y
4.-All of them….n
3.-search and rescue
what is a RCC?
1.-rescue co-ordination centre….y
2.-regional command centre….n
3.-rescue command control….n
4.-regional communications centre….n
4.-search and rescue
at how many levels of importace can a DSC message be set?
1.-3….n
2.-4….y
3.-5….n
4.-6….n
5.-search and rescue
what is the lowest classification of distress alert?
1.-unspecified….n
2.-uncertainty….y
3.-alert….n
4.-uncontrolled….n
6.-search and rescue
how is the NAVTEX broadcast?
1.-518 khz….y
2.-NBDP on selected HF frequencies….n
3.-218 khz….n
4.-vhf channel 16….n
7.-search and rescue
by what means can vessel beyond NAVTEX coastal transmmission range receive MSI?
1.-COSPAS-SARSAT….N
2.-MarsaNET….N
3.-telesat….N
4.-safetyNET….Y
8.-search and rescue
how many primary satellites make up the inmarsat system?
1.-2….n
2.-6….n
3.-5….n
4.-4….y
9.-search and rescue
what are the three most important items contained in a DSC alert?
1.-the vessels identity, position and nature of the distress….y
2.-the vessels identity, position and number of crew….n
3.-the vessels position, number of crew and nature of the distress….n
4.-the vessels identity, level of alert and assistance required….n
10.-search and rescue
in a SAR operation, who has overall responsibility for directing the operation?
1.-the aircraft co-ordinator….n
2.-the service provider….n
3.-the SAR mission co-ordinator….y
4.-the on scene co-ordinator….n
11.-search and rescue
if you vessel receives a DSC distress alert and there is no initial response from any SAR services, you should:
1.-respond yourself to the vessel in distress then relay it on to a MRCC….y
2.-report the message to your own ships owners and get instructions….n
3.-relay the distress message on your GMDSS and wait for a response….n
4.-log the message and continue to listen out….n
12.-search and rescue
enhanced group calling (EGC) enables a SAR service to:
1.-transmit multiple messages simultaneously….n
2.-transmit the ame message in multiple languages simultaneously….n
3.-confirm the correct position of a vessel transmitting a distress signal….n
4.-transmit a message to a defined are….y
13.-search and rescue
what is a SRU?
1.-search region unit….n
2.-search and rescue unit….y
3.-strategic resource unit….n
4.-search and recovey unit….n
14.-search and rescue
what is the general means of communication within an A2 sea area?
1.-VHF….N
2.-MF….Y
3.-UHF….N
4.-VHF and NAVTEX….N
15.-search and rescue
Roughly what latitude north and south marks the boundary of the A4 sea area?
1.-65°….n
2.-70°….n
3.-76°….y
4.-80°….n
16.-search and rescue
what triggers transmission of a location signal form a SART?
1.-inmmersion in water….n
2.-a rada signal….y
3.-manual activation….n
4.-a satellite signal….n
17.-search and rescue
with in approximately what range will a SART respond to a radar signal?
1.-5-8 nautical miles….y
2.-8-12 nautical miles….n
3.-12-15 nautical miles….n
4.-15-20 nautical miles….n
18.-search and rescue
when can an alerting post crease direct communications with a vessel in distress?
1.-when it is located by a SAR authority….N
2.-when it is told to do so by a SRU….N
3.-when it switches communications to a working channel….N
4.-when it is told to do so by the MRCC….Y
19.-search and rescue
what are the means of notifying SRU commanders that a SAR operation is to be terminated?
1.-NAVTEX hard copy message….n
2.-R/T and NAVTEX….n
3.-R/T and SITREP….y
4.-SafetyNET transmission….n
20.-search and rescue
GMDSS is required on all cargo ships over:
1.-250GT….N
2.-300GT….Y
3.-500GT….N
4.-1000GT….N
21.-search and rescue
if a vessel receives a DSC distress alert what is the first thing that it should do?
1.-wait a while to see if a SAR authority respond….y
2.-immediately send a DSC acknowledgement….n
3.-call the vessel in distress on channel 16….n
4.-report the message to your own ships owners and get instructions….n
22.-search and rescue
which organisations jointly produce the IAMSAR manual?
1.-IMO and IRS….N
2.-ICAO and NGS….N
3.-AIS and WHO….N
4.-IMO and ICAO….Y
23.-search and rescue
Over which area of the earth are two inmarsat satellites permanently stationed?
1.-indian ocean….n
2.-pacific ocean….n
3.-equator….n
4.-atlantic ocean….y
24.-search and rescue
what is the difference between wait and wait out?
1.-wait means there is a pause, while wait out means channels….n
2.-wait means there is going to be a long pause,while wait out means end of transmission but will call you
back….n
3.-wait means there is going to be a short pause,while wait out mensa there is going to be a long pause….y
4.-wait means there is going to be a break in transmission, while wait out means case transmission until further
notice….n
25.-search and rescue
what actual range do most NAVTEX transmitters achieve?
1.-400 nautical miles….y
2.-450 nautical miles….n
3.-500 nautical miles….n
4.-550 nautical miles….n
1102-offshore supply safety
1.-when should the toolbox talk or sale job analysis meeting for the cargo operation at the installation be held?
1.- it is not necessary to hold the meeting, as personnel will already be familiar with what to do…..n
2.-before leaving port….n
3.-when the vessel is more than one hour from the installation….n
4.-when the vessel is close to the installation….y
2.-search and rescue
when there is mud and grease on deck from anchor handling or mooring operations you should:
1.-stop the operation….y
2.-inform the master….n
3.-clean it up ass soon as possible….n
4.-consult your fellow crew members….n
3.-search and rescue
if you recognise symptoms of fatigue in yourself, what should you do?
1.-finish the task then take a long rest….n
2.-finish the task then inform your supervisor….n
3.-stop for a cup of cofee and something to eat….n
4.-speak to yout supervisor….y
4.-search and rescue
what part of the equipment is most often the first indication that something has gone wrong during discharge of
dry bulk product?
1.-the hose in the water….n
2.-the hose in the deck….n
3.-the manifold….n
4.-the installations vent….y
5.-search and rescue
your main defence against injury is:
1.-your PPE….n
2.-life-saving appliances on board….n
3.-following correct operational procedures….y
4.-being very careful….n
6.-search and rescue
dangerous cargoes should be:
1.-pre-slug and, ideally, capped….n
2.-stowed in a designated area away from the accomodation….y
3.-securely stowed in racks….n
4.-allowed to move freely….n
7.-search and rescue
bridge personnel on offshore supply vessels are particularly susceptible to fatigue because:
1.-they are not allotted sufficient rest hours in the schedule…n
2.-they tend not to delegate to officer…n
3.-their vessels are often manoeuvred for long periods while close to installation….y
4.-they have to deal with so many officials...n
8.-search and rescue
once the crane sling is attached, the crew must:
1.-remain where they are, while manitoring the operation….N
2.-communicate with the bridge….N
3.-withdraw to a position of safety…Y
4.-put on their PPE….N
9.-search and rescue
Legislation on minimum rest hours for personnel assigned duty as officer in charge of a wathc or as a rating in
charge or a watch comes from:
1.-STCW….y
2.-the ISPS code….n
3.-OCIMF….n
4.-the marine safety forum….n
10.-search and rescue
are the statements about personal safety while working on offshore supply vessels true or false?
1.-when wearing a hard hat, chinstraps are optional, depending on the task in hand….f
2.-caffeine helps to minimise fatique…f
11.-search and rescue
if weather conditions are poor, who has the fina say about whether the operation should go ahead or.
1.-the vessels master….Y
2.-the vessels owner….N
3.-the field supervisor….N
4.-the OIM...N
12.-search and rescue
Are the statements about safety in offshore supply operations true or false?
1.-if a venting hose is used, it must be placed overboard, away from the jetty, and properly weighted….t
2.-in poor weather, the cargo lashings should all be removed well in advance of the discharge to the
installation….f
3.-within the 500 metre zone, one man on the bridge and two men in the engine room is considered good
practice….f
13.-search and rescue
where can you find out what PPE to wear when handling a particular bulk cargo?
1.-from the cargos MSDS…y
2.-you should know this already…n
3.-by asking the master....n
4.-what PPE you wear should not vary from cargo to cargo...n
14.-search and rescue
well casing should be:
1.-stowed in a designated area away from the accommodation....n
2.-pre-slung and, ideally, capped….y
3.-securely stowed in racks….n
4.-allowed to move freely….n
15.-search and rescue
once given permission to enter the 500 metre zone, the vessel should proceed to a safe position. How far
should this be from the installation?
1.-at least 25 metres….n
2.-at least 50 metres....y
3.-at least 75 metres….n
4.-at least 100 metres….n
16.-search and rescue
if you arent sure how to go about an operation, should:
1.-finish it to the best of your ability….n
2.-take extra care when doing it….n
3.-ask your fellow crew members to do it for you….n
4.-stop and ask for help….y
17.-search and rescue
why must the loading hoses be secured when pressuried air is used?
1.-in case they burst….n
2.-to prevent water getting in….n
3.-to stop them moving around….y
4.-it is not necessary to secure loading hoses when pressurised air is used….n
1106-maintenance of mooring systems
1.2.-maintenance of mooring systems
what provides a clear indication that a wire rope is becoming worn?
1.-wire snags appearing along its length….n
2.-a singing noise when it is under strain….n
3.-it becomes more pliant and easier to handle each time it is used….n
4.-a reduction in diameter….y
3.-maintenance of mooring systems
4.-maintenance of mooring systems
the brushes on a DC electrical winch systeam should be inspected:
1.-monthly….n
2.-after every mooring operation….n
3.-as specified in the companys service manual….y
4.-every six months….n
5.-maintenance of mooring systems
if a maintenance check shows signs that oil has penetrated the winch brake linings, they should be:
1.-replaced as soon as possible….y
2.-thoroughly cleaned with an effective solvent…n.
3.-dried out by exposure to the air for 24 hrs….n
4.-replaced at the time of the next annual survey….n
6.-maintenance of mooring systems
in particular, what do polyethylene ropes have to be checked for?
1.-extra stretching….n
2.-discolouring due to chemical sensitivity….n
3.-unpleasant smell indicating chemical attack....n
4.-heat damage due to their low melting point….y
7.-maintenance of mooring systems
is the statements about aramid fibre ropes true or false?
1.-compared to other materials, aramid fibre ropes have reduced resistance to ultra-violet light….t
8.-maintenance of mooring systems
how much abrasion damage to a synthetic fibre rope would mean it must be discarded?
1.-any sign….n
2.-5%....n
3.-10%....y
4.-15%....n
9.-maintenance of mooring systems
why are wire ropes treated with lubrican?
1.-to prevent excessive stretching….n
2.-to lubricate the internal wires, so maintaining service and flexibility….y
3.-to prevent corrosion on the outside of the wire….n
4.-to make the wire stretch more….n
10.-maintenance of mooring systems
how often should synthetic lines be end-for-ended in normal service?
1.-after every third mooring in which they have been used….n
2.-monthly….n
3.-at least every 4-6 months….y
4.-annually….n
11.-maintenance of mooring systems
if the complte strand of a wire rope has broken, the rope should be:
1.12.-maintenance of mooring systems
when visually inspecting synthetic fibre ropes, an important factor to watch for is:
1.-dirt on the ropes….n
2.-unusual colours in the ropes lenght….n
3.-a change in the ropes lenght….n
4.-degradation of the rope surface due to prolonged exposure to sunlight….n
962.-good bunkering practice
1.-are these statements about bunkering procedures true or false?
1.-when preparing for bunkering, any unused flanges should be blanked….t
2.-a member of the ships engine department should board the barge to be in overall control of the
bunkering….f
3.-the position of the hose should never be changed once the bunkering transfer has started….f
4.-the tank gauge can indicate a false measurement, depending on the vessels trim….t
2.-good bunkering practice
true or false
1.-bunker fuel is used in the auxiliary engines as well as the main engines….t
2.-bunker fuel is the highest quallity product distilled form crude oil….f
3.-good bunkering practice
when should fuel oil samples be taken?
1.-at the start of transfer….n
2.-in the middle of transfer….n
3.-continuosly during transfer….y
4.-at the end of transfer….n
4.-good bunkering practice
what are most oil spills at sea caused by?
1.- collision….n
2.-overspills during bunkering….y
3.-leaking barges….n
4.-corroded oil drums….n
5,.good bunkering practice
the sample of the fuel oil required for MARPOL should not be less than:
1.-100ml….n
2.-200ml….n
3.-300ml….n
4.-400ml….y
6.-good bunkering practice
what is the MARPOL annex VI maximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oil used within a SECA?
1.-0.5% m/m….n
2.-1.5% m/m….y
3.-2.5% m/m….n
4.-4.5% m/m….n
7.-good bunkering practice
which of the items listed is NOT regullated by MARPOL annex VI?
1.-maximum sulphur content….
2.-quality of the fuel oil….n
3.information on the BDN….n
4.-emergency shut-down procedures….y
5.-sampling procedures….n
8.-good bunkering practice
what is the MARPOL annex VI maximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oil used
outside a SECA?
1.-3% M/M….N
2.-1.5% M/M….N
3.-4.5% M/M….Y
4.-5% M/M….N
9.-good bunkering practice
How many fuel oil samples need to be taken?
1.-2....n
2.-3….n
3.-4....y
4.-6….n
10.-good bunkering practice
elige la imagen correcta, drag the commands to match the appropiate bunkering hand signals
1.-start. 2.-wai 3.-reduce pumping rate 4.-increase pumping rate 5.-stop 6.-finish
11.-good bunkering practice
drag the correct words form the list to complete the sentences about measuring the volume of bunker fuel
delivered.
Throughout the bunkering operation, the ships representative on the BARGE should therefore witness and
monitor tank LEVELS, by checking the reference HEIGHTS and tank NUMBERS in the CALIBRATION tables
supplied by the barge.
12.-good bunkering practice
Which information about the fuel oil that has been delivered does the BDN (Bunker delivery note) NOT
include?
1.-quantity….n
2.-density….n
3.-flash-point….y
4.-sulphur content….n
13.-good bunkering practice
is this statement about risk assessment true or false?
1.-risk assessment should take place as soon as the barge arrive….f
14.-good bunkering practice
The BDN ( bunker delivery note) must be kept on board for at least:
1.-3 years….y
2.-4 years….n
3.-5 years….n
4.-7 years….n
15.-good bunkering practice
drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about material safety data sheets.
Material safety data sheets detailing any DANGEROUS characteristics of the fuel oil should have been
received from the SUPPLIER in advance of the bunkering OPERATION, and the bunkering TEAM should be
made familiar with them.
16.-good bunkering practice
What dangerous gas may be present during bunkering?
1.-hydrogen sulphide….y
2.-carbon monoxide….n
3.-ammonia….n
4.-methane….n
1103-vessel general permit
1.-for which vessels greater than 79 feet is submission of a notice of intent (NOI) required in order to obtain
coverage under the VGP?
1.-Large fishing vessels….n
2.-merchant ships under 300 GT, with ballast water capacity of less than 8 cubic metres….n
3.-merchant ships of 300 GT or above, or whose ballast water capacity is 8 cubic metres or more….y
4.-all vessels, regardless of weight of ballast water capacity….n
2.-vessel general permit
true or false?
1.-the purpose of the VPG is to enable better control of pollution in US waters….t
3.-vessel general permit
true or false?
1.-annual inspections should be carried out in dry dock….f
4.-vessel general permit
VPG applies in waters:
1.-up to 1nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
2.-up to 3nm fromthe US coast and US inland waterways….y
3.-up to 12nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
4.-up to 20nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
5.-vessel general permit
inspections for effluent discharges should bee:
1.-every watch, weekly, quarterly and annually….y
2.-only weekly and annually….n
3.-only every watch and annually….n
4.-it is up to the EPA to carry out inspections, not the ship….n
6.-vessel general permit
if a discharge is made that could endanger health or the environment, what should you do?
1.-report it to the US coast guard within 7 days….n
2.-report it to the EPA within 24 hours….y
3.-report it to the EPA within 7 days….n
4.-report it to the company within 24 hours, and they will contact the US coast guard or EPA on the vessels
behalf….n
7.-vessel general permit
when should simple corrective actions such as housekeeping be carried out?
1.-immediately….y
2.-no longer than 2 weeks….n
3.-no longer than 3 months….n
4.-before the vessels is re-launched from dry dock….n
8.-vessel general permit
when should changes requiring new parts or equipment to be installed without dry docking be carried out?
1.-inmmediately….n
2.-within 2 weeks….n
3.-within 3 months….y
4.-within 6 months….n
9.-vessel general permit
all records must be kept on board from:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y
10.-vessel general permit
the penalty for knowingly making a false statement is:
1.-a fine of $5,000….n
2.-a fine of $10,000 and up to 2 years in prison….n
3.-a fine of $50,000 per day of violation and up to 3 years in prision….y
4.-a fine of $100,000 per day of violation and up 5 years in prison….n
11.-vessel general permit
under MARPOL annex I, the maximum permitted concentration of oil in any oily discharges is:
1.-<1 ppm….n
2.-<5 ppm….n
3.-<50 ppm….n
4.-<15 ppm….y
12.-vessel general permit
which vessels may discharge untreated oily bilge water?
1.-any vessel….n
2.-no vessel….n
3.-vessels under 400 GT….y
4.-Vessels greater than 400 GT….n
13.-vessel general permit
if the vessel is on an ocean going voyage, it can only discharge ballast water in VGP controlled waters if the
ballast water has been exchanged in waters more than:
1.-3nm from shore….n
2.-12nm from shore….n
3.-100nm from shore….n
4.-200nm from shore….y
14.-vessel general permit
is the following statement about the implementation of the VGP true or false?
1.-no vessel may discharge boiler blowdown within 1nm of federally protected waters under any
circumstances….f
15.-vessel general permit
true or false?
1.-vessels over 400 GT with graywater storage capacity should discharge when more than 1nm from shore
and while underway….t
16.-vessel general permit
true or false?
1.-if major hull cleaning is required in port, it should take place in dry dock….t
17.-vessel general permit
to minimise chain locker effluent, the anchor chains should be thoroughly washed down:
1.-after every hauling up….y
2.-once a week….n
3.-once a month….n
4.-before a entering port….n
18.-vessel general permit
firemain systems are included in the VGP because their water may contain:
1.-metal and chemicals….y
2.-bacteria and nutrients….n
3.-oil and grease….n
4.-solvents….n
19.-vessel general permit
in seawather cooling systems, the filters should be:
1.-cleaned regulary while in port….N
2.-cleaned regularly when more than 50nm from shor….Y
3.-replaced once a month….N
4.-maintained as usual. seawather cooling systems are not regulated by the VGP….N
20.-vessel general permit
Fouling organisms removed from the seawater piping systems should ideally be discharged when the vessels
is:
1.-more than 1nm from shore….n
2.-more than 3nm from shore….n
3.-more than 12 nm from shore….n
4.-more than 50 nm from shore….y
1115.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
1.-Once the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation deck ande securely bowsed, what
is the next step in the launching procedure?
1.-the sliphook of the gripes is connected….n
2.-the sliding beam davits are removed….n
3.-the boat is lowered to the waterline….n
4.-the person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare to board the evacuees….y
2.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
a fully enclosed ifeboats descent can be stopped at any time by:
1.-pulling on the painter….n
2.-signalling to the winch operator….n
3.-increasing the tension on the brake control cable….n
4.-releasing the tension on the brake control cable….y
3.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
the shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:
1.-rigid covers….n
2.-folding canopies….n
3.-a combination of rigid covers and folding canopies….y
4.-a fibreglass shell that is operated electronically and can cover up to 80% of the boat….n
4.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
when lauching a fully enclosed lifeboat, theFPDs should be removed….
1.-before the boat stars to descend….n
2.-just before the boat reaches the water….y
3.-once the boat is in the water….b
4.-FPDs should never be removed….b
5.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
what is a SART?
1.-A survival craft radar transponder….y
2.-a survival craft radio transmitter….n
3.-a search and rescue team on standby for maritime emergencies….n
4.-a search and rescue training exercise….n
6.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboat extremely carefully?
1.-because the boat is in the water and they could get wet….n
2.-because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle….y
3.-because it is extremely weight-sensitive….n
4.-because sudden movements could dislodge it….n
7.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
what are the gripes?
1.-they are special storage spaces onboard the lifeboat to hold food supplies….n
2.-they secure the lifeboat to the bollards on the main deck….n
3.-they aid in lowering the boat by using the winch mechanism….n
4.-they secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed….y
8.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
true or false?
1.-all on-load release system must have built in safeguards against early release….t
2.-when the boats is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released….t
3.-a freefall lifeboat should be abandoned if the engine does not start….f
9.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
if you lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long will the constant flow of air last?
1.-a minimum of 2 minutes….n
2.-a minimum of 5 minutes….n
3.-a minimum of 10 minutes….y
4.-a minimum of 20 minutes….n
10.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanism. which of the actions listed to avoid
this happening does NOT belong on the list?
1.-make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease all moving parts….
2.-check the manufacturers handbook on proper use of the mechanism….y
3.-make yourself fully aware of the correct procedures….n
4.-make yourself fully aware of the safety checks….n
5.-make yourself fully aware of all other launching equipment….n
11.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
when getting clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended procedure?
1.-make sur the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship….y
2.-head down wind of the ship and clear of its bow and stern….n
3.-stay within 100 metres of the ship, on the bow side….n
4.-stay within 100 metres of the ship, on the stern side….n
12.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
at what point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a fully enclosed lifeboat?
1.-once the bottom plugs have been set….n
2.-once the painter has been passed out of the forward hatch and secured….n
3.-once everyone is inside….y
4.-once the engine has been started….n
13.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?
1.-fire-protected lifeboats….n
2.-freefall lifeboats….y
3.-partially enclosed lifeboats….n
4.-fully enclosed lifeboats….n
14.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
what is the purpose of the hydrostatic interlock in the keel?
1.-it prevents seawater entering the boat….n
2.-it indicates the loaded weight of the boat and prevents overloading….n
3.-it prevents release of the hooks until such time that the keel of the boat is under water….y
4.-it supplies cooling water to the lifeboat engine….n
1116-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
1.-which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release?
1.-all liferafts except the ones stored forward….y
2.-the ones stored insie the accommodation….n
3.-all throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release….n
4.-no throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release….n
2.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
how many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
1.-1….y
2.-2….n
3.-3….n
4.-25 person liferafts are too heavy to right….n
3.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
true or false?
1.-the priority after launching the liferafts is to get clear of the ship using any means possible….t
2.-marine evacuation system have the disadvantage that evacuees may have to enter the water before getting
into the liferaft….f
3.-once a throw overboard liferaft is in the water, you should rig the embarkation ladder….f
4.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
as evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew members sitting at the entrance should:
1.-check that they have removed all sharp objects from their pockets….n
2.-check that they have brought all the necessary survival equipment….n
3.-direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on….y
4.-direct the first evacuees to sit on the buoayancy chambers,and then the rest to left and right….n
5.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
what is the first action when boarding a throw overboard liferaft?
1.-use the painter to secure the liferaft alongside….n
2.-rig the ships boarding ladders….n
3.-check the liferaft for leaks and damage….y
4.-prepare the davit….n
6.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the browsing lines be used for?
1.-to pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding….y
2.-to act as a safety device ….n
3.-there are no bowsing lines on davit-launched liferafts….n
4.-clearing the boarding area of obstacles….n
7.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
when launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft shackle out of the canister, what
should you do next?
1.-let it go….n
2.-hook it on to the davit….y
3.-hook it on to the browsing line….n
4.-you should never pull the liferafts shackle out of the canister….n
8.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
what is the first action is launching a davit-launched liferaft?
1.-remove the ships side rails….y
2.-remove the liferafts securing straps….n
3.-prepare the davit….n
4.-check that the launch area is unobstructed….n
9.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
where can you find out detailed information about liferaft equipment and operation?
1.-from the ships safety management system….n
2.-from the manufacturers websites….n
3.-from the muster list….n
4.-from the SOLAS training manual….y
10.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
why is it important to keep the bowsing lives within the raft?
1.-so that they can be used to tie the rafts together when the raft is clear….n
2.-so that they can be used to tie evacuees together it the liferaft should sink….n
3.-so that the davit hook can be raisedd ready for the next launch….n
4.-so that they will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while it is being lowered….y
11.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
how are throw overboard liferafts inflated?
1.-by releasing the senhouse slip….n
2.-by opening the valise….n
3.-by using the pump supplied….n
4.-by giving a strong pull on the painter at its full extent….y
12.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within:
1.-15 minutes….n
2.-30 minutes….y
3.-45 minutes….n
4.-one hour….n
13.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
when may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
1.-when you hear the general emergency signal….n
2.-when the person in charge of the liferaft gives the order….n
3.-when the master or their deputy gives the order….y
4.-when you judge that it is no longer safe to stay on the ship….n
14.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
what should you do if water enters the life raft?
1.-let it out, using the drain plug….n
2.-nothing. the raft will remain buoyant in any case….n
3.-bail it out as soon as possible, using the baler and/or sponge….y
4.-contact other liferafts in the vicinity for assistance….n
1117-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4.1.-There are four main dangers faced by evacuees in a survival craft. which item does not belong in this.
1.-drowning….n
2.-cold exposure….n
3.-lack of water….n
4.-lack of food….n
5.-inability to sleep….y
2.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
true or false?
1.-immersion suits should be put on and zipped up before entering an enclosed lifeboat….f
3.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
whats the recommended way of cooling yourself down in a hot climate when in a liferaft?
1.-by taking regular dips in the sea….n
2.-by using the battery-operated fan provided….n
3.-by deflating the liferaft floor….y
4.-by paddling the raft to create an air current….n
4.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
how long can a well-nourished person normally survive without water?
1.-24 hours….n
2.-3-4 days….y
3.-8-10 days….n
4.-1 month….n
5.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
how much water should be given per day after the first 24 hours?
1.-no rations are required for the first 5 days….n
2.-1 glass….n
3.-0.5 litre….y
4.-1.5 litres….n
6.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
look-out watches should be kept:
1.-24 hours a day….y
2.-during daylight hours….n
3.-at night….n
4.-at the discretion of the person in charge….n
7.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
which piece of equipment transmits a distress signal with your vessels unique serial number?
1.-SART….N
2.-radar reflector….N
3.-GMDSS….N
4.-EPIRB….Y
8.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
Which piece of equipment communicates with nearby vessels radar?
1.-SART….Y
2.-radar reflector….N
3.-GMDSS….N
4.-EPIRB….N
9.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
Which piece of signalling equipment is used for long range signalling?
1.-heliograph….n
2.-smoke canister….n
3.-parachute flare….y
4.-hand flare….n
10.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
what is the heliograph used for?
1.-to check the outside temperature….n
2.-to warm the emergency food rations….n
3.-as a first aid burns dressing….n
4.-as a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun….y
11.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
if you have had to enter the water, what is the best course of action?
1.-move as mucho as possible to keep your circulation going….n
2.-take off your boots or shoes….n
3.-find an object to climb on to….y
4.-keep your front into the wind and waves….n
12.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
which piece of signalling equipment will help helicopter pilots judge the surface wind speed and direction?
1.-smoke float….y
2.-heliograph….n
3.-parachute flare….n
4.-hand flare….n
13.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
whats the normal methodd of winching a single uninjured person into a helicopter from a ship?
1.-a highline….n
2.-a lifting stretcher….n
3.-a basket….n
4.-a rescue hook or strop….y
14.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
whats the minimum number of crew required in the rescue boat?
1.-2 people….n
2.-3 people….y
3.-4 people….n
4.-5 people….n
15.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
when launching a rescue boat, what shoul the ships speed be?
1.-no more than 2 knots….n
2.-no more than 5 knots….y
3.-no more than 7 knots….n
4.-no more than 10 knots….n
16.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
what is the function of the inside watchman on board an inflated raft?
1.-to prepare food and distribute the water….n
2.-to stop people from smoking….n
3.-to cheer up the occupants….n
4.-to check on injured personnel and on the state of the survival craft….y
17.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
shock is a state of collapse that may occur after any serious injury. how should victims be treated?
1-they should be kept cool, and if conscious placed in an upright position….n
2.-they should be kept warm, laid flat and, if conscious, given frequent sips of water- except for those with
stomach injuries….y
3.-they should be given a small dose of medicinal brandy, then laid flat and given rest….n
4.-none, wait untill rescue services arrive with speciallist personnel trained to deal with such a medical
emergency….n
18.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
When would you fire the pyrotechnics after launching the lifeboats and liferafts?
1.-once every hour immediately after launching….n
2.-when you have sighted the rescue services or other ships/ aricraft….y
3.-once every hour during the hours of darkness….n
4.-on request from the rescue services….n
1119-MARPOL annex VI1.-For ships of 400 GT and above, the bunker delivery note must be kept on board for at least:
1.-1 year….n
2.-3 years….y
3.-5 years….n
4.-7 years….n
2.-MARPOL annex VI
on or after 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oil used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….y
4.-4.5% m/m….n
3.-MARPOL annex VI
what is the minimum allowed combustion chamber gas outlet temperature fot the incirenator?
1.-550°c….n
2.-850°c….y
3.-750°c….n
4.-650°c….n
4.-MARPOL annex VI
under the MARPOL Annex VI, there must be valid certification for the ships built on or after which date?
1.-19 may 2000….n
2.-19 may 2002….n
3.-19 may 2003….n
4.-19 may 2005...y
5.-MARPOL annex VI
tier III NOx limits apply to engines installed on ships on or after:
1.-1 january 2000….n
2.-1 january 2005….n
3.-1 january 2011….n
4.-1 january 2016….y
6.-MARPOL annex VI
what is the Tier II NOx limit where the engine speed is less than 130 rpm?
1.-17.0….n
2.-9.8….n
3.-14.4….y
4.-3.4….n
7.-MARPOL annex VI
true or false.
1.-the incineration of PCBs is never allowed under Annex VI….T
8.-MARPOL annex VI
True or false.
1.-annex VI applies to all merchant ship types, however large or small, except where specifically exempted….t
9.-MARPOL annex VI
which of the substances listed may be incinerated on board, as long as the ship is not in a port, harbour or
estuary?
1.-sewage sludge and sludge oil generated during normal shipboard operation….1
2.-waste, containing traces of heavy metals such as mercury and cadmium….n
3.-refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds….n
4.-MARPOL annex I,II ir III residues and any associated contaminated packaging….n
5.-exhaust gas cleaning system residues….n
10.-MARPOL annex VI
on or after 1/7/2010, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used inside an ECA is:
1.-1.00% m/m….y
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-2.0% m/m….n
4.-2.5% m/m…..n
11.-MARPOL annex VI
from the time the fuel oil is delivered, the fuel oil sample should be retained under the ships control for:
1.-at least 6 months….n
2.-at least 12 months….y
3.-at least 18 months….n
4.-at least 24 months….n
12.-MARPOL annex VI
until 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oil used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….n
4.-4.5% m/m….y
13.-MARPOL annex VI
true or false?
1.-when taking the fuel sample for MARPOL, care should be taken not to shake the primary sample quantity
before filling the retained sample container….f
14.-MARPOL annex VI
whose responsibility is it to ensure that before a ship enters a port or terminal where VOC controls are being
implemented, it is equipped with a means of collecting VOCs so that they can be returned to shoreside
facilities?
1.-the owners….y
2.-the masters….n
3.-the administrations….n
4.-nobodys. the ship is not required to be equipped with a means of collecting VOCs….n
15.-MARPOL annex VI
true or false?
1.-vapour emission recovery regulations apply to tankers trading in all ports and terminals….f
16.-MARPOL annex VI
the sample of fuel oil required by annex VI should be not less than:
1.-400 ml….y
2.-300 ml….n
3.-200 ml….n
4.-100 ml….n
17.-MARPOL annex VI
refrigerant and fire-fighting systems using hydro-chlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) may be installed until:
1.-19 may 2010….n
2.-19 may 2012….n
3.-1 january 2016….n
4.-1 january 2020….y
18.-MARPOL annex VI
which of the substances listed is not controlled by MARPOL annex VI?
1.-halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs….n
4.-NOx….n
5.-H2S….y
6.-SOx….n
19.-MARPOL annex VI
is the following statement relating to annex Vi true or false?
1.-in order to obtain an EIAPPC, a re-survey is not needed for engines which have already been issued with
statements of compliance with the NOx technical code….t
20.-MARPOL annex VI
which atmospheric pollutant is released when crude oils or petroleum products are trasnported, loaded and
unloaded on ships?
1.-halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs....y
4.-NOx….n
5.-H25….n
6.-SOx….n
1122-FIGHTING POLLUTION1.-true or false.
1.-the ullage should be checked once the transfer has been completed….f
2.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
sewage which has not been communited or disinfected can only be discharged when the ship is more than:
1.-3 nautical miles from shone….n
2.-12 nautical miles from shore….y
3.-4 nautical miles from shore….n
4.-50 nautical miles from shore….n
3.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
the term segregated ballast means:
1.-a ballast system completely separated from the fuel oil system….n
2.-a ballast system completely separated from the cargo oil system….n
3.-a ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil systems….y
4.-none of the above….n
4.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
the disposal of plastics at sea is:
1.-allowed anywhere outside the designated special / areas….n
2.-allowed as long as they have passed through a comminutor….n
3.-allowed as long as the ship is no less than 12 nautical miles from the coast….n
4.-strictly prohibited everywhere….y
5.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
MARPOL annex V affects.
1.-all shipss ( unless expressly provided otherwise )....y
2.-ships of 150 GT and above….n
3.-ships of 500 GT and above….n
4.-ships carrying 12 or more passengers….n
6.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
according to HELMEPA, how many years does it take for a tin can do disintegrate in the sea?
1.-1 month….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-10 years….n
4.-100 years….y
7.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
MARPOL annex VI limits the emissions into the atmosphere from ships of:
1.-nitrogen oxides….y
2.-methyl bromide….n
3.-carbon dioxide….n
4.-ozone….n
8.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
improving the fuel efficiency of the vessel may require:
1.-use of weather routing….n
2.-just in time arriva….n
3.-improved hull maintenance….n
4.-optimum trim….n
5.-all of the above….y
9.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
true or false?
1.-cleaning materials should be ready to deal with any accidental spill….t
10.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
since 1 july 2010, whats has been the maximum permitted sulphur content of fuel oils in an emission control
area ( ECA) according to MARPOL annex VI?
1.-0.5%....N
2.-1.0%....Y
3.-1.5%....N
4.-4.5%...N
11.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
Which MARPOL annex deals with the regulations for the prevention of pollution of oil?
1.-annex I….Y
2.-annex II….N
3.-annex IV….N
4.-annex V….N
12,.FIGHTING POLLUTION
Ships many only discharge processed bilge water from machinery spaces into the sea if certain very specific
criteria are met. which of those listed is correct?
1.-the ship is sailing within a special area….N
2.-the ship is proceeding en route….Y
3.-the oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 100 ppm….N
4.-the ship has in operation equipment as required by regulation 16(5) of annex 1 to MARPOL….N
13.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
TRUE OR FALSE.
1.-during fuel transfer the deck scuppers should be plugged….t
14.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
All oily water discharge must be monitored to ensure that the oil content is not greater than the permitted limit.
this:
1.-10 parts per million….n
2.-15 parts per million….y
3.-25 parts per million….n
4.-50 parts per million….n
15.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
outside special areas, how many nautical miles from the nearest land can oil or oily mixtures be discharged
from an oil tanker?
1.-15….n
2.-35….n
3.-50….y
4.-75….n
16.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
the SEEMP is:
1.-a plan for monitoring environmental effectiveness on board….n
2.-a system for monitoring improvements is energy consumption….n
3.-a ship specific plan for managing the ships energy efficiency….y
17.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
true or false
1.-vessels smaller than 400 GT can discharge oil or oily mixture into the sea in the antartic area….f
18.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
true or false
1.-once transfer begins all the hoses and connections should be checked to ensure they are tight under
pressure….t
19.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
which of those listed is not a special area designated under MARPOL 73/78 annex 1?
1.-the mediterranean sea area….n
2.-the baltic sea area….n
3.-the red sea area….n
4.-the caribbean sea area….y
5.-the black sea area….n
20.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
which MARPOL annex deals with garbage and waste disposal from ships?
1.-I….N
2.-IV….N
3.-V….Y
4.-VI….N
21.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
The garbage record book must be open for inspection at all times and kept, after entry of the last record,for a
minimum of:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….y
4.-5 years….n
22.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
MARPOL annex VI specifies that the bunker delivery note ( BDN) should be kept available for inspection for:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y
1174-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT1.-At which stage should garbage be separated out into different categories?
1.-at collection….y
2.-at processing….n
3.-at storage….n
4.-at discharge….n
2.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
is the following statement about the management of garbage true or false?
1.-every ship of 100 GT and above, every ship certified to carry 15 or more persons, and fixed or floating
platforms must all carry a garbage management plan….t
3.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
how long does a tin can take a biodegrade?
1.-1 year….n
2.-10 years….n
3.-25 years….n
4.-50 years….y
4.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false?
1.-offshore platforms may discharge non-harmful cleaning agents and addities in deck and external surfaces
wash water….f
5.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
after the last entry, the garbage record book must be kept on board the ship or platform and available for
inspection for a minimum of:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….y
4.-5 years….n
6.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
how much plastic garbage in the oceans is the estimated to have been generated by boats, ship and
platforms?
1.-80%....n
2.-100%....n
3.-20%....y
4.-50%....n
7.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false
1.-the garbage management plan must cover the collection, processing, storage and discharge of garbage….t
8.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
the revised MARPOL annex provisions for the discharge of garbage into the sea have applied since:
1.-1 july 2013….n
2.-1 january 2013….y
3.-1 january 2014….n
4.-1 july 2014….n
9.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false
1.-placards alerting crew and passengers to the discharge prohibitions must be prominently displayed on the
ship or platform….t
10.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
to what size does food waste need to be reduced before it can be discharged into the sea at the specified
distance from nearest land?
1.-1 cm….n
2.-50 mm….n
3.-25 mm….y
4.-there is no set size….n
11.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
in the garbage record book, each completed page must be signed by:
1.-the person designated in charge of garbage management….n
2.-the master….y
3.-the safety officer….n
4.-the officer of the watch….n
12.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
which of the areas listed is NOT specia AREA?
1.-The baltic sea….n
2.-the wider caribbean region….n
3.-the red sea….n
4.-the south china sea….y
13.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false?
1.-garbage may be discharged to sea if it presents an imminent health risk….t
14.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
at what distance from the nearest land may ships outside special areas discharge cooking, floating dunnage,
paper and lining and packing materials?
1.-discharge of these materials is prohibited anywhere….y
2.-12 nautical miles….n
3.-100 nautical miles….n
4.-there is no specified distance….n
15.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false
1.-once garbage has been incinerated, the resulting ash may be discharged into the sea….f
16.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
which of the items listed is NOT considered garbage under the revised MARPOL annex V regulations?
1.-food waste….n
2.-plastic….n
3.-domestic wastes….n
4.-operational waste….n
5.-fresh fish….y
6.-cargo residues…n.
7.-cooking oil….n
8.-fishing gear….n
17.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false
1.-ships within special areas may discharge animal carcasses, on condition that it is as far from the nearest
land as possible and en route….f
18.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
at what distance from the nearest land may ships within special areas discharge non-
hamful cargo residues contained in wash water?
1.-3 nautical miles…n
2.-12 nautical miles….y
3.-100 nautical miles….n
4.-there is no specified distance….n
19.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
outside a special area, at what distance from the nearest land may ground food waste be discharged into the
sea by ships?
1.-3 nautical miles….y
2.-12 nautical miles….n
3.-100 nautical miles….n
4.-no specified distance….n
20.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
who has overall responsibility for garbage procedures on the ship of platform?
1.-everyone is equally responsible….n
2.-the officer of the watch….n
3.-the safety officer….n
4.-the person or persons designated in the garbage management plan….y
975-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING.
1.-When a piece of electrical equipment is being worked on, the electrician removes the fuses in order to:
1.-use them where they are more urgently needed….n
2.-isolate the area….y
3.-act as a warning….n
4.-avoid the power draining away….n
2.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
ventilation systems should be efficiently maintained so that:
1.-fumes are drawn off….y
2.-the power supply does not surge….n
3.-the negative ions in the air continue to circulate….n
4.-the cargo is not affected….n
3.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
true or false?
1.-it is dangerous to secure oxyacetylene cylinders….f
2.-first aid kits should never be touched except in an emergency….f
3.-the purpose of keeping guards in place on machines is so that loose clothing is not caught in the moving
parts….t
4.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
who is primarily responsible for good housekeeping on board ship?
1.-the master….n
2.-the safety officer….n
3.-the chief engineer….n
4.-everyone on board….y
5.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
true or false?
1.-when you have finished working below bottom plate level, the first thing you should do is dispose of the oily
rags and paper waste….f
2.-spilled oil is a fact of life on board ship and a certain amount left on the surfaces is acceptable….f
3.-spare parts for tools and machinery should be labelled….t
6.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
when working on a ladder, you should keep any necessary tools:
1.-in your pocket….n
2.-in a container….y
3.-in your backpack….n
4.-attached to your belt….n
7.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
if a colour-coded pipe has faded or become obscured, you should:
1.-give it a good wash….n
2.-repaint it in a similar colour….n
3.-report it for repainting….y
4.-grit-blast it to remove the colour altogether….n
8.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
true or false?
1.-warning signs should be placed in the vicinity of hot pipes….t
2.-oily rags and waste paper can cause fumes and fire from spontaneous combustion….t
3.-the chemicals required for cleaning equipment will have been approved for use on board andd will not
require any special precautions….f
977-PORT STATE CONTROL
1.-Which of the actions listed is NOT one that the PSCO can request following an inspection?
1.-rectify the deficiency at the next survey….y
2.-rectify the deficiency at the next port….n
3.-rectify the deficiency within 14 days….n
4.-rectify the deficiency before departure….n
2.-PORT STATE CONTROL
Which of the conditions listed would NOT constitute clear grounds for a more detailed inspection?
1.-crew members are not familiar with essential shipboard operational procedures related to the safety of the
ship or pollution prevention….n
2.-the crew accommodation is untidy and dirty….y
3.-the ships equipment does not appear to correspond substanially with the requirements fo the relevant
conventions….n
3.-PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false.
1.-inspectors may ask to see the crew undertaking drills….t
4.-PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-a surveyor from a recognised organisation may be asked to attend the ship and sort out remedial action
acceptable to the PSCO….T
5.-PORT STATE CONTROL
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Absence of valid ISM certification will lead to a detention….t
6.-PORT STATE CONTROL
inspection reports must be retained on board the ship:
1.-for 2 years….y
2.-for 3 years….n
3.-for 4 years….n
4.-until the next inspection….n
7.-PORT STATE CONTROL
which of the IMO conventions listed is NOT relevant for PSC inspection?
1.-loadlines….n
2.-SOLAS….n
3.-MARPOL….n
4.-intact stability code….y
4.-Colreg convention….n
8.-PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-records of all drills should be retained for inspection….t
9.-PORT STATE CONTROL
the PSCO will always want to start the inspection with:
1.-a quick tour of the ship….n
2.-a check of previous report forms….n
3.-a through check of the ships documents….y
4.-a check on how well the crew can communicate with each other….n
10.-PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-inspections can only board ships during the day and by appointment….f
11.-PORT STATE CONTROL
during the inspection the PSCO should be:
1.-left to go wherever he likes on his own….N
2.-accompanied by one or more ships officers….Y
3.-accompanied by adn AB….N
12.-PORT STATE CONTROL
Regulations concerning crew living and working conditions as well as the social rights of seawaters are
specified in a convention developed by:
1.-the international maritime organization (IMO)....N
2.-the international transport workers federation (ITF)....N
3.-the international chamber of shipping (ISC)....N
4.-The international labour organisation (ILO)….Y
13.-PORT STATE CONTROL
Which of the conditions listed do PSCOs commonly find as deficiencies?
1.-charts not properly updated….n
2.-lack of proper maintenance….n
3.-unsatisfactory life saving appliances….n
4.-oil record book not kept properly….n
5.-all of the above….y
14.-PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-if the master feels the detention order is unfair he should ignore it and raise it with his flag state at the next
port….f
15.-PORT STATE CONTROL
as a minimum the port state control officer will inspect:
1.-the ships certificate plus a general inspection of the ship which must include the bridge….n
2.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which may include the engine room, bridge, deck
and crew accommodation….y
3.-the ships certificates….n
4.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which must include crew accommodation….n
1171.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
1.-true or false.
1.-PSC examinations should last around 2-4 hours….t
2.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false.
1.-the accommodation and lliving quarters are private and not subject to PSC examinations….f
3.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false
1.-PSCOs examine the workings of the vessel and not its certificates and documentation….f
4.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false.
1.-PSCOs are concerned with the environmental impact of invasive species….t
5.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false
1.-detained vessels may challenge PSC findings….t
6.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
which of the IMO conventions listed is not relevant for PSC examination?
1.-loadlines….n
2.-SOLAS….n
3.-MARPOL….n
4.-Intact stability code….y
5.-COLREGS convention….n
7.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
during the examination the port state control officer should be:
1.-accompanied by one or more ships officers….y
2.-left to go wherever he likes on his own….n
3.-accompanied by an AB….n
4.-accompanied by the master throughout the entire process….n
8.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false.
1.-the PSC examination does not include items covered under the vessel general permit….f
9.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
in most cases the PSCO will want to start the examination with:
1.-a quick tour of the vessel….n
2.-a search for asian gypsy moth egg masses….n
3.-a thorough check of the ships documents….y
4.-a check on how well the crew can communicate with each other….n
10.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-crew members may be required to demonstrate equipment and procedures….t
11.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-PSC examinations are for officers only….f
12.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-PSCOs are concerned with vessels safety as well as the protection of US ports….t
13.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-PSCOs do not have the authority to detain vessels that fail inspections….f
14.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
inspection reports must be retained on board ship:
1.-for 2 years….y
2.-for 3 years….n
3.-for 4 years….n
4.-until the next inspection….n
15.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
as a minimum the port state control officer will inspect:
1.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which must include the bridge….n
2.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which may include the engine room, bridge, deck
and crew accommodation….y
3.-the ships certificates….n
4.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which must include crew accommodation….n
16.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false.
1.-port state control (PSC) is administered by the united states coast guard and customs and border
protection….t
17.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false….
1.-PSC examination can an will review log and record books….t
18.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
with regard to compliance with the ISPS code, when the PSCOs board the ship they will check to see if:
1.-the gangway watch is well maintained….n
2.-the watchstander has adequate knowledge of vessel security….n
3.-an accurate record of visitors is being kept….n
4.-they are greeted and guided to meet the master….n
5.-all the above are true….y
594.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
1.-The most important document that provides evidence of the quantity and condition of cargo carried on board
is the:
1.-ships delivery order….n
2.-bill of landing….y
3.-maters receipt….n
4.-letter of credit….n
2.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
true or false?
1.-minor cuts and bruises dont always have to be investigated and recorded….f
3.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
the main reason for a thorough investigation following an incident is to:
1.-find out who is to blame….n
2.-prevement it from happening again….y
3.-kepp good records of what occurs on board….n
4.-all of the above….n
4.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
any photographs or visual evidence should include:
1.-the correct time, time zone and date….n
2.-some indication of scale, where appropiates….n
3.-separate notes about what the images show and who made them….n
4.-all the above….y
5.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
true or false?
1.- poor record keeping and filing may show the company in a poor light if a case comes to court….t
6.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
why was there a lighting problem in the area where the incident ocurred?
1.-the lighting switch was defective….n
2.-nobody had fitted replacement bulbs….n
3.-because the electrician had failed to order replacement bulbs….y
7.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
true or false?
1.-crewmembers notebooks are private documents and cannot be considered as evidence….f
8.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
true or false?
1.-many ship data recorders only store data for no more than 12 hours….t
9.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
true or false?
1.-all items of evidence should be clearly labelled and securely packaged….t
10.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
which annex MARPOL deals with the prevention of pollution from garbage?
1.-annex I….N
2.-annex IV….N
3.-annex V….Y
4.-annex VI….N
11.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
The ships obligations relating to be carriage of cargo are defined in:
1.- the hague and hague-visby rules….Y
2.-the bill of lading….N
3.-the ships certificate of fitness….N
4.-SOLAS….N
12.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-altering of falsifying records may be regarded as a criminal offence….t
621-PERMIT TO WORK
1.-what is the meaning of the word hazard?
1.-the sequence of events leading to a hazardous situation of accident….n
2.-the consequence of an accident….n
3.-the means of controlling risk….n
4.-a potential to threaten human life, health, property of the environment….y
2.-PERMIT TO WORK
which of the statements does NOT belong in the list? A permit to work shoul state:
1.-the qualification of the crewmember(s) to do the work….y
2.-the precise location and details of the work to be done….n
3.-the measures undertaken to make the job safe….n
4.-the nature and resuts of any preliminary tests….n
3.-PERMIT TO WORK
in the first case study, what was the specific aromatic hydrocarbon indentified as being hazardous in extremely
low concentration?
1.-Naphtha….n
2.-Methane….n
3.-Benzene….y
4.-Kerosene….n
4.-PERMIT TO WORK
what is the ddefinition given for the word risk?
1.-it describes what would happen in case of the sudden operational failure of a vital piece of equipment on
board ship….n
2.-it is a combination of two factors- the likelihood of something happening and the consequences if it does….y
3.-an unitended event involving death or injury, and/ damage to the ship, other property, or the
environment….n
4.-the outcome of an accident….n
5.-PERMIT TO WORK
which of those listed is NOT one of the six principles of risk control?
1.-substitution….n
2.-safe working procedures….n
3.-training, instruction and supervision….n
4.-obtaining permission form nhead office….y
6.-PERMIT TO WORK
nitrogen is one the greatest hazards of enclosed spaces because:
1.-it has no smell….n
2.-it gives no warning symptoms to an affected person….n
3.-a person can lose consciousness very quickly, sometimes in less than 20 seconds….n
4.-of all of the above….y
7.-PERMIT TO WORK
why entering cargo tanks or other enclosed spaces, what is the required oxygen content for safe:
1.-21%....y
2.-19%....n
3.-24%....n
4.-18%....n
8.-PERMIT TO WORK
which of those listed is NOT one of the general safety management objectives of the ISM code?
1.-to provide for safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environments….n
2.-to specific who is competent to undertake hazardous procedures….y
3.-to stablish safeguards against all identified risks….n
4.-to continuosly improve the safety managements skills of personnel ashore and aboard….n
9.-PERMIT TO WORK
if you see or suspect and injury to someone in an enclosed space, what should you do first?
1.-enter the space to assess the situation more fully….n
2.-raise the alarm….y
3.-increase the ventilation….n
4.-check the instruction on the permit to work….n
10.-PERMIT TO WORK
which of these activities listeed would NOT require the issuing of a permit to work?
1.-hot work….n
2.-entering a cargo tank….n
3.-working aloft….n
4.-collecting food from the cold store….y
11.-PERMIT TO WORK
are the statements about implementing a permit to work true or false?
1.-only the work specified on the permit should be undertaken….t
2.-on some jobs it will be difficult to assess how long they need so the permit should not specify a time limit….f
3.-if someone else takes over the job specified in the permit, the permit should be reissued in their name….t
4.-if unforeseen extra work is required during the work covered by the permit, this work can be done as long as
an officer is informed afterwards….f
698.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
1.-Are the statements about ballast water exchange true or false?
1.-ballast water exchange at sea can have a serious effect on the ships structural integrity….t
2.-sequential exchange of ballast water at sea must be carried out by emptying pairs of tanks at a time to
maintain the ships trim and stability….t
3.-correctly carried out, ballast water exchange at sea is a complete solution to the problem….f
4.-the master decides precisely how exchange at sea should be carried out….f
2.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
the IMO guidelines state the every ship that carries ballast water must have a ballast water
1.-true….y
2.-false….n
3.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
which of the factors listed is NOT relevant for port state authorities when implementing their ballast water
management programmes and assessing risks?
1.-highly disparate conditions between uptake and discharge ports….n
2.-ballast water age….n
3.-the type of vessel concerned….y
4.-knowledge of the presence of target organisms….n
4.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
in the black sea, the comb jelly became a major contributor to the rapid decline in the catch of wich particular
fish?
1.-salmon….n
2.-anchovy….y
3.-sturgeon….n
4.-sardine….n
5.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
which of the items listed is NOT included in the section of the IMO guidelines dealing with ships operational
procedures?
1.-precautionary practices, such as timely removal sediment….n
2.-port state considerations….n
3.-training and education….y
4.-ballast water management options….n
6.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the possible consequences of failing to
comply with the regulations in force:
Failure to comply may lead to PENALTIES and loss of revenue for the shipping company. The vessel may be
required to retain her BALLAST and load less cargo. The ship may not be allowed to DOCK or may be forced
to go out to sea and exchange her ballast water. There could be the risk of a heavy fine or even
IMPRISONMENT.
7.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about ballast water exchange.
Exchanging ballast at sea can affect the trim and DRAFT. The engine intakes may come out of the water. It
can set up STRESSES in the hull leading to structural FAILURE and could cause a loss of stability. Even in
calm weather, you must carry out this procedure with exreme caution.
8.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
The IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting from. Which of the items of
information listed does this form contain?
1.-vessel information….n
2.-voyage information….n
3.-ballast water management information ( numbers of tanks discharged )....n
4.-all the above….y
9.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
the IMO adopted a set or guidelines for the management of ballast water. at present, there are:
1.-mandatory….n
2.-voluntary….y
10.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
in order to replace approximately 95% of ballast water in a tank using the flow-through method of exchange,
the amount of water pumped through the tank must be:
1.-1.5 x the thanks volume….n
2.-2 x the tanks volume….n
3.-3 x the tanks volume….y
4.-4 x the tanks volume….n
11.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
what minimum distances does fra from shore mean for ships entering North american great lakes ports or
visiting ports further up the Hudson River than the George Washington bridge?
1.-100 miles….n
2.-200 miles….y
3.-300 miles….n
4.-150 miles….n
12.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
which of the actions listed does NOT form part of the duties of the designated ballas water management
officer?
1.-ensuring the exchange conforms to the plan….n
2.-preparing the ballast water declaration form prior to entering port….n
3.-maintaining the ballast water log….n
4.-deciding wheter sea conditions allow exchange to be undertaken safely….y
13.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
true or false?
1.-the use of clean, treated fresh water for ballast solves the potential problems with ballast water….t
2.-the problems with mechanical tratment of ballast water are expense and maintenance of the filters….t
3.-heating the water of bombarding it with ultra-violet light or ultra-sound will kill everything in the ballast
water….f
14.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
true or false?
1.-marine organisms carried in ballast water can damage the ship….f
2.-many countries have already introduced quarantine requirements for ballast water management…. t
3.-ballast water can carry disease from one part of the world to another….t
4.-organisms carried in ballast water which survive on discharge can multiply and cause serious environmental
problems….t
15.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
the current recommended method of ballast water management is:
1.-isolation….n
2.-treatment….n
3.-exchange….y
16.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
part hour of the ballast water reporting form is a detailed history of the ballast water. which of the items of
information listed would NOT be required?
1.-the date….n
2.-the types of organism is the water….y
3.-the port….n
4.-the water temperature at the time of the uptake….n
792.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
1.-In the event of a spill, where would the master find the list of contacts who must be notified.
1.-in the P&A Manual….n
2.-in the SOPEP….y
3.-In the safety management system….n
2.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required when ballasting through the
cargo system.
Check that the COW SYSTEM has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the CARGO PUMPS have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been OPENED.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is STARTED.
3.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-In a real grounding, the master would instruct the engine room to stop the engine….t
2.-depending on the circumstances, in a genuine emergency, oil could get in through seawater intakes….t
3.-notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or probable discharge of
oil….t
4.-notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or probable discharge of
oil….f
4.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
who should be responsible for dealing with the press and media?
1.-the p&i club representative….n
2.-the ships master….n
3.-the first officer….n
4.-a responsible individual in the shore office….y
5.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
what do the initials SOPEP stand for?
1.-shipboard oil prevention emergency plan….n
2.-shipboard oil pollution emergency plan….y
3.-shipboard oil pollution energy plan….n
4.-shipboard oil prevention escape plan….n
6.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
the exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:
1.-having a collison….n
2.-running aground….y
3.-catching fire….n
7.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
true or false?
1.-most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties….f
2.-the majority of spills are less than seven tonnes….t
3.-the quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no special precautions need to be
taken before starting….f
8.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of preparing fo bunkering.
The hoses must BE CHECKED TO CONFIRM THEY ARE IN GOOD CONDITION.
All scuppers must BE PLUGGED.
The piping system must BE CORRECTLY LINED UP.
9.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
Above what size are ships, other than oil tankers, required to have a SOPEP?
1.-150 GT….N
2.-250 GT….N
3.-400 GT….Y
4.-500 GT….N
10.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.
The transfer must start at a LOW flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be CAREFULLY monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the MOORING ARRANGEMENTS.
Before disconnection all hoses must be DRAINED.
793-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
1.-OPA 90 applies to:
1.-all oil tankers over 150 GT entering US waters….n
2.-all ships flying the US flag….n
3.-all ships entering US waters whatever their flag….y
4.-all oil chemical tankers entering US waters whatever their flag….n
2.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
how far from the shoreline do US waters extend?
1.-50 nautical miles….n
2.-120 nautical miles….n
3.-150 nautical miles….n
4.-200 nautical miles….y
3.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
true or false?
1.-most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties….f
2.-the majority of spills are less than seven tonnes….t
3.-the quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no special precautions need to be
taken before starting….f
4.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of preparing for bunkering.
The hoses must BE CHECKED TO CONFIRM THEY ARE IN GOOD CONDITION.
All scuppers must BE PLUGGED.
Portable pumps must BE READLY AVAILABLE.
The piping system mus BE CORRECTLY LINE UP.
5.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.
The transfer must start at a LOW flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be CAREFULLY MONITORED.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the MOORING ARRANGEMENTS
Pipework and AIR EVENTS must be continually checked for oil details
Before disconnection all hoses must be DRAINED.
6.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required when ballasting through the
cargo system.
Check that the COW SYSTEM has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the CARGO PUMPS have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been OPENED.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is STARTED.
7.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
The exercise shown in the video s based on the ship.
1.-having a collision….y
2.-running aground….n
3.-catching fire….n
8.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
a full scale PREP to test both ship and shore based emergency response capabilities must be carried out:
1.-once a year….y
2.-three times a year….n
3.-once every two years….n
4.-twice a year….n
9.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
which of these statements about the qualified individual (QI) is NOT correct?
1.-the QI must speak fluent english….n
2.-the QI must be a member of the ships crew….y
3.-the QI has to be based in the USA….n
4.-The QI may authorise funds for the clean up….n
10.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
under OPA 90, who must be notified first in the event of an incident?
1.-the coast guard captain of the nearest port….n
2.-the shipping company headquarters….n
3.-the national response centre in washington D.C…..y
4.-the quaified individual….n
11.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
true or false?
1.-in a real emergency, it may be necessary to close ir vents to the engine room and to close seawater
intaks….t
2.-the OPA 90 vessel response plan must always be available in ENGLISH….t
3.-The crew would not normally be mustered until a detailed emergency response had been agreed with the
shore office….f
12.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
which of the actions listed are the responsibility of the command centre?
1.-the coordination and distribution of information concerning the actual and forecast condition of the spill….n
2.-the management of all tactical operations required to execute the companys general emergency response
plan….
3.-obtaining manpower, equipment, material, food, protective clothing and other facilities needed to support the
emergency response….n
4.-settling compensation claims….n
5.-all of the above….y
13.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
which of the items of information listed is NOT required by the standard from for reporting incidents to the
national response centre?
1.-the ships position….n
2.-the type of product….n
3.-the number of crew on board….y
4.-the quantity at risk….n
14.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
drag the corrects words
The unified command provides a top level forum for PRODUCING a cohesive plan of action.
All decisions, action and COMMUNICATIONSmust be logged on the ship.
Unless the master has serious concerns for safety on board, he will normally follow the ADVICE he recives
from the command centre.
The coast guard will take over operations only if they are asked of if they think things are getting OUT OF
CONTROL.
794-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
1.-Use your mouse to complete the following sentence correctly.
ABSORBENTS are substances which soak up oil loke a sponge.
ADSORBENTS are substances where oil sticks to the outside surface.
SYNTHETIC SORBENTS absorb a lot of oil and dont absorb water.
NATURAL PRODUCTS often soak up water as well as oil.
2.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
oil charges may pose health hazzards and these can be causedd through ingestion, skin contact of inhalation.
Which of these posess the greatest risk?
1.-inhalation….y
2.-skin contact….n
3.-ingestion….n
3.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
drag the correct words from the list
1.-The LOWER the viscosity of the oil, the faster it will spread.
Low temperatures will make oil MORE viscous, and spread more slowly.
The higher the ambient temperature and the greater the WINDS SPEED, the more oil will evaporate.
Over 36 to 48 hour, oil can mix with the sea to form a MOUSSE.
4.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Frequent or prolonged skin contact with benzene is not a cause of concern….f
2.-inhalation of hydrogen sulphide can be fatal….t
3.-your sense of smell can become rapidly de-sensitised, particulary to hydrogen sulphide….t
4.-most oil charges do not require the use of any special protective clothing or equipment….f
5.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
drag the corrects words from the list to complete the check procedures required when ballasting through the
cargo system.
check that the COW SYSTEM has been isolated
check that the risers above the CARGO PUMPS have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been OPENED.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is STARTED.
6.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
Match the opening words with the closing words to identify some of the key aspects of preparing for bunkering.
The hoses must BE CHECKED TO CONFIRM THEY ARE IN GOOD CONDITION.
All scuppers must BE PLUGGED.
Portable pumps must BE READILY AVAILABLE.
The piping system must BE CORRECTLY LINED UP.
7.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties….f
2.-the majority of spills are less than seven tonnes….t
3.-the quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small so no special precautions need to be
taken before starting….f
8.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
when a spill moves with a tide or current at what percentage of the tide or current speed does it:
1.-3%....n
2.-10%....n
3.-50%....n
4.-100%....y
9.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
drag the correct words
The transfer must start at a LOW flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be CAREFULLY MONITORED.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the MOORING ARRANGEMENTS.
Pipework and AIR VENTS must be continually checked for oil leaks.
Before disconnection all hoses must be DRAINED.
944-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
1.-Under the MARPOL regulations, what is the maximum aoil concentration permitted in oily water that is to be
discharged?
1.-5 ppm….n
2.-15 ppm….y
3.-50 ppm….n
4.-100 ppm….n
2.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
which of the shipboard records listed are the authorities NOT likely to inspect if they board a vessel suspected
of causing pollution?
1.-tank sounding log….n
2.-cargo manifest….y
3.-garbage record book….n
4.-oil record book….n
3.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
under european pollution laws, a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to a pollution
incident through complicy. what does complicy mena?
1.-encouraring someone to commit and offence….y
2.-working alongside someone committing an offence….n
3.-suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it….n
4.-failure to understand the proper procedures for operating an anti-pollution system….n
4.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
why have so many states tightened up their maritime pollution laws?
1.-ship owners, operators and crews were unaware of the previous, existing laws….n
2.-ship ownes, operators and crews felt the existing laws did not cover modern vessels….n
3.-too many ship owners, operators and crews were ignoring the previous, existing laws….y
4.-the EU felt that ship owners, operators and crews were confused by existing laws….n
5.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
what might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the oily water separator?
1.-the system being very clean shiny….n
2.-elbows in pipelines….y
3.-maintenance records which are very well kept and fully up to date….n
4.-crewmembers who are very knowledge about how the system operates….n
6.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
if you are detained by the authorities because your vessel is accused of having caused a pollution incident,
how should you respond to their questioning?
1.-refuse to tell the investigation anything. Remain completely silent…n
2.-refuse to answer any questions about the pollution incident until you have been adsived by either the
master, the shipowners representative or their lawyers….n
3.-cooperate fully and answer all question truthfully….y
4.-the them you know nothing whatsoever about the incident, even if you do….n
7.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
if there is an accidental discharge while on the high seas, does it need to be logged?
1.-only if its more than 100 litres….n
2.-only if it is more than three times the prescribed ppm….n
3.-only if it is within 200 miles of land….n
4.-yes, all discharges must be logged….y
8.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
engineers believe that an oily water separator will become much more liable to failure after:
1.-5 years….n
2.-7 years….y
3.-10 years….n
4.-12 years….n
9.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
if you see or know of and unauthorised and illegal pollution discharge occurring from your vessel at sea, what
should do?
1.-make sure the master is told about it….y
2.-pretend you didnt see it or know about it….n
3.-make a note of when, where and how it occurred, and keep it yourself….n
4.-tell the person responsible to be more careful in future….n
10.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
what is the penalty for a pollution offence in european waters caused by serious negligence?
1.-1-2 years in prison….n
2.-2-5 years in prison….y
3.-5-10 years in prison….n
4.-maximum 15 years in prison….n
11.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
if a vessel causes an illegal pollution discharge, who may now be held accountable for it?
1.-the master….n
2.-the crew member responsible for the action which caused the discharge….n
3.-the ship owner….n
4.-everyone involved in operating the vessel….y
12.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
what might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the oil record book?
1.-entries made in pencil….n
2.-irregular spaces between entries….n
3.-pages tom out….n
4.-all the above….y
13.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
under european pollution laws a seafer can be found guilty of contributing to a pollution incident through
inaction: What does inaction mean?
1.-forgetting to operate an anti-pollution system at the correct time….n
2.-operating an anti-pollution system incorrectly….n
3.-being aware of a polluting discharge but not knowing it was illegal….n
4.-suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it….y
14.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
whath does canada legals principle of reverse onus mean in pollution cases?
1.-an accused seafer is innocent until convicted unanimously by a jury….n
2.-an accused seafer is guilty until proven innoccent….y
3.-an accused seafer is held liable for the costs of cleaning up the pollution….n
4.-an accused seafer is not responsible for pollution if he proves the owners knew the crew were acting
illegaly….n
15.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-satellite surveillance is increasingly being used to sport pollution and identify the vessels causing it….t
2.-chemical fingerprinting techniques can identify the source of pollutants and link them to specific vessels….t
3.-accidental pollution caused by damage to the ship or its equipment does not exempt the master from
liability….f
4.-port state control authorities often carry out concentrated inspection campaigns targeting compliance with
anti-pollution regulations….t
16.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
what is the minimum period for which the details in a vessels oil record book should be kept?
1.-six months….n
2.-one year….n
3.-two years….n
4.-three years….y
17.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
which of the measures listed are being used in the fight against marine pollution?
1.-surprise inspections….n
2.-monitoring and tracking of suspect vessels….n
3.-extending investigations to an entire fleet….n
4.-encouraging whistleblowers to inform on illegal acts….n
5.-all of the above….y
1103-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
1.-For which vessels greater than 79 feet is submission of a notice of intent (NOI) required in order to obtain
coverage under the VGP?
1.-Large fishing vessels….n
2.-merchant ships under 300 GT, with ballast water capacity of less than 8 cubic metres….n
3.-merchant ships of 300 GT or above, or whose ballast water capacity is 8 cubic metres or more….y
4.-all vessels, regardless of weight or ballast water capacity….n
2.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
true or false?
1.-the purpose of the VGP is to enable better control of pollution in US waters….t
3.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
true or false.
1.-annual inspections should be carried out in dry dock….f
4.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
VGP applies in water.
1.-up to 1 nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
2.-up to 3 nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….y
3.-up to 12 nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
4.-up to 20 nm from the us coast and US inland waterways….n
5.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
inspections for effluent discharges should be:
1.-every watch, weekly, quarterly and annually….y
2.-only weekly and annually….n
3.-only every watch and annually….n
4.-it is up to the EPA to carry out inspections, not the ship….n
6.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
if a discharge is made that could endanger health or the environment, what should you do?
1.-report is to the US coast guard within 7 days….n
2.-report it to the EPA within 24 hours….y
3.-report it to the EPA within 7 days….n
4.-report it to the company within 24 hours, and they will contact the US coast guard or EPA on the vessels
behalf….n
7.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
when should simple corrective actions such as housekeeping be carried out?
1.-immediately….y
2.-no longer than 2 weeks….n
3.-no longer than 3 months…n
4.-before the vessel is re-launched from dry dock….n
8.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
we should changes requiring new parts or equipment to be installed without dry docking be carried out?
1.-immediately….n
2.-within 2 weeks….n
3.-within 3 months….y
4.-within 6 months….n
9.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
all records must be kept on board for:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y
10.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
the penalty for knowingly making a false statement is:
1.-a fine of $5,000…n
2.-a fine of $10,000 and up to 2 years in prison….n
3.-a fine of $50,000 per day of violation and up to 3 years in prison….y
4.-a fine of $100,000 per day violation and up to 5 years in prison….n
11.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
under MARPOL annex I, the maximum permitted concentration of oil in any oily discharges is:
1.-<1 ppm….n
2.-<5 ppm….n
3.-<50 ppm….n
4.-<15 ppm….y
12.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
which vessels may discharge untreated oily bilge water?
1.-any vessel….N
2.-no vessel….N
3.-vessels under 400 GT….Y
4.-Vessels under 400 GT….N
13.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
If the vessel is on an ocean going voyage, it can only discharge ballast water in VGP, controlled waters if the
ballast waters has been exchanged in waters more than.
1.-3 nm from shore….n
2.-12 nm from shore….n
3.-100 nm from shore….n
4.-200 nm from shore….y
14.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
true or false?
1.-no vessel may discharge boiler blowdown within 1nm of federally protected waters under any
circumstances….f
15.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
true or false?
1.-vessels over 400 GT with graywater storage capacity should discharge when more than 1nm from shore
and while underway….t
16.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
true or false?
1.-if major hull cleaning is required in port, it should take place in dry dock….t
17.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
to minimise chain locker effluent, the anchor chain should be thoroughly washed down:
1.-after every hauling up….y
2.-once a week….n
3.-once a month….n
4.-before a entering port….n
18.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
firemain system are included in the VGP because their water may contain.
1.-metal and chemicals….y
2.-bacteria and nutrients….n
3.-oil and grease….n
4.-solvents….n
19.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
in seawater cooling systems, the filters should be:
1.-cleaned regularly while in port….N
2.-cleaned regularly when more than 50nm from shore….Y
3.-replaced once a month….N
4.-maintained as usual. seawater cooling systems are not regulated by the VGP….N
20.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
Fouling organisms removed from the seawater piping system should ideally be discharged when the vessel is:
1.-more than 1nm from shore….n
2.-more than 3nm from shore….n
3.-more than 12nm from shore….n
4.-more than 50nm from shore….y
1118-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
1.-IN what way are VOCs bad for the environment?
1.-they cause acid rain….n
2.-they pollute seawater….n
3.-they create ground level smog….y
4.-they are corrosive and flammable when they react with oxygen….n
2.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
who is responsible for ensuring that a ship is equipped with a means of collecting VOCs before it enters a port
or terminal where VOC controls are implemented?
1.-the designated person ashore….n
2.-the chief officer….n
3.-the master….n
4.-the owner….y
3.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
the entire pipeline network in the vapour collection system must:
1.-be marked with the word VAPOUR….n
2.-Be electrically bonded to the hull and electrically continuous….y
3.-consist of flexible hosing….n
4.-have a drain off at its highest point….n
4.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
what is the colour scheme for marking the vapour control manifold?
1.-yellow with red bands….y
2.-black with red bands….n
3.-yellow with black bands…n.
4.-red with black bands….n
5.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
the cylindrical safety stud on the manifold flange must be set:
1.-at the 6 o clock position….n
2.-at the 12 o clock position…y
3.-so that it is not contact with flange face….n
4.-paralle to the flange face...n
6.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
under MARPOL annex VI the vapour flow capacity of each PV valve must be at leass:
1.-25% of the maximum loading rate of each tank….n
2.-75% of the maximum loading rate of each tank….n
3.-125% of the maximum loading rate of each tank….y
4.-175% of the maximum loading rate of each tank…..n
7.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
how many venting systems should there be?
1.-1….n
2.-2….y
3.-3….n
4.-4….n
8.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
in the cargo tank pressure release system, over pressure alarms should be set at:
1.-a minimum of 68% of the lowest pressure rellef valve setting….n
2.-a minimum of 75% of the lowest pressure rellef valve setting….n
3.-a minimum of 90% of the lowest pressure relief valve setting….y
4.-a minimum of 125% of the lowest pressure felief valve setting….n
9.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
the lower low pressure alarms in inerted vessels should be set at not less than:
1.-100 mm WG….Y
2.-150 MM WG…N
3.-200 MM WG….N
4.-250 MM WG….N
10.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Countries and terminals can demand that only tankers fitted with vapour collection systems may operate in
VOC control areas….t
11.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
true or false
1.-the overfill control system must be connected to the cargo gauging system….f
12.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
true or false?
1.-tanks should always be opened for sampling when loading is 90% complete….f
13.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
what could happen if vapour passes over condensate?
1.-it could cause under-pressurisation….n
2.-it could cause over-pressurisation….n
3.-it could create a toxic cloud….n
4.-it could generate static electricity and increase the risk of explosion….y
14.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
before arrival, you should check that f tank atmospheres are interte, they contain:
1.-at least 8% oxygen….n
2.-less than 8% nitrogen….y
3.-at least 8% nitrogen….n
4.-less than 8% nitrogen….n
15.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
where should the detonation arrestor be positioned before loading starts?
1.-close to the terminal vapour connection….y
2.-close to the vessel vapour connection….n
3.-in the cargo manifold…n
4.-on the tank acces vent….n
16.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
within what timescale should the US expanded declaration of inspection confirm that alarms have been tested?
1.-the last month….n
2.-the last week….n
3.-the last 24 hours….y
4.-alarms do not form part of the expanded declaration of inspection….n
17.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
loading should take place:
1.-as quickly as possible….n
2.-extremely slowly throughout….n
3.-starting rapidly and slowing down….n
4.-starting slowly and increasing in stages….y
18.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
at what point during loading should you take a break to check cargo, monitoring and alarm systems?
1.-when the tank is around 20cm full….y
2.-when the tank is around 2 m full….n
3.-when the ullage space in the tank is 20 cm….n
4.-when the ullage space in the tank is 2 m….n
19.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
after loading non interned cargoes must be allowed to settle for how long before they are opened for sampling?
1.-5 minutes….n
2.-15 minutes….n
3.-30 minutes….y
4.-it is not necessary to wait….n
20.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
when lightering, what should there be on the vapour line of the discharging vessel?
1.-a low pressure alarm….n
2.-a high pressure alarm….n
3.-a PV valve….n
4.-an oxygen content analyser….y
1119-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
1.-What is the tier II NOx limit where the engine speed is less than 130 rpm?
1.-17.0….n
2.-9.8….n
3.-14.4….y
4.-3.4….n
2.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
what is the minimum allowed combustion chamber gas outlet temperature for the incinerator?
1.-550°c….n
2.-850°c….y
3.-750°c….n
4.-650°c….n
3.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
true or false?
1.-vapour emission recovery regulations apply to tankers trading in all ports and terminals….f
4.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
true or false?
1.-the incineration of PCBS is never allowed under annex VI….T
5.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
TRUE OR FALSE.
1.-When taking the fuel oil sample for MARPOL, care should be taken not to shake the primary sample
quantity before filling the retained sample container….f
6.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
on or after 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….y
4.-4.5% m/m….n
7.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
on or after 1/7/2010, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used inside an ECA is:
1.-1.00% m/m….y
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-2.0% m/m….n
4.-2.5% m/m….n
8.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
the sample of fuel oil required by annex VI should be not less than.
1.-400 ml….y
2.-300 ml….n
3.-200 ml….n
4.-100 ml….n
9.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
from the time the fuel oil is delivered, the fuel oil sample should be retained under the ships control for:
1.-at least 6 months….n
2.-at least 12 months….y
3.-at least 18 months….n
4.-at least 24 months….n
10.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
which atmospheric pollutant is released when crude oils or petroleum products are
transported, loaded and unloaded on ships?
1.-halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs…y.
4.-NOx….n
5.-H25….n
6.-SOx….n
11.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
which of the substances listed may be incinerated on board, as long as the ship is not in a port, harbour or
estuary?
1.-sewage sludge and sludge oil generated during normal shipboard operation….y
2.-waste, containing traces of heavy metas such as mercury and cadmium….n
3.-refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds….n
4.-MARPOL annex I,II or III residues and any associated contaminated packaging….n
5.-exhaust gas cleaning system residues….n
12.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
whose responsibility is it to ensure that before a ship enters a port or terminal where VOC controls are being
implemented, it is equipped with a means of collecting VOCs so that they can be returned to shoreside
facilities.?
1.-the owners….y
2.-the masters….n
3.-the administrations….n
4.-nobodys. the ship is not required to be equipped with a means of collecting VOCs….n
13.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
true or false?
1.-annex VI applies to all merchant ship types, however large or small, except where specifically exempted….t
14.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
true or false
1.- in order to obtain an EIAPPC, a re-survey is not needed for engines wuhic have already been issued with
statements of compliance with the NOx technical code….t
15.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
for ships of 400 GT and above, the bunker delivery note must be kept on board for at least:
1.-1 year….n
2.-3 years….y
3.-5 years….n
4.-7 years….n
16.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
tier III NOx limits apply to engines installed on ships on or after.
1.-1 january 2000….n
2.-1 january 2005….n
3.-1 january 2011….n
4.-1 january 2016….y
17.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
until 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….n
4.-4.5% m/m….y
18.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
under MARPOL annex VI, there must be valid certification for ships built on or after which date?
1.-19 may 2000….n
2.-19 may 2002….n
3.-19 may 2003….n
4.-19 may 2005….y
19.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
refrigerant and fire-fighting systems using hydro-chlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) may be installed untill:
1.-19 may 2010….n
2.-19 may 2012….n
3.-1 january 2016….n
4.-1 january 2020….y
20.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
which of the substances listed is not controlled by MARPOL annex VI?
1.-Halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs….n
4.-NOx….n
5.-H25….y
6.-SOx….n
1122.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
1.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
is the following statement about bunkering true or false?
1.-cleaning materials should be ready to deal with any accidental spills….t
2.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
Since 1 july 2010, what has been the maximum permitted sulphur content of fuel oils in an emission control
AREA (ECA) according to MARPOL annex VI?
1.-0.5%....N
2.-1.0%...Y
3.-1.5%....N
4.-4.5%....N
3.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
improving the fuel efficiency of the vessels may require:
1.-use of weather routing….n
2.-just in time arrival….n
3.-improved hull maintenance….n
4.-optimum trim….n
5.-all of the above….y
4.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
the term segregated ballast menas:
1.-a ballast system completely separated form the fuel oil system….n
2.-a ballast system completely separeted from the cargo oil system….n
3.-a ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil system….y
4.-none of the above….n
5.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
sewage which has not been comminuted or disinfected can only be discharged when the ship is more than:
1.-3 nautical miles from shore….n
2.-12 nautical miles from shore….y
3.-4 nautical miles from shore….n
4.50 nautical miles from shore….n
6.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
which of those listed is not A SPECIAL AREA designated under the MARPOL 73/78 ANNEX 1?
1.-the mediterranean sea are….n
2.-the baltic sea….n
3.-the red sea area….n
4.-the caribbean sea area….y
5.-the black sea area….n
7.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
true or false?
1.-the ulllage should be checked once the transfer has been completed….f
8.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
the disposal of plastics at sea is:
1.-allowed anywhere outside the designated special area….n
2.-allowed as long as they have passed through a comminutor….n
3.-allowed as long as the ship is no less than 12 nautical miles from the coas….n
4.-strickly prohibited everywhere….y
9.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
all oily water discharge must be monitored to ensure that the oil content is not greater than the permitted limit.
this is:
1.-10 parts per million….n
2.-15 parts per million….y
3.-25 parts per million….n
4.-50 parts per million….n
10.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
true or false?
1.-once transfer begins all the hoses and connections should be checked to ensure they are tight under
pressure….t
11.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
MARPOL annex VI specific that the Bunker delivery note ( BDN ) should be kept avilable for inspection for:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y
12.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
true or false?
1.-during fuel transfer the deck scuppers should be plugged….t
13.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
MARPOL ANNEX VI limits the emissions into the atmosphere from ships of:
1.-nitrogen oxides….y
2.-methyl bromide….n
3.-carbon dioxide….n
4.-ozone….n
14.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
which MARPOL annex deals with the regulations for the prevention of pollution of oil?
1.-annex I….Y
2.-annex II….N
3.-annex IV….N
4.-annex V….N
15.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
SHIPS may only discharge processed blige water from machinery spaces into the sea if certain very specific
criteria area met. Which of those listed is correct?
1.-the ship is sailing within a special area….N
2.-the ship iss proceeding en route….Y
3.-the oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 100 ppm….N
4.-the ship has in operation equipment as required by regulation 16(5) of annex 1 to MARPOL….N
16.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
THE garbage record book must be open for inspection at all times and kept, after entry of the last record, for a
minimum of:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….y
4.-5 years….n
17.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
MARPOL annex V affects:
1.-all ships (unless expressly provided otherwise)....y
2.-ships of 150 GT and above….n
3.-ships of 500 GT and above….n
4.-ships carrying 12 or more passengers….n
18.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
outside special areas, how many nautical miles from the nearest land can oil or oily mixtures be discharged
from an oil tanker?
1.-15….n
2.-35….n
3.-50….y
4.-75….n
19.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
the SEEMP is:
1.- a plan for monitoring environmental effectiveness on board….n
2.-a system for monitorin improvements in energy consumption….n
3.-a ship specific plan for mnaging the ships energy efficiency….y
20.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
true or false?
1.-vessels smaller than 400 GT can discharge oil or oily mixture into the sea in the antartic area….f
21.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
which marpol annex deals with garbage and waste disposal from ships?
1.-I….N
2.-IV….N
3.-V….Y
4.-VI….N
22.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
According to HELMEPA, how many years does it take for a tin can to disintegrate in the sea?
1.-1 month….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-10 years….n
4.-100 years….y
600-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
1.-The importance of risk assessment need to be made clear by:
1.-the ships safety officer….n
2.-the company safety officer….n
3.-the senior managements….y
2.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
in most cases implementing the options for managing risk will:
1.-cost little or nothing….y
2.-require considerable investment….n
3.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
which of these bellefs about a no-blame reporting system are justified?
1.-a no blame system that workers tend to get careless….n
2.-a no-blame system encourage the reporting of all incidents and nears misses without fear of
recrimination….y
3.-a blame culture is better as it forces everyone to take responsibility and obtain better risk managements….n
4.-the no-blame system helps to ensure safe running of equipments….n
4.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
what is the definition given for the word RISK?
1.-IT describes what would happen in case of the sudden operational failure of a vital piece of equipment on
board ship….n
2.-it is a combination of two factors-the probability of something happening and the
consequence if it does….y
3.-an unintended event involving death or injury, and/or damage to the ship, other property, or the
environment….n
4.-the outcome of an accident….n
5.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
Drag the correct words
Look for...PROBLEMS. what seemed like a good idea may not work out well in practice.
Avoid….BLAMING people if they are not implementing your solutions properly. Instead fin out why.
Check that the….SOLUTIONS still works.
6.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
which of the questions below would not be appropiate?
1.-what do i particulary worry about as a manager or director?
2.-are there situations which i feel the need to manage myself because of fears that something migh go
wrong?
3.-are there activities which seem to create an above average number of problems, accidents, incidetns and so
on?
4.-how should i distribute the class survey schedule to the fleet?......y
7.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
which answer is the best
1.-to identify, assess and manage risks so as to reduce the chances of an incident….y
2.-to provide crucial feedback as to equipment reliability….n
3.-to identify errors managements….n
4.-to identify sub standard components of deck and engine machinery….n
8.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
what is the meaning of hazard
1.-the sequence of events leading to a hazardous situation or accident….n
2.-the consequence of an accident….n
3.-the means of controlling risk….n
4.-a potential to threaten human life, health, property or the environment….y
9.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
drag the correct words
Is is SYSTEMATIC. there is a step by step technique.
It is about...PREVENTION rather than cure.
It encourages….AWARENESS of hazards and the risks they pose.
We cant predict and manage every risk we face...SELECTION of the appropiate ones is the trick.
10-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT
implementing risk control options requires you to persuade other people to accept them. place the five actions
needed in the correct order
EXPLAIN WHAT YOU WANT TO HAPPEN
EXPLAIN WHY
ASK FOR REACTIONS
CHECK UNDERSTANDING
PROVIDE AN INCENTIVE
11.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
Detailed oil discharge procedures in the ships manual are a good example of
1.-engineered safety….n
2.-procedural safety….y
3.-human factor safety….n
4.-inherent safety….n
12.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the RISK MATRIX
1.-HIGH RISK, 2.-LOW RISK. 3.-SMALL 4.-CONSEQUENCES.
13.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
Systematic risk assessment involves sixs steps,
IDENTIFY ALL HAZARDS
ASSESS RISKS
EXPLORE CONTROL OPTIONS
WEIGH UP COSTS AND BENEFITS
SELECT AND IMPLEMENT
MONITOR AND RE-ASSES
14.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
Which of those listed is NOT one of the four different types of safety to be remembered when considering how
to manage risk?
1.-inherent….n
2.-engineered…n.
3.-enhanced….y
4.-procedural….n
15.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
true or false?
1.-a collision involving a high speed ferry could have very serious consequences….t
2.-the fact that it may become more difficult to find well qualified officers in the future should not really affects
our business….f
3.-risks depend on circumstances so risk assessment must always be a dynamic process….t
4.-effective risk assessment can improve financial performance….t
One of the functional requirements of Safety Management System (SMS) of company consists of_____.




Compliance with port state control requirements
Procedure to prepare for and respond to emergency situations
Compliance with the U.S. cost Guard and European Union requirements
Compliance with ISO 9000 and 14000 requirements
The atmospheric Boiling Point of Methane (CH4) is _____.




-181.5°C
-171.5°C
-161.5°C
-151.5°C
Absolute zero is the temperature at which the volume of a gas theorically becomes zero. It has been
accepted as being____.




-273 0C
-273.160 C
-273.530 C
-273.130C
Annual verification of the Document of Compliance should be_____.




Within one month before or after the anniversary date
Within two months before or after the anniversary date
Within three months before or after the anniversary date
Within four months before or after anniversary date
A chemical tanker carrying Noxious Liquid Substance (NLS) is required to have____.


An international Pollution Prevention Certificate (IPPC) for NLS Certificate
A certificate of fitness


Both
None of them
A two-stage Direct Refrigeration cycle is a process____.




Where an external refrigeration plant is employed to condense the cargo vapour without it being
compressed
Where boil off is compressed, condensed and returned to the tank in a single compressor
In which vapour boil off from cargo tank is condensed in a cargo condenser in which the coolant is
refrigerant gas such as R22
Where boil off is compressed condensed and returned to the tank in two compressors
Marine pollutions from exhaust generated on board are mainly from the____.




Lifeboat engines
Emergency fire pump engines
Incinerator
None of them
A pillar transfers the load on___________.




A deck to a lower deck or the double bottom
The side shell to the bottom shell
The inner bottom to the outer bottom
The bottom to the deck
Side girders in the double bottom are__________.




Intercostal between floors
Continuous throughout their length
Continuous between solid floors
Continuous between watertight floors
The distance between the under side of the keel and the waterline is the______.




Moulded draught
Extreme draught
Freeboard
Moulded depth
The ratio of the delivered power to the brake power is the____




Engine efficiency
Overall efficiency
Shafting efficiency
Propeller efficiency
Large modern oil tankers have______.



Single hulls
Single sides and double bottoms
Double sides and single bottoms

Double sides and double bottoms
The gunwale is the junction of _______.




The bottom shell and the side shell
The deck and a bulkhead
A bulkhead and the bottom plating
The upper deck and the side shell
How does port state control target a vessel?




By the past record of the flag
By the past record of the vessel
At random
All of them
The equation for an isothermal compression is




V/T=C
PV n=C
PV r=C
PV =C
A document of compliance is a document issued




to a ship complies which the requirements of international safety management (ISM) code
to an owner which the requirements of international safety management (ISM) code
to an company which the requirements of international safety management (ISM) code
to a bare-bote charterer´s which complies with the requirements of international Safety Management
(ISM) Code
On a tanker, how many venting systems should there be?




1
2
3
4
All unsaturated hydrocarbons react with air to form unstable peroxides which tend to induce
polymerusation

TRUE
FALSE
The document of compliance should be withdrawn by the administration or at its request by the
contracting government which issued the document




if annual verification is not requested and not carried out in time
when there is evidence of major non conformities with this code
when deficiences both of A and B exist
Either A or B
The pressure law for gas can be expressed as




P1V1/T1=P2V2/T2
P1/T1=P2/T2
P1V1=P2V2
V1/T1=V2/T2
Cryogenics is the study of the behaviour of matter of very_______ temperature




High
normal
low
neither A, b or c
TLV is the abbreviation for threshold limit value. it is the concentration of gasses in the air to which
personnel may be exposed____ per day or____ per week




6 hours, 30 hours
10 hours, 50 hours
8 hours, 40 hours
7 hours, 35 hours
the International Convention for the prevention of pollution from ships (MARPOL) 73/78 entered into
force in




1973
1978
1983
1987
the chain locker is a compartment




for keeping the various chains, ropes and wires used in the ship
for accommodating prisoners
for storing the anchor chain
for storing lockers
one of the components of the safety and environment protection policy of the company under the ism
code should be to




ensure compliance with international maritime organisation (imo) resolutions a 787(19) on port state
control
ensure that the policy is mantained and implemented at all levels of the organisation both ship based
and shore based
ensure compliance with regulations of chapter ix of safety of life at sea (solas) 74
ensure to mantain quality system as per policy of iso 9000 and 14000
annex III i.e. regulations for the prevention of pollution on harmful substances carried by sea in
packaged form entered into force on _________.



1 sty july, 1987
1 sty july, 1989
1 sty july, 1992

1 st july, 1994
objective evidence means quantitative or qualitative ___ pertaining to safety or to the existence and
implementation of a safety management system element which is based on ___ and wich can be
verified




information/observation
records/measurement
statements of facts/test
information, records or statements of fact/observation, easurement or testing
A chemical tanker has to comply with ________




the international code for the construction and equipment of ships carrying dangerous chemicals in
bulk (ibc)
the international code for the construction and equipment of ships carrying liquified gases in bulk
(igc) code
the safe loading and unloading of bulk carriers (blu) code
none of them
Cavitation describes______




the formation of cavities in the propeller blades due to corrosion
cavities in the shell plating caused by fouling
small pockets in the hull structure in which water may collect
the formation of cavities filed with vapour in a liquid due to the pressure falling close to the vapour
pressure
to reduce the scantlings of the side frames and bulkhead stiffeners in a deep tank, it is necessary to fit
_____________




deck girders
horizontal girders
web frames
hatch coamings
As per section 6 of the international safety management (ISM) code i.e where the company is to
provide adequate Resources and personnel, one of the components for section 6 is____




To ensure for providing familiarization training prior to sailing
To ensure familiarization training by a shore based institute
To establish procedures to ensure that new personnel are given proper familiarization training related to
safety and pollution prevention
To ensure the master gives adequate familiarization training to new personnel on safety prevention
Propeller cavitation may result in




Damage to the propeller blades
Cavitation erosion of the rudder
Noise and vibration
All of them
The chain locker is usually fitted




Just aft of the stern
Aft of the collision bulkhead
Just forward of the collision bulkhead
Forward of the anchor windlass
A panting stringer is a _______




Transverse structure supporting the forecastle deck
Girder supporting the deck plating
Deep longitudinal structure supporting the side shell in the forward part of the ship
Structure to withstand compressive stresses
The charpy V notch test is used for determining




Impact strength
yield strength
ultimate tensile strength
hardness
Transverse watertight bulkhead




increase longitudinal strength
reduce rolling
restrict flooding following damage
reduce free surface effects
Killed steels




are steels that are defective
are low quality steels that should not be used for ship construction
are preferred for ship construction, specially for the thick plates
are special steels not meant for ship construction
The alphabets on both sides of the line passing througthth circle in the freebord marking indicates the initials of
the_____.

Name on the owner of the ship

Name of the Company of the ship

Name of the master of the ship

Classification society
What is the time required in minutes for the compressor to charge the air receiver from zero to full in a
motor ship?

15

20

25

30
Observation means a statement of________ made during a safty management_____ and substantiated
by objective evidence.

Fact/ audit

Information/survey

Records/inspection

Information and records / and inspection
For a fully refrigerated liquefied petroleum gas (LNG) carrier which will not carry cargoes
below_____________, the seconday barrier must be a complete barrier capable of containing the whole
tank volumen at a defined Angie of heel.

-65 C

-60 C

-55 C

-50 C
Fusible plugs operate at a temperature of around___________.

60 Deg C

98 Deg C

606 Deg C

1013 Deg C
The type C independent tank of a gas carrier

Does not require a secondary barrier

Requires a secondary barrier

Requires a partial secondary barrier

Neither A, B or C
The bottom forward is strengthened to resist the efects of pounding by__________.

Reducing the frame spacing

Increasing the thickness of the Shell plating

Fitting solid floors at very frame

All of them
Compared to a bulkhead with stiffeners, a corrugated bulkhead____________.

Has a lower weigth

Is much heavier

Has the same weigth

Requires more welding
For a butt joint between plates between 10 and 20 mm thick the plate edges must have___________.

A single vee

Square edges

A doublé vee

Sharp edges
A shaft tunnel is required in a ship when__________.

The ship is propelled by steam turbines

The main engine is forward

The main engine is amidship

When the main engine is located aft
The aftermost plate of the keel plating that is shaped to be wrapped around the forward part of the sternframe
is known as the______________.

Cattin plate

At keel plate

Bas plate

Stam plate
If for any reason a crank case inspection is necessary at sea___________.

Then the turning gear should be engaged

Then the indicator cocks should be shut

The safety shoes and a helmet should be own

All of them
You find that your cadet / trainee is trying to punch holes in gascket whils keeping it on the workshop floor. You
should.

Shout at him

Explain to him the correct procedure

Tell him to hand over the job to someone else

Let him continue
An average adjustor is____________.

A surevoy

A salver

An insurer

An independent person of integrity
Ordinary strength steels used in ship construction are required to have an ultimate tensile strength
of__________.

210-350 N per sq mm

550-700 N per sq mm

400-520 N per sq mm

820-1030 N per sq mm
All oily water discharge must be monitored to ensure that the oil content is not greater than the permitted limit.
This is:

10 parts per million

15 parts per million

25 parts per million

50 parts per million
For cutting a stainless steel plate using a gas cutting process, it is necessary to_______________.

Uses a cooling arrangement for the plate

Provide additional heating arrangements

Introduce an iron powder in the gas jet. i. e. Powder cutting

Pre- heat the plate
What is the full form of gesamp?

The the joint group of experts on the scientific aspects of marine environment protection

The joint group of experts on the scientific aspects of marine pollution

The group of environment on the scientific aspects of marine environmental protection

Group experts on the scientific aspects of marine protection
The Protocol of 1988 on Harmonized System of Survey and Certification (HSSC) for Annex II of International
Convention for the Prevention of Pollution From Ships (MARPOL) 73/78 entered into force on______________

3rd Feb, 2002

3rd Feb, 2001

3rd Feb, 2000

3rd Feb, 1999
The forward perpendicular is a vertical line drawn at _______________

The forward extremity of the ship

The intersection of the load water line and the stem bar

The end of the bulbous bow

At the forward draught marks
The Gross Registered Ton of a ship is expressed in terms of ________________

Weight

Number

Volume

None of them
The alphabets WNA in the illustration are the abbreviations for ______________.

Within North Arctic

Winter North Atlantic

Winter North Arctic

Within North Atlantic
Entropy is a thermodynamic property that can be used to determine the __________ not available for work in a
thermodynamic process

Heat

Work

Energy

Power
A ship carrying Noxious Liquid Substance (NLS) is required to have

An International Pollution Prevention Certificate (IPPC) for NLS Certificate

A Certificate of Fitness

Both

None of them
To get absolute temperature from Celsius to Kelvin add ______

173

290

278

273
The maximum allowable tank design pressure in the vapor space of a Type A Independent tank on a Gas
Carrier is _____________

0.9 bar

0.8 bar

0.7 bar

0.6 bar
In a welded lap joint of two plates ______________

The plates are in one line edge to edge

One plate is perpendicular to the surface of the other

The two plates are placed one on top of the other

One plate is inclined to the surface of the other
The forward perpendicular is a vertical line drawn at ____________

The forward extremely of the ship

The intersection of the load water line and the stem bar

The end of bulbous bow

At the forward draught marks
Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanisms. Which of the actions listed
to avoid this happening does NOT belong on the list?





Make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease all moving parts.
Check the manufacturers handbook on proper use of the mechanism.
Make yourself fully aware of the correct procedures.
Make yourself fully aware of the safety checks.
Make yourself fully aware of all other launching equipment.
At what point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a fully enclosed life
boat?




Once the bottom plugs have been set.
Once the painter has been passed out of the forward hatch and secured.
Once everyone is inside.
Once the engine has been started.
Are the statements about lifeboat operations True or False?
All on-load release systems must have built in safeguards against early release.

True.
When the boat is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released.

True
A freefall lifeboat should be abandoned if the engine does not start.

False.
What is a SART?




A survival craft radar transponder.
A survival craft radio transmitter.
A Search and Rescue Team on standby for maritime emergencies.
A Search and Rescue Training exercise.
When getting clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended procedure?




Make sure the lifeboat is halfa mile upwind from the ship.
Head down wind of the ship and clear of its bow and stern.
Stay within 1 00 metres of the ship, on the bow side.
Stay within 1 00 metres of the ship, on the stern side.
What is the purpose of the hydrostatic interlock in the keel?




It prevents seawater entering the boat.
It indicates the loaded of the boat and prevents overloading.
It prevents release of the hooks until such time that the keel of the boat is under water.
It supplies cooling water to the lifeboat engine.
Why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboat extremely carefully?




Because the boat is in the water and they could get wet.
Because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle.
Because it is extremely væig ht-sensitive.
Because sudden movements could dislodge it.
Once the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation deck and securely bowsed,
what is the next step in the launching procedure?



The slip hook of the gripes is connected
The sliding beam davits are removed
The boat is lowered to the waterline.

The person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare to board the evacuees.
The shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by.




rigid covers.
folding canopies.
a combination of rigid covers and folding canopies.
a fibreglassshell that is operated electronically and can cover up to of the boat.
What are the gripes?




They are special storage spaces onboard the lifeboat to hold food supplies.
They secure the lifeboat to the bollards on the main deck
They aid in I owering the boat by using the winch mechanism.
They secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed.
When launching a fully enclosed lifeboat, the FPDs should be removed:




before the boat starts to descend.
just before the boat reaches the water.
once the boat is in the water.
FPDs shouId never be removed.
A fully enclosed lifeboat's descent can be stopped at any time by.




pulling on the painter.
signalling to the winch o*rator.
increasing the tension on the brake control cable.
releasing the tension on the brake control cable.
If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long will the constant flow of air last?




A minimum of 2 minutes.
A minimum of 5 minutes.
A minimum of 10 minutes.
A minimum of 20 minutes.
In what way are VOCs bad for the environment?




They cause acid rain.
They pollute seawater.
They create ground level smog.
They are corrosive and flammable when they react with oxygen.
Who is responsible for ensuring that a ship is equipped with a means of collecting VOCs before it
enters a port or terminal where VOC controls are implemented?




The Designated Person Ashore
The Chief Officer
The Elaster
The owner
The entire pipeline network in the vapour collection system must:




be marked with the word 'VAPOUR'.
be electrically bonded to the hull and electrically continuous.
consist of flexible hosing.
have a drain off at its highest point.
What is the colour scheme for marking the vapour control manifold?




Yellow with red bands
Black with red bands
Yellow with black bands
Red with black bands
The cylindrical safety stud on the manifold flange must be set:




at the 6 0'clock position.
at the 12 0'clock position.
so that it is not in contact with flange face.
parallel to the flange face.
On a tanker, under the international Convention For the Prevention of Pollution (MARPOL) Annex VI,
the vapour flow capacity of each Pressure Vacuum valve must be at least:




25% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
75% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
125% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
175% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
In the cargo tank pressure release system, over pressure alarms should be set at:




a minimum of 68% of the lowest pressure relief valve setting.
a minimum of 75% of the I owest pressure relief valve setting.
a minimum of 90% of the lowest pressure relief valve setting.
a minimum of 125% of the I owest pressure relief valve setting.
On a tanker, The lower low pressure alarms in inerted vessels should be set at not less than:




100 mm water gauge (WG)
150 mm water gauge (WG)
200 mm water gauge (WG)
250 mm water gauge (WG)
Countries and terminals can demand that only tankers fitted with vapour collection systems may rate
in VOC control areas.

True
The overfill control system must be connected to the cargo gauging system.

False.
Tanks should always be opened for sampling when loading is 90% complete.

False.
What could happen if vapour passes over condensate?




It could cause under-pressurisation.
It could cause over-pressurisation.
It could create a toxic cloud.
It could generate static electricity and increase the risk of explosion.
Before arrival, you should check that, if tank atmospheres are inerted, they contain:




at least oygen.
less than 8% oygen.
at least nitrogen.
less than nitrogen.
Where should the detonation arrestor be positioned before loading starts?




Close to the terminal vapour connection.
Close to the vessel vapour connection.
In the cargo manifold.
On the tank access vent.
Within what timescale should the US Expanded Declaration of Inspection confirm that alarms have
been tested?




The last month
The last
The last 24 hours
Alarms do not form part of the Expanded Declaration of Inspection
Loading should take place:




as quickly as possible.
extremely slowly throughout.
starting rapidly and slowing down.
starting slowly and increasing in stages.
After loading, non inerted cargoes must be allowed to settle for how long before they are opened for
sampling?




5 minutes
15 minutes
30 minutes
It is not necessary to wait
When lightering, what should there be on the vapour line of the discharging vessel?




low pressure alarm
A high pressure alarm
A PV valve
An oxygen content analyser
What enclosed space hazard causes the most deaths among seafarers?




Falls from height
Lack of oxygen
Toxic gases
Fire
Which of the spaces listed. is NOT an 'enclosed space'?






Ballast tank
Cargo holds
Fuel tank
Pump room
Paint locker
Bridge
What is often the first sign of hydrogen sulphide (H2S) being present in a space?




The smell of lemons
The smell of petrol
The smell of rotten eggs
The smell of burning
What enclosed space hazard is caused by the rusting of metal?




Toxic gas poisoning
A naemia
Eye irritation
Asphyxiation
Enclosed spaces are enclosed on all sides.

False.
The only tasks that require enclosed space entry are cleaning and maintenance.

False.
What will happen if you stay in an atmosphere containing less than 6% oxygen for 4 minutes or more?




Death
Muscle weakness
Eye disturbance
Nausea and vomiting
Why is it prohibited to enter a space that has been inerted?

Because it will cause nausea



Because you will die from lack of oxygen
Because there is an explosion hazard
Because it will irritate your eyes
Identify the international maritime organization (IMO) symbol




Fire control plan
Plan of fire fighting equipment
Fire fighting plan
Fire protection appliances or structural fire protection plan
Of the casualty has swallowed poison…..




Make him vomit
Do C.P.R.i casualty is unconscious
Report to your superior
All of them
This maritime organization (IMO) symbol represents “ Foam compound”.


True
False
12543 Asphyxia occurs when there is….




Pressure on the lungs
Pressure on the stomach
Pressure on the skull
None of them
On a large turbo electric alternating current propulsion generator, the device(s) that may be installed
is/are_____.




A CO2 fire extinguishing system
Temperature detector coils inserted in the stator slots for measuring stator temperature.
Electric space heaters to prevent condensation of moisture.
All of them
As part of the emergency procedures, two BA sets should be laid out on deck

True.
No more than one type of Permit to Work (the Enclosed Spaces Entry Permit) should be issued for
work in an enclosed space

False
It is the responsibility of the team members in the space to monitor the atmosphere constantly.

True.
Whose responsibility is it to stay in visual and/or audio contact with the team in the space?

The stand by person's
Testing must indicate an oxygen reading that is no lower than it is outside the space

True
The preferred method of ventilating the enclosed space before entry is natural ventilation.

False
Before a working party enters an enclosed space, where should the rescue equipment be kept ready?

At the entrance
What should you do if the alarm goes off when you are in the space?

Fit your EEBD and get out
What happens to the Permit to Work after the job is completed?

It is signed by the officer in charge and given to the Master for filing.
What happens to the opening to the space after everyone has come out, e.g. for a break, but when the
work is not yet completed?

It is closed and fenced off
Emergency procedures do not form part of the Action Plan

False
If any of the parameters of the risk assessment change while the workers are in the space, they must
stop What they are doing and get out.

True
On the SPACE card, what does the letter A stand for?

Assess
Who is responsible for initiating and coordinating any emergency action required?

The OOW
What percentage of the world's C02 emissions is caused by the shipping industry?

2.7%
What is the SEEMP?

A management tool to improve energy efficiency on the ship
What is the EEOI?

A voluntary IMO measure to enable operators to measure the fuel efficiency of individual ships.
What is the ISO14001?

An international standard that establishes a framework of controls to manage environmental protection.
What is the data collected through monitoring the SEEMP measures used for?

The planning stage in the next cycle of energy efficiency improvements
Who leads the SEEMP, analyzing the energy efficiency information to establish which measures work
best?

The shore officer
Who monitors and manages the SEEMP on board?

The chief engineer
In voyage planning, the aim is to plan:

the optimum route.
Calculating how temperatures during the voyage may affect cargo is an element of:

weather routing.
Speed optimization is navigating at the:

minimum fuel used per nautical mile.
Many SEEMP measures that apply to the engine room are routine procedures and Will already be part
of the ship’s maintenance programme.

True
When Slow steaming is not an option, increasing the engine's RPM by a few per cent can save several
tons of fuel per day.

False
Virtual Arrival is

the reduction of the ship’s speed to meet a revised arrival time
The ship's optimum trim is largely dependent on:

the cargo arrangements, the weather and planned speed.
The most energy efficient solution while alongside is to:

have one auxiliary engine in operation, and to run fewer generator sat high loads than several at high
loads.
Cold ironing is:

using electricity from shore rather than the ship.
Marine growths on the hull and propeller should be removed because a smooth hull leads to better fuel
efficiency.

True
Ballast operations must be assessed to determine whether it would be better to ballast slowly using
one pump or do the operation quickly with several pumps?

True
Store rooms should never be kept closed and the lights turned off because of the risk of accumulated
gases.

False
The main engine Power should be limited to:

85% of the MCR and thermal load.
35.- Who leads the SEEMP, analyzing the energy efficiency information to establish which measures
work best?
Correct answer: I) The shore office.
36.-the cargo involved or stowed in the vicinity must be identified as quickly as possible
Correct answer: I) True
37.- Boundary
cooling from above will be required
Correct answer: False
38.-the availability of a charging compressor for BA cylinders is vital:
Correct answer: I) True
39.- The extent and possible source of the fire is assessed by
Correct answer: I) the emergency team
40.- When Head Office become involved they Will set up a communications Centre and Will inform:
Correct form: I) all of the above.
41.- The main objective of boundary cooling is to:
Correct answer: I) limit the spread of fire from container to container.
42.- What is the main aim when tackling a container fire?
Correct answer: I) To cool it down and keep it cool.
43.- The procedures for dealing with cargoes classified as Dangerous Goods can be found in:
Correct answer: I) the MFAG and EMS sections of the IMDG Code supplement.
44.- If fire is found in a container, one of the first control measures is:
Correct answer: I) to turn the ship so that the wind Will blow smoke and flames away from the rest of the ship.
45.- Are the statements about dealing with a container fire True or False?
45.1 After the incident is over, the emergency suits and equipment must be cleaned and stored safely
for future use.
Correct answer: I) True
45.2 Water accumulation from boundary cooling Will be unlikely to cause a problem.
Correct answer: False
46.- Below deck, a major fire should be fought with:
Correct answer: I) Smothering gas
47.- Many things can create the heat necessary to Create a fire. Of the examples given below, which
item does NOT belong?
Correct answer: I) Painted surfaces
48.- Spontaneous combustions may occur when:
Correct answer: I) dirty waste, rags, sawdust and Other rubbish, especially if contaminated by oil, are left Lying
about.
49.- The hazards presented by flammable gases are the same as those of the vapour given off by Iow
flashpoint liquids.
50.- A leaking gas Will either disperse upwards or downwards depending on its vapour density„
51.- A leaking gas may find a remote source of ignition and carry a flame back to the source of the leak
51.- Gas cylinders should be located outside the machinery space from where the gas Will be piped.
52.- A mishandled acetylene cylinder may feel hot to the touch; if so it could explode and should be
cooled with a fine spray and jettisoned.
53.- What is a "hot work" permit?
Correct answer: I) A permit issued when laid down procedures controlling hot work are in place and obeyed
54.- Direct heat transfer through a material. CONDUCTION
55.- Heated liquids or gases rise, carrying the heat from one a rea to another. CONVECTION
56.- Heat energy transferred by radiating through a space, as in a cooking grill. RADIATION
57.- What is the basic principle of fire prevention?
Correct answer: I) Remove one of the three of the "fire triangle."
58.- The at which a material produces enough flammable vapour for into flash if exposed to an ignition source.
FLASHPOINT
59.- The at which a material Will continue to burn when ignited. Ignition
60.- The at which a material Will spontaneously combust. Self-ignition
61.- The at which a material undergoes a chemical change which results in combustion. Auto-ignition
62.- What, if any, precautions need to be taken before welding in the vicinity of open, but empty,
hatches?
Correct answer: I) Screens should be erected to prevent sparks dropping down hatches or ventilators.
Dunnage and Other combustible materials should be moved to a safe distance.
63.- Why is the risk of a fire in the engine room potentially so great?
Correct answer: I) Because it contains air, fuel and heat.
64.- Is there a Connection between "good housekeeping and fire prevention on board ship?
Correct answer: I) Yes, good housekeeping is an important element in the fire prevention check list on board
ship.
65.- Remote cut-off sand stops should be conspicuously marked and known to galley staff
66.- Burners or heating plates must be shut off when cooking is finished.
67.- Extractor flues and ranges should always be kept clean.
68.- Means to smother fat or cooking oil fires, such as a fire blanket, should be readily available
69.- Carbonaceous substances, such as wood, paper, bedding, packing cases are found in many parts of
the ship
70.- Flammable liquids include petroleum spirits, paints & amp; oils, paint thinners & amp; kerosene
71.- Liquids which give off flammable include solids that melt to form a liquid such as fats & amp ; waxes
72.- Metals such as magnesium& aluminum can easily be ignited & Will burn vigorously
73.- What are the three elements found in the "FIRE TRIANGLE"?
Correct answer: I) Fuel, air and heat
74.- Dirty waste, rags, sawdust & Other rubbish especially if contaminated with oil - generate heat
spontaneously which may be sufficient to ignite flammable mixtures.
75.- Oil soaked materials should not be stowed in close proximity to oil or paints, or on or near to steam
pipes.
76.- Materials in ship's stores including linen, blankets& similar absorbent materials are also liable to ignite by
combustion if damp or contaminated by oil
77.- If oil has soaked into absorbent materials, they should be cleaned and dried, or destroyed.
78.- Which extinguisher methods are electrically conducting?
Correct answer: I) water/foam
79.- What would you consider to be your most important reaction on discovering a fire?
Correct answer: Reporting by raising the alarm
80.- Successful fire fighting means removing one or more of the 3 elements (fuel, heat, air) as quickly as
possible. Effectively this puts out
81.-Most fires start as small ones.
82.- In accommodation areas, the most commonly available extinguishers are water extinguishers.
83.- In all cases, portable fire extinguishing equipment should be operated strictly in accordance with the
maker´s instructions displayed on the extinguisher body.
84.- After use, a modern hose must be laid out and drained by walking along it, holding each part at
shoulder level as you walk along.
85.- Protect couplings from salt spray with a light grease.
86.- After using a hose clean off any contaminants with a mild detergent. Dip the coupling sand nozzles in
fresh water before stowing away.
87.- Hoses must be maintained and tested regularly, and records kept of these activities.
88.- Make sure nozzles are Clear and discharge hoses in good condition.
89.- Always check extinguishers carefully for signs of corrosion.
90.- Many injuries have been caused by people unscrewing extinguisher heads under pressure.
91.- If you hear a high pressure "hiss", stop unscrewing. Make sure that pressure relief holes are Clear.
92.- What type of extinguisher is most suitable for dealing with fires involving carbonaceous
materials?
Correct answer: I) Water extinguisher
93.- What are carbonaceous fuels?
Correct answer: I) Ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth: those materials which burn to
leave behind smouldering embers.
94.- In the list of actions below, which item does NOT belong?
Correct answer: I) open all doors.
95.- What do the words "starvation, "smothering and "cooling refer to in relation to firefighting?
Correct answer: I) The means to remove one or more of the three elements of combustion.
96.- A dry powder extinguisher acts as...
Correct answer: I) a flame inhibitor
97.- Powder extinguishers can be used on all of fires, but check the label of a particular extinguisher as
there are different kinds of powder extinguishers.
98.- Use foam extinguishers on liquid fires.
99.- Use C02 or dry powder extinguishers on fires involving electricity.
100.- NEVER use water extinguishers on liquids or electrical fires.
101.- Why should a c02 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?
Correct answer: I) It will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available.
102.- Ideally the adjustable jet/spray nozzle on a hose should be used as:
Correct answer: I) a spray of arc60 degrees.
103.- Water extinguishers are the most common. They work by cooling, reducing the of the burning
substance to a point where it can no longer burn.
104.- When using a water extinguisher, spray water directly onto the fire and move the jet about quickly to
break up the water into droplets to get the best cooling effect.
105.- In bulky fires such as cotton waste, break up and spread out the material to dissipate heat and to make
sure it is all.
106.- Foam extinguishers work by smothering a fire, starving it of the air it needs.
107.- If you see smoke coming from behind a closed door, what would be the first essential action on
your part?
Correct answer: I) Feel the heat of the door and handle brace your shoulder and knee against the door, open
the door slightly, investigate and close quickly. Then raise the alarm and report clearly What the problem is.
108.- If a space is filling with smoke and fumes, any personnel not properly equipped with breathing
apparatus should.
Correct answer: I) get out of the space without delay; if necessary by crawling on hands and knees.
109.- In fire-fighting, what does the term "boundary starvation refer to?
Correct answer: I) Removing the fuel from the boundary of a fire to stop it spreading further
110.- Can you leave the control of the BA set to the wearer alone?
Correct answer: I) There should be a person assigned to check donning, testing procedure, tending and
elapsed time
111.- The vital task of the support party is to back up the fire fighters by fetching additional equipment.
112.- The support party may also be called to stop the fire spreading by undertaking boundary cooling or
boundary starvation, or by removing nearby fuel.
113.- The support party are also responsible for preparing the lifeboats& Other lifesaving bringing up extra
water and blankets, VHF radios, SARTs, & the EPIRB.
114.- On hearing the alarm, the party musters at its designated station, to the bridge & awaits
instructions.
115.- The officer in charge of the Attack Party makes an immediate assessment of the situation and
commences appropriate initial activities, keeping in regular contact with the bridge.
116.- The initial tasks of the Engine Room Party are to check that all pumps are fully operational & that the
emergency pump and generator are functioning correctly.
117.- The First Aid Party musters at the exit to the hospital where they collect stretchers, blankets first aid
kit, & a resuscitator pack.
118.- The Attack Party, or Emergency Party, has the task of directly fighting the fire.
119.- When the BA team has withdrawn, what action should be taken by the team leader?
Correct answer: I) Thoroughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the bridge.
120.- What is a good way to describe a ship when fighting a fire on board?
Correct answer: I) Potentially a six-sided box with four sides and a top and bottom through which fire can
spread.
121.- What is the first duty of an emergency party's group leader?
Correct answer: I) To muster his/her group at the pre-arranged muster station and check that all are safe, and
to report
122.- All communications should follow standard procedures. In the examples given below, which item does
NOT belong?
Correct answer: I) Shout out as loudly as you can to overcome background noise.
123.- On ships with only one emergency party, the Chief Office r Will usually take charge.
124.- Selection should be done on the basis of experience physical condition, age, specialist knowledge.
125.- The parties should be kept together as units.
126.- Each unit has specific duties & people should not deviate from them unless expressly ordered to do so
by the Master.
127.- Having formed the parties, the next task is to ensure crews are fully trained & know their role &
responsibilities, mustering arrangements& the location of equipment
128.- Are the following statements True or False?
128.1.- If the fire is in the Engine Room, the Second Engineer Will automatically take over because intimate
knowledge of the location is essential. CORRECT ANSWER: TRUE
128.2.- On ships with only one Emergency Party, the Chief Officer Will usually take charge
CORRECT ANSWER: TRUE
128.3.- The members of the Emergency Parties must be frequently exchanged to ensure that all crew
members became familiar with all firefighting duties on board ship.
CORRECT ANSWER: FALSE
129.- Remember that if a fire is contained or damped down, the amount of smoke Will initially increase.
130.- If breathing Apparatus is used, at least two fire fighters must work together.
131.- The amount of air breathed differs from to person, and according to the exertion.
132.- When selecting a 3A team, at least one member of the team should be familiar with the area.
133.- The first task of command and control is to provide the three C´s of naval strategy. These three
processes must be established quickly. Which process does NOT belong?
Correct answer: chaos
134.- On mustering, the leader of each party must first of all:
Correct answer: take a roll call.
135.- The stability of the ship is principally the responsibility of the bridge team.
136.- Limiting the amount of water used helps maintain stability.
137.- Damping down should be continued until all signs of heating have ceased.
138.- After a fire has been extinguished, a 24-hour fire watch should be kept on the area.
139.- Is it good practice to send one man into a smoke filled area wearing the Breathing Apparatus (BA)
while a second person remains outside the area on stand-by?
Correct answer: I) It is preferable that BA should be used in teams of not less than two fire fighters working
together.
140.- Regular fire drills must be held. They must be taken seriously and must include everyone on
board.
Correct answer: I) True
141.- Some drills should cover training in the use and maintenance of equipment.
Correct answer: I) True
142.- When holding drills take the opportunity to test communications.
Correct answer: I) True
143.- After each drill, hold a review with everyone to discuss how successful it was and how it could be
improved.
Correct answer: I) True
144.- What is the danger associated with thick smoke?
Correct answer: I) It is easy to lose your bearings and move closer to danger rather than away from it.
145.- When planning to stop a fire spreading, one must never forget that:
Correct answer: I) |you must take into account the areas above and below the as on all four sides.
146.- The fixed installation system can control a fire within a short space of time. Why should the C02
fixed installation system be used with caution in confined areas?
Correct answer: I) As it reduces the amount of oxygen, the engine room has to be evacuated.
147.- that machinery spaces contain all the elements needed to start a fire and
sustain it. What are these elements?
Correct answer: I) Heat, air and fuel
148.- When dealing with a fire emergency you should follow the advice of: Find it; Isolate it, report it
and Extinguish it. What does the term ISOLATE IT mean?
Correct answer: I) Tostem the flow of any fuel to the fire.
149.- Machinery space fires typically fall into one of five categories. Which category does NOT belong
in the list given below?
Correct answer: I) Propeller shaft bearing overheating
150.- Removing protective lagging exposes hot surfaces and creates a source of ignition.
151.- Leaving certain repair jobs unattended, even for a coffee break, could be the cause of fire.
152.- Repairs using non-standard components may produce the conditions for a fire to happen.
153.- Machinery space fi res are always serious and you must take every precaution to avoid them
happening.
154.- Machinery space fires are the biggest, single reason for the total Ioss of ships and their cargo.
Correct answer: I) True
155.- If the crew cannot bring the engine room fire under control quickly, then the fixed installation
must be used sooner rather than later.
Correct answer: I) True
156.- Activity while using breathing apparatus (3A) in the conditions found in the engine room must be
strictly controlled to avoid the effects of heat and humidity.
Correct answer: I) True
157.- The hazard presented by a liquid is usually classified according to its flashpoint. How is
flashpoint defined?
Correct answer: I) Flashpoint is the lowest at which vapour is given off in sufficient quantity for there to be a
flash if a spark or a flame is introduced.
158.- Always repair and replace leaking gaskets promptly.
Correct answer: I) True
159.- Check the operation of vent closures and fire doors regularly.
Correct answer: I) True
160.- It is hazardous to hold realistic fire drills in the engine room and such drills should not be
attempted
Correct answer: I) False
161.- Hot surfaces can vaporize flammable liquids, changing a safe product into an unstable, combustible
vapour.
162.- Around 2/3 of all engine room fires are caused by high pressure oil line fractures.
163.- Pouring some liquids generates static.
164.- In the engine room, there are many sources of ignition. As well as obvious ones, there are less obvious
ones such as discharge of static producing sparks. The hot, dry atmosphere of the engine-room is ideal
for static build up.
165.- What is the most sensible approach to gain control of an ENGINE ROOM fire?
Correct answer: I) Co-ordinate firefighting efforts by effective Command and Control. The most sensible
approach is "one shot and out".
166.- All firefighting features are there to protect the vessel and its crew. What in your View is the most
important measure one can take to maintain their effectiveness?
Correct answer: I) Regular inspection, maintenance and testing.
167.- All electric wiring should be maintained and kept clean and dry. The rated load capacity of the wires and
fuses should never be exceeded.
168.- In the engine room all persons must be aware of the need to maintain clean conditions, prevent oil
leakage, and remove all combustible materials from vulnerable positions.
169.-Suitable metal containers should be provided for the storage of cotton waste and similar cleaning
materials after use
170.- Wood, paints, spirits and tins of oil should not be kept in boiler rooms or machinery spaces including
steering gear compartments
171.- Dirty fuel oil burner tips are a hazard. It is essential to keep tips clean, with regular cleaning and
inspection.
172.- Cotton, if impregnated with oil may spontaneously ignite.
173.- Keep the bilge free of oil and scrupulously clean.
174.- Replace lagging that has become impregnated with oil.
175.- If, after hearing the fire alarm in the engine room, you cannot see smoke or flames you should:
Correct answer: I) follow fire emergency procedures.
176.- The decision to use the fixed installation cannot be taken lightly. A number of positive and negative
factors need to be taken into account.
177.- Once the engine room has been flooded with a fixed installation, the vessel Will probably be without
Power for some time.
178.- The timely use of the fixed installation will, in nearly every case extinguish a machinery space fire and
preserve the ship.
179.- Once the machinery space is sealed the Master can order the release of the fixed installation.
180.- Before using the fixed installation everyone must be out, and accounted for.
181.- Ships are designed with safety in mind. The aim is threefold and includes the design features
listed below. Which feature does NOT belong?
Correct answer: I) To include essential supplies of heat, fuel and air.
182.- What is the volume equivalent of Liquefied Natural Gas to vapour?
Correct answer: I) I volume liquefied LNG= 600 volumes of vapour
183.- What is the volume equivalent of Liquefied Petroleum Gas to vapour?
Correct answer: I) I volume liquefied LNG= 250 volumes of vapour
184.- A BLEVE is when:
Correct answer: I) liquefied gas in a tank is heated by fire and causes the tank to rupture.
The flash point of methane is:
-175°C
186.- The flash point of butane is:
Correct answer: I) -60°C
187.- What normally causes the most damage from a LNG fire?
Correct answer: I) The extreme heat
188.- When should the gas detection system's alarm be activated?
Correct answer: I) When the gas concentration reaches 30% of the cargo's LFL.
189.- How does a dry powder chemical extinguish a fire?
Correct answer: I) By breaking the reaction of the combustion process
190.- Smothering is most effective in:
Correct answer: I) fires in enclosed spaces.
191.- Foam is most effective for:
Correct answer: I) low vapour pressure pool fires.
192.- A LPG fire gives off more radiant heat than a LNG fire.
Correct answer: I) False
193.- C02 should only be used to inert spaces with a possible flammable atmosphere that are not on
fire.
Correct answer: I) False
194.- Water is the most effective medium for cooling and for reducing damage to adjacent to liquefied
gas fires.
Correct answer: I) True
195.- Hot training' is training in how to avoid accidents when carrying out hot work (welding, etc).
Correct answer: I) False
196.- Dry chemical powder is indicated for:
Correct answer: I) extinguishing fires.
197.- In a pool fire, how should radiant heat-exposed containment vessels be protected?
Correct answer: I) With water jets, sprays, screens or curtains
198.- In a pool fire, how should radiant heat-exposed containment vessels be protected?
Correct answer: I) isolate the fuel source.
199.- How do you bend a fire?
Correct answer: I) By aiming water streams at a large area of the flame
200.- How often does SOLAS require fire drills to be held for ships' crews?
Correct answer: I) Once a month
201.- How many people should there be in the responder team if breathing apparatus is to be used?
Correct answer: I) At least 2
202.- What is the next Step after the lifeboat is waterborne?
Correct answer: I) Checking that the hydrostatic interlock releases the interlock lever.
203.- To operate the Control Handle, you must:
Correct answer: I) remove the safety pin or pins
204.- What is the final stage in the drill?
Correct answer: I) To re-prepare the boat and davit for emergency use
205.- What is the next Step after embarking the crew in the lifeboat?
Correct answer: I) Checking seat belts are fastened.
206.- Why do most lifeboat accidents occur, according to a recent survey?
Correct answer: I) Because the release gear has not been properly re-set.
207.- International regulations state that every crew member must take part in at least one Abandon
Ship drill:
Correct answer: I) every month.
208.- A lever on the cam is connected by a push-pull cable to the Main Control Unit inside the lifeboat.
Correct answer: I) True
209.- At the Main Control Unit, the cables from each hook are attached to quadrants which are
controlled by the vertical spindle
Correct answer: I) False
210.- Any resistance felt during re-setting should always be questioned and the reason established at
once.
Correct answer: I) True
211.- The purpose of the hydrostatic interlock is to:
Correct answer: I) guard against premature release.
212..- A vertical spindle extends up through the hook housing, with its hook tail conical in shape.
Correct answer: I) False
213.- Moving a lever inside the boat rotates the spindle of both hooks simultaneously.
Correct answer: I) True
214.- The safety pins should be removed from the operating unit.
Correct answer: I) False
215.- The hooks should be fully locked behind their cam arrangements.
Correct answer: I) True
216.- You should ensure that the d rain plug is screwed down.
Correct answer: I) True
217.- What is the most important thing to know about your davit system?
Correct answer: I) The safe recovery load permitted
218.- The locking lever is positioned:
Correct answer: I) behind a Clear panel in the Control Unit.
219.- Over-riding the hydrostatic interlock is achieved by breaking the Clear panel and operating the
locking lever manually.
Correct answer: I) True
220.- Over-riding the hydrostatic interlock forms an important part of each Abandon Ship driII.
Correct answer: I) False
221.- Hoisting should be stopped:
Correct answer: once the lifeboat has cleared the water.
222.- The safety pin should only be inserted when the helmsman's release handle has dropped down
into its slotted 'locked' position.
Correct answer: True
223.- Whatever the system on your boat, the bow and stern men should inspect and pull on the hooks
to check that they are securely locked and that the cams are correctly positioned before reporting that
the hooks are re-locked.
Correct answer: True
224.- While the lifeboat is away from the ship, the Hook Release Handle must be moved forward again,
towards the closed position, as far as it Will go. The locating pin in the handle is then directly above the slots
in the side plates.
Order according to:
225.- Make sure there’s clear, deep enough water for the launch.
226.- Release the lifeboat securing devices.
227.- Pre-rig recovery lines.
228.- Disconnect the charging lead
229.- Muster the crew.
230.- After launch, which of these actions should be taken first?
Correct answer: I) Make sure there are no injuries
231.- According to IMO regulations, how often should a freefall lifeboat launch take place?
Correct answer: I) every Six months
232.- What is the most important aspect to consider when recovering the lifeboat?
Correct answer: Make sure not to endanger personnel.
233.- SOLAS requires that the lifeboat and the launching arrangements should be checked
Correct answer: weekly.
ORDER CORRECTLY
234.- Ensure all crew are securely strapped in
235.- Last minute verbal check by Coxswain
236.- Start the engine, as appropriate
237.- Last minute warning immediately before launch by Coxswain
238.- Which of the following items should you take on board a freefall lifeboat with you?
Correct answer: Nothing unless give n specific instructions to do so
239.- You need to make sure that your clothing allows for full contact with the seat during the fall.
Correct answer: True
240.- You should keep your hard hat on inside the boat.
Correct answer: False
241.- No life jackets should ever be worn inside the boat
Correct answer: False
242.- If the lifeboat is not full then the crew should be distributed evenly through the boat.
Correct answer: True
243.- Regular abandon ship drills must be carried out by all ships over.
Correct answer: 500 GT
244.- After launch, everyone should stay strapped in their seat
Correct answer: True
245.- Before the launch, one of the lifeboat crew should check that every crew member is securely
restrained.
Correct answer: True
246.- If you are responsible for bringing the SART on board you should hold it carefully during the
descent.
Correct answer: False
247.- Provided everyone is strapped in, freefall life boats are self-righting.
Correct answer: True
248.- A drill is a recognized procedure carried out within a realistic time frame with safety being the priority. A
training exercise is a recognized procedure carried out for training, which can be stopped to explain detail
Safety is the priority.
249.- Simulated launching is:
Correct answer: performed in the same way as an actual launch would be carried out.
250.- It does not matter what size your immersion suit is
Correct answer: False
251.- All types of lifejacket work in combination with all types of immersion suit.
Correct answer: false
252.- The face seal is extremely important because it helps to prevent heat Ioss from the head.
Correct answer: true
253.- The suit should be stored in a cool, dry place.
Correct answer: True
254.- Regulations state that all immersion suits must be stored in cabins.
Correct answer: False
255.- You should immediately repair any tears or deterioration you find.
Correct answer: False
256.- During each inspection, the zip should be rubbed on both sides with:
Correct answer: the lubricant recommended by the manufacturer.
257.- To enter the water safely
Correct answer: get as close as possible to the water then step off or use a rope or ladder.
258.- Which of the tasks listed is not appropriate when checking your suit?
Correct answer: Try the suit out in the shower, or if weather permits, in the sea.
260.- When putting your suit on, how should you squeeze the air out?
Correct answer: Put fingers inside face seal, squat down and squeeze suit, remove fingers from face seal,
stand up again.
261.- Lifejackets should be:
Correct answer: put on over the immersion suit.
262.- If you need to move position once you are in the water, you should:
Correct answer: swim on your back, using slow, rhythmic strokes.
263.- Which of the instructions about putting your immersion suit back in its bag is not correct?
Correct answer: Do the zip right up
264.- You should check your suit's condition:
Correct answer: once a month.
265.- If a person spends Six hours in 0°C water when wearing an immersion suit, their body temperature
should not drop:
Correct answer: by more than 2°C
266.- Death generally occurs when the body temperature reaches
Correct answer: 26°C.
267.- Cold water shock lasts for around:
Correct answer: 2 minutes.
268.- With hypothermia, unconsciousness normally sets in when the body temperature reaches:
Correct answer: 30°C
269.- Water conducts heat away from the body.
Correct answer: at more than 20 times the rate of air.
270.- The suit's buddy line is to:
Correct answer: prevent you from drifting away from Other crew members.
271.- Immersion Suits Will be most effective when:
Correct answer: you are fully dressed.
272.- The Difference Between Life and Death Test
Since Ist July 2006, it has been mandatory for cargo ships and bulk carriers trading outside 20°North
Correct answer: everybody on board.
273.- What are the gripes?
Correct answer: They secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed
274.- A fully enclosed lifeboat's descent can be stopped at any time by:
Correct answer: releasing the tension on the brake control cable.
275.- What is a SART?
Correct answer: A survival craft radar transponder.
276.- When launching a fully enclosed lifeboat, the FPDs should be removed:
Correct answer: just before the boat reaches the water.
277.- Which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?
Correct answer: Freefall lifeboats.
278.- What is the next Step in the launching procedure?
Correct answer: The person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare to board the evacuees.
279.- When getting Clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended procedure?
Correct answer: Make sure the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship.
280.- Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanisms. Which of the actions listed to
avoid this happening does NOT belong on the list?
Correct answer: Make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease all moving parts
281.- All on-load release systems must have built in safe guards against early release.
Correct answer: True
282.- When the boat is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released.
Correct answer: True
283.- A freefall life boat should be abandoned if the engine does not start
Correct answer: False
284.- The shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:
Correct answer: a combination of rigid covers and folding canopies.
285.- If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long Will the constant flow of air last?
Correct answer: A minimum of 10 minutes.
286.- At What point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a fully enclosed life
boat?
Correct answer: Once everyone is inside.
288.- Why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboat extremely carefully?
Correct answer: Because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle.
289.- What is the first action when boarding a throw overboard liferaft?
Correct answer: Check the liferaft for leaks and damage.
290.- When may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
Correct answer: When the master or their deputy gives the order.
291.- How are throw overboard liferafts inflated?
Correct answer: By giving a strong pull on the painter at its full extent.
292.- Which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release?
Correct answer: All liferafts except the ones stored forward.
293.- How many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
Correct answer: 1
294.- As evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew members sitting at the entrance should:
Correct answer: direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on.
295.- SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within:
Correct answer: 30 minutes.
296.- What should you do f water enters the life raft?
Correct answer: Bail it out as soon as possible, using the baler and/or sponge
297.- Once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the bowsing lines be used for?
Correct answer: To pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding.
298.- When launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft shackle out of the canister, what
should you do next?
Correct answer: Hook it on to the davit.
299.- Why is it important to keep the bowsing lines within the raft?
Correct answer: So that they Will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while it is being lowered.
300.- Where can you find out detailed information about liferaft equipment and operation?
Correct answer: From the SOLAS training manual.
301.- Where can you find out detailed information about liferaft equipment and operation?
Correct answer: From the SOLAS training manual.
302.- Where can you find out detailed information about liferaft equipment and operation?
Correct answer: From the SOLAS training manual
303.- The priority after launching the liferaft is to get Clear of the ship using any means possible.
Correct answer: True
304.- Marine Evacuation Systems have the disadvantage that evacuees may have to enter the water before
getting into the liferaft.
Correct answer: False
305.- Once a throw overboard liferaft is in the water, you should rig the embarkation ladder
Correct answer: False
306.- What is the first action in launching a davit-launched liferaft?
Correct answer: Remove the ship's side rails.
307.- Which Annex of MARPOL deals with the prevention of pollution from garbage?
Correct answer: Annex V
308.- Any photographs or visual evidence should include:
Correct answer: all the above
309.- Many ship data recorders only store data for no more than 12 hours.
Correct answer: True.
310.- Minor cuts and bruises don' t always have to be investigated and recorded.
Correct answer: False
311.- Altering or falsi6'ing records may be regarded as a criminal offence
Correct answer: True
312.- Altering or falsi6'ing records may be regarded as a criminal offence.
Correct answer: True
313.- The ship's obligations relating to the carriage of cargo are defined in:
Correct answer: The Hague and Hague-Visby Rules
314.- Why was there a lighting problem in the area where the incident occurred?
Correct answer: Because the electrician had failed to order replacement bulbs
315.- The most important document that provides evidence of the quantity and condition of cargo carried on
board is the:
Correct answer: Bill of Lading
316.- The main reason for a thorough investigation following an incident is to:
Correct answer: prevent it from happening again
317.- Crewmembers' notebooks are private documents and cannot be considered as evidence.
Correct answer: False
318.- All items of evidence should be clearly labelled and securely packaged.
Correct answer: True
319.- Poor record keeping and filing may show the company in a poor light if a case comes to court.
Correct answer: True
320.- The potential for latent failures can be reduced by the proper application of workplace procedures aimed
at identifying risks and possible safety issues. Which of the activities listed is NOT relevant in this Context.
Correct answer: Agreeing times of meal breaks
321.- There should be no surprises and no secrets' Effective engine room resource management depends on
sharing information. 'What if' questions are important so that there are alternative scenarios in mind if
circumstances or priorities change during the planned sequence of work
322.- You should not question the decisions of senior colleagues.
Correct answer: False
323.- You should only provide information when it is asked for
Correct answer: False
324.- You should feel comfortable asking for help when you need it.
Correct answer: True
325.- You should ask questions if there is something you don't understand
Correct answer: True
326.- Order in the correct form
the experience itself
reflection
generalization
planning
327.- order in the correct form
Latent failure
Preconditions
Active failure
Failed defenses/controls
328.- electricity
Correct answer: Hazard
329.- caustic substances
Correct answer: Hazard
330.- equipment
Correct answer: Targets
331.- Other crew members
Correct answer: Targets
332.- noisy environments
Correct answer: Hazard
333.- equipment manuals
Correct answer: Targets
334.- very hot surfaces
Correct answer: Hazard
335.- You should follow the daily work plan regardless of the way the situation evolves.
Correct answer: False
336.- Unwanted visitors or phone calls can distract you from the task in hand and start a chain of events
leading to an incident.
Correct answer: True
337.- Contradictory readings from instrumentation are quite common and are not a cause for concern.
Correct answer: False
338.- You should not ignore 'gut feeling' about a situation even if you are not sure What may be wrong.
Correct answer: True
339.- Active failures are often due to a human error.
Correct answer: True
340.- The 'traffic light' approach is a system for dealing with material changes in circumstances. How many
changes are required for the light to change from green to amber?
Correct answer: 1
341.- To manage the situation requires controls over the hazards and defenses for the targets. When the
controls, or the defenses, or both fail we have an event— the target is damaged or, in the case of a near
miss, threatened by the hazard.
342.- The Reference suggests there are three barriers which can often make developing an effective engine
room team harder. These are:
Correct answer: Culture, rank and certification.
343.- They should welcome positive safety ideas from all quarters.
Correct answer: True
344.- Record-keeping is an important part of the Safety Management System for routine operations.
Correct answer: True
345.- Which of the following actions is not integral to the continuous improvement cycle?
Correct answer: Shore office is notified.
346.- It is advisable to report and analyze hazardous occurrences because:
Correct answer: it identifies potential problems.
347.- Safety committee meetings should be attended by:
Correct answer: the person chairing the plus representatives from different operational areas, ranks and
nationalities, and anyone else who would like to come.
348.- Risk assessment should be applied to:
Correct answer: any new or existing procedure or equipment.
349.- The Shipboard Management Team should not delegate any tasks to junior officers.
Correct answer: False
350.- The investigation of accidents is required under
Correct answer: the ISM Code (The International Management Code for the Safe Operation of Ships and for
Pollution Prevention)
351.- Safety Officers should carry out inspections in each area of the ship that is accessible by Crew members:
Correct answer: at least once every 3 months.
352.- They should rely on the safety officer to decide What training is needed.
Correct answer: False
353.- They should ensure the display of safety information when and where appropriate.
Correct answer: True
354.- They are responsible for the safety of visitors to the ship.
Correct answer: True
355.- The most vital aspect of the DPA's safety management role is to:
Correct answer: ensure that the ship's SMS is operating as it should.
356.- Who is responsible for setting in place an appraisal system to review staff safety awareness and identify
any training needs?
Correct answer: The shore office
357.- What is the most important factor in maintaining a safe shipping operation?
Correct answer: management commitment
358.- Which of the statements about change management is correct?
Correct answer: Change management is a structured process for managing and evaluating changes across
the board.
359.- Gap analysis is:
Correct answer: the process of identi6'ing shortfalls and deficiencies, and correcting them.
360.- The best way for the operator to analyze data for the purpose of identifying trends is to:
Correct answer: use electronic systems.
361.- A main aim of TMSA is to:
Correct answer: complement the ISM code and SIRE reports
362.- Incidents and near misses are investigated to determine root causes.
Correct answer: True
363.- The fleet must be kept informed of all safety matters through daily meetings.
Correct answer: False
364.- It is expected that operators should update their TMSA submission:
Correct answer: at least once a year.
365.- There are four steps to the continuous improvement cycle. Step 1 should always be:
Correct answer: planning.
366.- When auditing the system for TMSA, how far should operators go back to collect historical data?
Correct answer: 6 months.
367.- When accepting a vessel, the vetting department Will perform a risk assessment by analyzing a set of
information. Which of the data listed Will they NOT look at?
Correct answer: Charter rates
368.- With TMSA, vetting departments Will no longer need to carry out audits of their regular operators'
management systems.
Correct answer: False
369.- As far as vessels are concerned, TMSA mainly means following operating procedures and keeping
accurate and up-to-date
Correct answer: True
370.- If an operator has determined that they have moved up a stage, what should they do?
Correct answer: Send a complete updated submission via OCIMF to the companies that received their earlier
submission.
371.- The operator inputs details of the records into the self-assessment submission in an OCIMF standard
format.
Correct answer: True
372.- The Customer Will have access to the SIRE report and Will use the data to verify the operators TMSA
input.
Correct answer: True
373.- The self-assessment of the TMSA Elements should be completed by:
Correct answer: the personnel who are directly involved in each one.
374.- maintenance work on non-critical equipment in a year may be up to:
Correct answer: 1%
375.- The majority of OCIMF members require and expect TMSA for tankers and barges that carry their
cargoes.
Correct answer: True
376.- TMSA is a mandatory requirement like the ISM Code.
Correct answer: False
377.- TMSA submissions are the of OCIMF and they can decide who sees them.
Correct answer: False
378.- I) Many ship data recorders only store data for no more than 12 hours.
Correct answer: True
379.- Poor record keeping and filing may show the company in a poor light if a case comes to court.
Correct answer: True
380.- Any photographs or visual evidence should include:
Correct answer: all the above
381.- Why was there a lighting problem in the area where the incident occurred?
Correct answer: Because the electrician had failed to order replacement bulbs
382.- Altering or falsifying records may be regarded as a criminal offence.
Correct answer: True
383.- The ship's obligations relating to the carriage of cargo are defined in
Correct answer: The Hague and Hague-Visby Rules
384.- Which Annex of MARPOL deals with the prevention of pollution from garbage?
Correct answer: Annex V
385.- The most important document that provides evidence of the quantity and condition of cargo carried on
board is the:
Correct answer: Bill of Lading
386.- The main reason for a thorough investigation following an incident is to:
Correct answer: prevent it from happening again
387.- All items of evidence should be clearly labelled and securely packaged.
Correct answer: True
388.- Crewmembers' notebooks are private documents and cannot be considered as evidence.
Correct answer: False
389.- Minor cuts and bruises don't always have to be investigated and recorded.
Correct answer: False
390.- A casualty with a severe bleed at the right wrist is unconscious. What position would you place them?
Correct answer: In the recovery position on the left side
391.- You are in a safe environment. What is the first action you should take on discovering a casualty?
Correct answer: Shout at the casualty as you approach them to provoke a response
392.- The immediate treatment for a hot burn is to:
Correct answer: cool the at a with water.
393.- Your casualty has an arterial bleed at the wrist. The first aid treatment is to:
Correct answer: press directly on the wound.
ID 21999 When checking a casualty's ABC how long do you allow in order to check their breathing?
Correct answer: 10 seconds
395.- What is the ratio of ventilations to chest Compressions in resuscitation?
Correct answer: 2:30
396.- Indirect pressure to stop bleeding should be kept in place for:
Correct answer: I O minutes and released slowly.
397.- Arterial blood is:
Correct answer: bright red and spurting.
398.- A casualty is placed in the recovery position:
Correct answer: to maintain the airway
ID 22004 During resuscitation, the rate of compression should be:
Correct answer: 1 00 per minute
400.- If you think a casualty is choking you should first:
Correct answer: ask them if are choking.
401.- A casualty in shock has:
Correct answer: pale dry skin and Slow pulse.
402.- The severity of a burn is assessed by:
Correct answer: its depth and its area.
403.- The causality’s palm is considered to be:
Correct answer: I % of the total body surface area.
404.- A burn should be cooled for a minimum of:
Correct answer: 20 minutes
405.- A casualty is found collapsed in an enclosed space. What should the rescuer do first?
Correct answer: Raise the alarm
406.- Cold burns to the hands may be warmed up by being rubbed
Correct answer: False
407.- A shocked casualty who is thirsty may be given a drink of water.
Correct answer: False
408.- It is OK to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions and ventilations
Correct answer: True
409.- The casualty may be a danger to the rescuer.
Correct answer: True
410.- A sprain is an injury to:
Correct answer: ligament
411.- When a casualty has a dislocated shoulder you must:
Correct answer: tie the arm to the side of body.
412.- Which of the injuries listed is best treated using an elevation sling?
Correct answer: Dislocated el bow
413.- How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the left side of their chest?
Correct answer: Sitting up and leaning towards the left
414.- When applying a dressing to a sucking chest wound it should be:
Correct answer: nonstick and sea led with bottom edge open.
415.-A casualty has fallen from a height and appears to be unconscious. What would you do first?
Correct answer: Check their breathing
421.- When a casualty has a fractured base of skull they may have:
Correct asnwer: blood stained fluid leakingfrom the ears or nose.
422.- A complicated fracture is one where there is:
Correct answer: damage to underlying tissue.
ID 22022 In a concussed casualty you Will find:…..Correct answer: both of the pupils react to light.
424.- In Compression, the casualty Will have:
Correct answer: noisy breathing with strong and Slow pulse.
425.- A casualty has a chemical splash in the eye. You should
Correct answer: wash the eye out with the casualty Iying dovvn.
ID 22025 A casualty has a Wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it out?
Correct answer: At least I O minutes
427.- A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound. What action would you take?
Correct answer: Place a dampdressing lightly over the vvound
428.- If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg the rescuer should:
Correct answer: not release them if trapped for longer than 1 5 minutes.
429.- An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice you should
Correct answer: vvrap the finger in plasticand then padding.
ID 22029 A casualty with chest pain should be:
Correct answer: positioned sitting up and supported
431.- If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their.
blood sugar is too lovv.
432.- A casualty having an asthma attack Will have:
pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse
433.- A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid. You should:
give them sips of water to drinz
434.- Which ofthe symptoms listed could indicate a spinal injury?
Any of the above
435.- In hypothermia the casualty Will be:
pale, vvitha Slow pulse
436.- On rescue, a hypothermic casualty is unconscious. You should:
vvrap them in blankets.
437.- A casualty with heat stroke is:
red withastrong pulse.
438.- What is the maximum recommended daily alcohol consumption for a man?
3-4 units
439.- Are the statements about skin cancer True or False?
I) People vvith dark coloured skinsdo not need to worry about..000000000000ing skin cancer.
false
2) It'sa good idea to wear sun screenand avoid the midday sun where possible.
true
3) A change ina mole onyour skin, particularly if itgets bigger, bleeds or changes colour should be checked by
a doctor.
True
440.- Are the statements about care ofteeth and gums True or False?
I) Keeping pur gums healthy isas importantas looking after your teeth themselves.
true
2) Smoking can make gumdisease worse and your teeth Will usually became stained from the cigarette
smoke.
true
3) Your brushing should try to remove the layer of which contains bacteria from vvhere it collectsat the base of
teeth.
True
441.- Which type of Hepatitis is often sexually transmitted?
2) Yes.
442.- Maize, bananas and bread consist mostly of:
carbohydrate.
445.- On average, how many calories a day do men that are fairly active require to maintain their weight?
3000
446.- Are the statements about alcohol consumption True or False?
I) Men can normally consume more alcohol than women vvithout ill effects
. True
2) Overweight people candrink more thana thin person vvithout ill effects.
False.
3) Regularly drinking too much increases the risk of various ty*s of long term illnesses.
True
4) Drinking heavily in the evening could leave you witha high level of alcohol inyour bloodstream the next
mormng.
True
447.- What percentage ofyour desirable maximum pulse rate should you aim to reach in order to improve your
level offitness without putting undue strain on your heart?
4) Yes.
448.- Halfa pint of beer or lager would usually be equivalent to:
I unit.
449.- Are the statements about diet True or False?
I) Saturated fats can increase the amount of cholesterol in the bloodstream.
true
2) Youshould try to eat at least three portions of different vegetables and fruit every day
. false
3) Youshould try to eat only very Small amounts of foods containing fatand/or sugar.
Youdid notanswer a ny of the options on this part of the test
True
450.- Which ofthe diseases listed is not sexually transmitted?
Pneumonia
451.- To which food group do eggs, fish and nuts belong?
Proteins
452.- Exercise is important for maintaining health. What is the minimum amount recommended to achieve
some benefit?
30 minutes 3 times a
453.- The symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases:sw
may include all the above.
454.- In Search ofGood Health (Promoting Healthy Living On Board Ship) Test
Smoking can:
cause all the above.
455.- It'sa mandatory requirement for non crevv members boarding a vessel to know to do inan emergency.
Correctansvvers= I) True.
456.- The standard signal for a general/abandon ship alarm is:
7 short, I long blast on the ship'swhistZsiren, bell or klaxon
457.- If you need to go through a Powered watertight door, What should you do?
The door must be operated by a trained and com*tent person.
458.- How much breathing time Will an EEBD (Emergency Escape Breathing Device) give you, ifyou should
need to get out of an enclosed space?
10-15 minutes
459.- Who needs to give you clearance to board a ship?
The company/agent and rulaster
460.- As you board the gangway from the quayside, What should you do with your hands?
Keep them on the ropes on either side of the gangway.
461.- It'syour duty to board the ship, vvhether or notyou are satisfied vvith the boarding arrangementS. Youdid
notanswer a ny of the options on this part of the test
False.
462.- If you want to enter a space which might have an oxygen deficient or toxic atmosphers What should you
do?
You should not go in
463.- Who should you inform when you leave the ship?
The Master or Chief Oficer
464.- To climba pilot ladder safely,you should keep your from the ladder by leaning bacz
False
465.- When going on board a shipyoushould take vvithyou a hard hat withadjustable chinstrap.
True
466.- Safety spectacles can be used to protectyour eyes againstany onboard hazard.
False.
467.- What should you take with you to signal an emergency ifyou should find yourself in trouble in a dark
space on the ship?
A whistle or blinking light
468.- Inan emergency on board ship,youshould not use an elevator.
True
469.- What's the first thing that happens when you reach the top ofthe gangway or ladder?
You sign in vvith the gangway watch.
470.- Flip-fiopsare recommended for use while on board in hot climates.
False
471. What kind of portable lighting Will you need if you're going onboard a tanker or chemical carrier?
An intrinsicallysafe torch
472.- If you notice something on board that's suchasan unguarded opening, or oil spilled ona walkway,you
should report it to a ship's oficer as soonas possible.
True
473.- How can you find out your nearest exit?
Consult the ship's onboard safety plan or aska member of the ship's crevv.
474.- How Will you know when to board the accommodation ladder or gangway?
You'll be instructed to board by the gangway watch.
475.- What is a "hot work" permit?
A permit issued to ensure correct proceduresare followed when hotwork is being carried out.
476.- What is the "ABANDON SHIP" signal?
A command given only by the Master or his deputy.
477.- Ifyou have to abandon ship What type of clothing is best?
Put on extra clothing, preferably witha waterproof layer on top.
478.- Are the statements about medical emergencies True or False?
I) If there is an accident the first priority is to move the victim somevvhere warm.
False
2) aren minor accidentsshould be reported
True
3) Back injuries can easily result from using incorrect lifting techniques
True.
479.- What type of extinguisher is most suitable for dealing with fires involving carbonaceous materials?
Water
480.- Drag the correct descriptions into place to match the symbols.
I) Liferaft.2) Primary route.3) Hose box vvith nozzIe.4) Lifejacket. 5) International shore connection
481.- Where on board would you look for the muster list?
Muster lists must be put up in prominent places throughout the ship, including the engine roomand crevv
accommodati on spaces.
483.- If the accommodation is filling with smoke and fumes, you should:
get out of the space withoutdelay; if necessary by crawling on handsand knees.
484.- What is the muster list?
A list thatspecifies details of the ship'salarms, the ocation of the muster stations, and actions to be taken by the
crevv in an emergency.
485.- What would be your most important reaction on discovering a fire?
Reportit by raising the alarm
486.- Why should a Q02 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?
Itwill displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygenavailable.
487.- Complete the sentences about fire extinguishers by dragging the correct ending onto each one.
Use foam extinguishers on liquid fires.
Use water extinguishers on fires involving carbonaceous materials.
Never use water extinguishers on fires involving electricity.
use C02 or dry povvder extinguishers on liquids or electrical fires.
488.- Are the statements about fire prevention True or False?
I) It's notyour job to prevent visitorssmoking in unauthorised places.
false
2) Youshould never smoke while Iying inyour bunz
true
3) Faulty electrical equipmentshould be taken out of service immediately.
true
489.- Are these statements about hazardous situations True or False?
I) Chemicals can enter the body through the respiratory system.
True
2) Prolonged immersion in hot water can cause dermatitis.
True.
3) Man-made cl Othing protects against static electricity which might cause a fire.
False.
490.- Are these statements about PPE True or False?
I) PPE is your first line of defence against accidents.
False
2) If you're notsure vvhether you're using the right kind of PPE,youshouId stop vvhatyou're doing and check
vvith pur immediate chief or safety officer.
True
491.- Clothing coated with or made from neoprene, rubber etc. is for protection against:
strong solvents, oilsand grease.
492.- Safety harnesses must be worn when there is a danger offalling
2 metres or more.
493.- Are these statements about head protection True or False?
I) Sunlight causes deterioration to the Shell of the helmet.
True.
2) The bump cap is the of head PPE that provides the most protection.
False.
494.- Are these statements about eye protection True or False?
I) Eyes need to be protected from gases.
True
2) Safety spectacles, goggles, filtersand faceshields all provide the same level of protection.
False.
495.- Are these statements about foot protection True or False?
I) Wellington boots protectagainst one of the most commonaccidents of and falls.
False.
2) 300ts protectagainst one of the most common problems: knocksand cuts to the ankles.
True.
496.- Is this statement about fall arrest equipment True or False?
I) You should test fall arrest equipment before use by pulling hard.
True.
497.-Clothing made of bonded olefin is for protection against:
fibresand dust
498.- If your protective gloves come into contact with chemicals, you should:
wash them immediately.
499.- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about noise induced hearing loss.
Most noise problems are a bout prolonged exposure to only moderately high
levels. When you're working in an uncomfortable environment, though, which isn't subject to constant noisg
irs tempting to forgetabout protection, but it's alvvays important.
500.- Are these statements about respiratory protection True or False?
I) Face maskswill help inan oygen deficient environment.
False
2) Most respiratory filtersare like sponges in that they can only absorbso much.
True.
501.- Is this statement about hand and arm protection True or False?
I) You can check the condition of rubber, plasticand latexgloves by blowing into them to see if they inflate and
remain infiated
True.
503.- Is this statement about noise induced hearing loss True or False?
I) Noise induced hearing loss occurs suddenly.
False.
504.- What is the minimum height for toeboard rise on an independent tied scaffold?
150 mm
505.- A ledger on an independent tied scaffold is:
a pole used to keep the standards in each lift equidistant and strengthened
506.- Are the statements listed about inspections True or False?
I) Any inspection needs to be done by a supervisor.
True.
2) These inspectionsare done to keep the ship's records up to date.
False
3) A bad storm may mean thatanother inspection is required.
True.
4) The main focus of the inspectionshould be the condition of the poles.
False
507.- Are the statements listed about inspections True or False?
I) Any inspection needs to be done by a supervisor.
True.
2) These inspectionsare done to keep the ship's records up to date.
False.
3) A bad storm may mean thatanother inspection is required.
True.
4) The main focus of the inspectionshould be the condition of the poles.
False.
508.- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the storage and use of
scaffolding equipment.
Tubesshould be stored... horizontally.
Steel and... aluminium componentsshould not be mixed vvhenstored.
MDF isseverely weakened when itgets... wet.
It's importantto ensure thatanything metal is nota.. corroded.
509.- What is the recommended maximum height for a free standing mobile tower?
9.6 metres
510.- Which ofthese items of personal protective equipment (PPE) is NOT usually required when working at
height?
Ear protectors
511.- Use your mouse to complete the following sentences correctly.
Scaffoldsshould only be erected on a sound base.
Usually,scaffolds Will be rigidly connected to a
Partly builtscaffoldsshould have notices attached at every point of access.
no answer
All platforms must have edge protection and guardrails, to prevent materialsfalling.
Platform boards should be securely fixed so that they don't form a risk to anyone underneath them.
512.- What is the usual rule governing the slope for a ladder when in use?
About I out for every4 up.
513.- Which ofthe faults listed might cause you to reject a ladder as unsafe?
All ofthe above.
514.- Are these statements about risk assessment True or False?
I) Before anyone can workat height, there needs to be a riskassessment.
True
2) Control ling access isa means of helping to provide protection for everyone.
True.
3) The use of individual protective equipment doesn't need to be considered until after the scaffold has been
erected
False.
4) The risk assessment process is complete once erection of the scaffold starts.
False.
515.- Of the questions listed, which does NOT need to be considered before the erection or use of any access
equipment?
How much do the people who Will be using it?
516.- What is the purpose of a tie on an independent tied scaffold?
To restrict any inward and outward movement of the scaffold.
517.- What is the minimum width specified by the regulations for a platform on an independent tied scaffold?
600mm
518.- Are these statements about working from scaffolds and scaffold towers True or False?
I) Slight overloading of the structure is permitted if it is for a short time.
False
2) Use of a scaffold tower is not dependent on weather conditions.
False
3) You should never use a ladder on top of a scaffold tower to gain extra height.
True
4) You should only use scaffold towers that have been built by people.
True
5) Any work at all on a scaffold must be covered by a Permit To WorZ
True
421.- When would you fire the pyrotechnics after launching the lifeboats and liferafts?
When you have sighted the rescue services or Other ships/aircraft.
422.- Are the following statements True or False?
I) Some domestic substances found on ships are capable of damaging your health.T
2) Some substances may react dangerously with other substances and should never be mixed.T
3) It is safe to smoke in bed as long as you stay awake. F
4) It is important to read labels on chemical containers. T
423.- Which statement does not belong? Good health depends on:
I) sensible diet. NO
2) adequate sleep.NO
3) occasional excess of alcohol. YES
4) avoidance of recreational drugs. NO
5) avoi dance of excesses of tobacco. NO
6) regular exercise. NO
424.- Personal Safety in the Accommodation Test
Complete the following sentences by dragging the Correct ending onto each one.
Instruction plates, notices and operating indicators should be disposed of safely.
Flickering lights usually indicate faults in wiring or fittings which may cause electric shock or fires.
Llany accidents can be prevented by always keeping things ship-shape and doing things in an orderly fashion.
Dangerous articles such as razor blades and lighted cigarette ends should be disposed of safely.
425.- Good housekeeping is an essential element in promoting health and safety on board. Complete the
following sentences on correct procedures
Electric circuits .should not be overloaded.
Fixtures and fittings should be properly maintained.
All work and transit areas should be adequately lit.
Doors and drawers should be properly secured.
Garbage and waste materials should be cleared up and disposed of correctly and promptly.
426.- Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one.
Means of access to fire-fighting equipment, emergency escape routes and water tight doors should never be
obstructed.
No alarm system should be isolated without permission of the Master or Chief Engineer.
Tools and Other equipment should never be left Iying around.
Whenever repairs are in progress warning notices should be posted
427.- Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one.
Avoid disease by keeping air ducts clean and effective.
Always use handrails on both internal and external stairways.
dangerous equipment such as badly wired domestic appliances.
Don't play or interfere with fire extinguishers as it could cost someone's life.
Do not bring hazardous material into the accommodation.
428.- If you discover a defect in any equipment or a fitting within the accommodation, such as in the
laundry room, air-conditioning units, tiles, carpets, light fittings etc. you should:
I) make a log book entry. NO
2) fix it best you can.NO
3) complain to the superintendent. NO
4) report it to a responsible person. YES
429.- Electrical fittings in your cabin. Which is the Correct statement?
I) Personal electrical appliances should only be connected to the ship's electrical supply with approval from a
responsible officer. YES
2) Clothing can be left to dry close to cabin heaters or light bulbs.NO
3) Hand pressing irons can be left switched on as long as the iron is left in the upright position. NO
4) It is in order to use extension plugs In your cabin as long as the plug is fused. NO
430.- SAFETY SIGNS: Match the symbol against the meaning
I) Prohibition - Do not.„.
2) Warning - Danger.
3) Mandatory –Must do....
4) Emergency escape, First aid and safe Condition - The safe way..
5) Fire Equipment- location or use of fire equipment.
431.- Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one.
The prevention of fire on board ship is of utmost importance.
Drying clothing on or above the heaters should not be permitted.
Ashtrays or Other suitable containers should be provided and used at places where smoking is authorised.
All electrical appliances should be firmly secured and served by connections whenever possible.
432.- Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with your mouse.
Know the location of safety equipment in the engine room.
Use protective clothing to protect yourself against cuts,abrasions, heat and chemicals.
Wear your hard hat to avoid injury from knocks or falling objects.
Remove sources of potential fire danger by good housekeeping.
Clear up spills to avoid slips and falls.
433.- Why is it important to read the labels on chemical containers carefully before opening them?
I) To find out about any hazards from the contents . YES
2) To find out how to open the container. NO
3) To find out the cost of the contents and avoid waste. NO
4) To find out the quantity in the container .NO
434.- Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with your mouse.
Damaged orworn tools should not be used.
The proper tool of the right size should be used
When not in use, tools should be stowed away.
To avoid in jurya tool in use should be directed away from the body
435.- Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with your mouse.
Oily rags are dangerous if left Iying about.
Safety helmets should be worn in the engine room when there Is a risk of head injury.
Spilled oil should always be cleared up immediately.
Good engine room housekeeping is essential as a precaution against fire in the engine room.
If provided, the lifting handles should. be used when a floor plate is removed.
436.- Is it True or False to state the following?
I) Follow the correct procedureswhen operating watertightdoors. T
2) Pre-plan escape routes in case of emergency. T
3) Ordinary prescription spectacles Will afford adequate protection when working in the engine room. F
437.- Is it True or False to state the following?
I) Remove rings and jewerley so that they don't become caught in moving machinery. T
2) Spontaneous combustion is unlikely to occur in engine room spaces. F
3) Use your ear defenders to protect your ears against noise.T
438.- Who is responsible for your personal safety in the Engine Room?
I) am responsible for my own safety. (Others may also rely on you.)
439.- What must be done when machinery is not to be used?
2) In all cases, warning notices must be posted at or near the controls
440.- Normally, welding should only be undertaken when;
I) A fire watch is standing by
441.- Are the following statements True or False?
I) Chemicals should always be handled with the utmost care.T
2) Manufacturers' advice on the correct use of chemicals should always be followed. T
3) Domestic chemical cleaning agents are harmless. F
4) Chemicals should not be mixed unless it is known that dangerous chemical reactions Will not be caused.T
442.- The use of gloves. Match each type of glove with the uses suggested.
Rubber, synthetic or A/C g I oves best for handling acids, alkalis, solvents.
Leather gloves best for handling Sharp objects.
Heat resistant gloves best for handling hot objects
443.- The decision and the suitability of any person to undertake electric arc welding should be taken by:
3) The senior oficer in charge
444.- No alarm system situated in the engine room should be isolated without the permission of the:
3) Chief Engineer
445.- When alone in the engine room you must follow:
4) The notification procedure
446.- Mark the most important requirement. When going to the cold store, you should:
3) Tell someone that you are going
447.- Some domestic cleaning substances contain bleach or caustic soda whilst some disinfectants contain
carbolic acid. Which statement below does not belong?
3) They should be mixed together for Special cleaning requirements.
448.- Are the following statements True or False when you consider your presence or work in the galley?
I) Large proportion of injuries to catering staff arise from slips and falls. T
2) The galley is the safest place to be working in on board ship. F
3) Broken glass or crockery should be picked up by hand as soon as possible. F
4) Galley staff need not take part in the ship's safety committee discussions. F
449.- What is the main reason that crockery and glassware should not be left submerged in washing up water?
4) It may easily be broken and cause injury.
450.- The growth of food poisoning bacteria can be minimised by good temperature control. Which statement
does NOT belong?
3) Keep the food Iukewarm
451.- In case of a galley fire:
3) Use a fire blanket or the right type of extinguisher for the fire and raise the alarm
452.- How should knives and boards be used?
I) They should be colour coded and kept for specific food to prevent contamination.
453.- Complete the following sentences:
Catering staff should wear protective clothing when handling food and preparing meals
Anyone With a septic cut, should stop working with food until it is completely healed.
There should be no smoking in galleys, pantries,store rooms or Other places where food is prepared.
Hand sand fingernails should be washed before handling food
It is important to wash hands after using the toilet
454.- Mechanical slicers. Complete the following sentences:
Check Mechanical slicers before you use them.
Mechanical slicers are safe When used correctly.
Never use your fingers to feed the food to the blade.
Never let yourself be distracted when using a mechanical cutter.
455.- Why is it necessary to wear proper footwear in the galley?
4) To avoid broken toes and scalds from spills.
456.- What should you do with food that is beyond the expiry date?
2) Throw it out
457.- Before you touch any food, you should first of all:
3) Make sure that your hands are really clean.
458.- A safe procedure for cleaning machines in the galley should be established. For example, guards on
slicing machines:
3) When removed for cleaning, should be securely replaced immediately the job is done.
459.-What action should you take after making a spill?
2) Clear it up right away
460.- Galleys and pantries present particular fire risks. Care should be taken in particular.
4) To avoid overheating or spilling fat or oil.
461.- Are the following statements True or False?
I) The health of people on board depends on the galley staff doing their job properly. T
2) Because you carry out a task every day, there is no risk of injury in the galley. F
3) Temperature control is important in the preparation of microwave packs. T
4) You may leave the galley when food is cooking for a prolonged period of time.F
462.- Indiscriminate use of water in hosing down and washing equipment in the galley can be very dangerous
particularly around electric installations.
Dry cloths or holders and oven gloves should always be used to handle hot pans and dishes
No one should be directly in front of an oven when the door is opened.
Catering staff should not at tempt to repair electric or o il fired ranges or microwave ovenS.
Range guard rails should always be used in rough
463.- What precautions, if any, should be taken when water is used to hose down and wash the galley?
2) Indiscriminate use of water in the galley is dangerous. Power to electrical installations should be isolated.
463.- Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with your mouse.
Use protective clothing to protect yourself against cuts, abrasions, heat and chemicals.
Clear up spills to avoid slips and falls.
Remove sources of potential fire danger by good housekeeping.
Wear your hard hat to avoid injury from knocks or falling objects.
464.- The statements about personal protective equipment True or False?
I) Use your ear defenders to protect your ears against noise.T
2) Masks should be used whenever you work near dusty cargoes. T
3) While working on deck no Special foot wear is required. F
465.- Who is responsible for your personal safety on board?
I) am responsible for my own safety. (Others mayalso rely onyou.)
466.- Are the statements about possible hazards on bulk carriers True or False?
I) Opening access hatches could result in the release of flammable vapours. T
2) Any work with a naked flame or with weIding equipment requires the issuing of a Permit to Work .T
3) Opening and closing the hatch covers is not likely to create any hazards. F
467.- Gas leaks should be investigated by:
2) authorised crew members wearing appropriate PPE.
468.- If you work alone you should:
I) let someone know where you are going.
469.- Are the statements about safety procedures True or False?
I) everyone should know the location of hazardous cargo and procedures for dealing with it. T
2) You should never smoke in cargo spaces under any circumstances. T
3) When handling refrigerants such as CFCs,you shouId follow the safety regulations.T
470.- Are the statements about safety procedures True or False?
I) You should consult the IMDG Code for recommended procedures about hazardous cargo.T
2) 3efore connecting a temperature controlled container to power, you should always ensure that the power
switch is on. F
3) You should treat all cargo spills as hazardous until you know otherwise.T
471.- If you must be on deck in heavy weather, you should
I) wear a safety line.
472.- When checking the tops of containers for loose items, you should:
4) use a portable ladder and someone to hold it.
473. I) There is a constant risk of being struck by containers being handled either on board ship or on the d
ockside. T
2) On the can use any route to your ship. F
3) Only the cargo handlers are responsible for keeping access routes Clear of obstructions. –F
474.- It is best to work:
3) in pairs.
475.- If there is a container fire with hazardous cargo, it should be dealt with by:
I) all available means and following the advice given in the IMDG Code.
521.- How often should freefall lifeboats normally be launched, as a minimum?
Correct answer: At least once every Six months.
522.- Muster lists can be found in the engine control room, bridge and accommodation spaces such as the
mess room.
Correct answer: True
On passenger ships, Muster Cards Will include information on how to put on their lifejacket.
Correct answer: True
Only certain of lifejacket have to be fitted with a light and a whistle.
Correct answer: False
523.- New crew members must be given a safety familiarization tour.
Correct answer: within 24 hours of joining the ship.
524.- Which of those listed is NOT a duty for Crew members, as specified on the muster list?
Correct answer: Sounding the general emergency alarm signal.
525.- Which of the statements about lifebuoys is NOT true?
Correct answer: Lifebuoys must be permanently secured on each side of the ship.
526.- What is the most detailed source of information available on the ship about emergency procedures,
survival and rescue techniques?
Correct answer: The ship's SOLAS training manual.
527.- What is the SOLAS Convention?
Correct answer: The "International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea".
528.- What action should be taken after a drill has been conducted on board?
Correct answer: Itis essential to hold a debrief at the end of a drill.
529.- What is it essential to do before holding a lifeboat drill?
Correct answer: Check the lifeboats and their release gear thoroughly.
530.- What is a FPD?
Correct answer: Fall Preventer Device.
531.- The general emergency alarm signal is:
Correct answer: 7 or more short blasts followed by one long blast sounded on the ship's whistle, siren, bell or
klaxon.
532.- How often should rescue boat drills be held, as a minimum?
Correct answer: Once every three months.
533.- What is the muster list?
Correct answer: A list that provides Clear instructions for every person on board to follow in the event of an
emergency.
534.- Which of the pieces of equipment listed Will you NOT need to take with you when you board the life
boat?
Correct answer: Pyrotechnics.
535.- What are the gripes?
Correct answer: They secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed.
537.- When launching a fully enclosed lifeboat, the FPDs should be removed:
Correct answer: just before the boat reaches the water.
538.- Why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboat extremely carefully?
Correct answer: because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle.
539.- Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanisms. Which of the actions listed to
avoid this happening does NOT belong on the list?
Correct answer: Make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease all moving parts.
540.- All on-load release systems must have built in safeguards against early release.
Correct answer: true
When the boat is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released.
Correct answer: true
A freefall lifeboat should be abandoned if the engine does not start.
Correct answer: false
541.- What is a SART?
Correct answer: A survival craft radar transponder.
542.- If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long Will the constant flow of air last?
Correct answer: A minimum of 10 minutes
544.- A fully enclosed lifeboat's descent can be stopped at any time by:
Correct answer: releasing the tension on the brake control cable.
545.- At What point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a fully enclosed life
boat?
Correct answer: Once everyone is inside.
546.- Once the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation deck and securely bowsed,
what is the next Step in the launching procedure?
Correct answer: The person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare to board the evacuees.
547.- When getting Clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended procedure?
Correct answer: Make sure the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship.
548.- The shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:
Correct answer: a combination of rigid covers and folding canopies
549.- Which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?
Correct answer: Freefall lifeboats.
550.- Once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the bowsing lines be used for?
Correct answer: To pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding.
551.- As evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew members sitting at the entrance should:
Correct answer: direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on.
552.- When may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
Correct answer: When the master or their deputy gives the order.
553.- Why is it important to keep the bowsing lines within the raft?
Correct answer: So that they Will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while it is being lowered
554.- The priority after launching the liferaft is to get Clear of the ship using any means possible.
Correct answer: true
Marine Evacuation Systems have the disadvantage that evacuees may have to enter the water before getting
into the liferaft.
Correct answer: false
Once a throw overboard liferaft is in the water, you should rig the embarkation ladder.
Correct answer: false
555.- SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within
Correct answer: 30 minutes.
556.- What is the first action in launching a davit-launched liferaft?
Correct answer: Remove the ship's side rails.
557.- How many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
Correct answer:1
558.- What is the first action when boarding a throw overboard liferaft?
Correct answer: Check the liferaft for leaks and damage.
559.- When launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft shackle out of the canister, what
should you do next?
Correct answer: Hook it on to the davit.
560.- What should you do f water enters the life raft?
Correct answer: Bail it out as soon as possible, using the baler and/or sponge.
561.- Which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release?
Correct answer: All liferafts except the ones stored forward.
562.- How are thrown overboard liferafts inflated?
Correct answer: By giving a strong pull on the painter at its full extent.
563.- Where can you find out detailed information about liferaft equipment and operation?
Correct answer: From the SOLAS training manual.
564.- There are four main dangers faced by evacuees in a survival craft. Which item does not belong in this
list?
Correct answer: Inability to sleep
565.- Immersion suits should be put on and zipped up before entering an enclosed lifeboat.
Correct answer: False
567.- How long can a well-nourished person normally survive without water?
Correct answer: 3-4 days
568.- How much water should be given per day after the first 24 hours?
Correct answer: 0.5 liters
569.- Look-out watches should be kept:
Correct answer: 24 hours a day.
570.- Which piece of equipment transmits a distress signal with your vessel's unique serial number?
Correct answer: EPIRB
571.- Which piece of equipment communicates with nearby vessels' radar?
Correct answer: SART
572.- Which piece of signalling equipment is used for long range signalling?
Correct answer: Parachute flare
573.- What is the heliograph used for?
Correct answer: As a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun
574.- If you have had to enter the water, what is the best course of action?
Correct answer: Find an object to climb on to.
575.- Which piece of signalling equipment Will help helicopter pilots judge the surface wind Speed and
direction?
Correct answer: Smoke float
576.- What's the normal method of winching a single uninjured person into a helicopter from a ship?
Correct answer: A rescue hook or strop
577.- What's the minimum number of crew required in the rescue boat?
Correct answer: 3 people
578.- When launching a rescue boat, what should the ship's Speed be?
Correct answer: No more than 5 knots
579.- What is the function of the inside watchman on board an inflated raft?
Correct answer: To check on injured personnel and on the state of the survival craft
580.- Shock is a state of collapse that may occur after any serious injury. How should victims be treated?
Correct answer: They should be kept warm, laid fiat and, if conscious, given frequent sips of water — except
for those with stomach injuries.
On bulk carriers, the following type of lifeboat is likely to be presnt:
Open lifeboat
Partially
Free fall life boat
Sailing lifeboat
The hydrostatic release unit shall be permanently marked on its exterior with its type and serial
number .
True
False
In the case of lifeboat to be launched by falls, the boat hooks shall be kept free for fending-off
purposes.
True
False
When using a life-line, the signal : 3 tugs by the wearer menas:
I am alrigth
Pull me out
I need more stack
Pick up the slack
The boarding ramp on a life raft shall be fitted at the entrance opposite the browsing lines and the embarkation
facilities.
True
False
421.- When a casualty has a fractured base of skull they may have:
Correct asnwer: blood stained fluid leakingfrom the ears or nose.
422.- A complicated fracture is one where there is:
Correct answer: damage to underlying tissue.
423.- In a concussed casualty you Will find:
Correct answer: both of the pupils react to light.
424.- In Compression, the casualty Will have:
Correct answer: noisy breathing with strong and Slow pulse.
425.- A casualty has a chemical splash in the eye. You should
Correct answer: wash the eye out with the casualty Iying dovvn.
426.- A casualty has a Wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it out?
Correct answer: At least I O minutes
427.- A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound. What action would you take?
Correct answer: Place a dampdressing lightly over the vvound
428.- If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg the rescuer should:
Correct answer: not release them if trapped for longer than 1 5 minutes.
429.- An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice you should
Correct answer: vvrap the finger in plasticand then padding.
430.- A casualty with chest pain should be:
Correct answer: positioned sitting up and supported
431.- If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their.
blood sugar is too lovv.
432.- A casualty having an asthma attack Will have:
pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse
433.- A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid. You should:
give them sips of water to drinz
434.- Which ofthe symptoms listed could indicate a spinal injury?
Any of the above
435.- In hypothermia the casualty Will be:
pale, vvitha Slow pulse
436.- On rescue, a hypothermic casualty is unconscious. You should:
vvrap them in blankets.
437.- A casualty with heat stroke is:
red withastrong pulse.
438.- What is the maximum recommended daily alcohol consumption for a man?
3-4 units
439.- Are the statements about skin cancer True or False?
I) People vvith dark coloured skinsdo not need to worry about..000000000000ing skin cancer.
false
2) It'sa good idea to wear sun screenand avoid the midday sun where possible.
true
3) A change ina mole onyour skin, particularly if itgets bigger, bleeds or changes colour should be checked by
a doctor.
True
440.- Are the statements about care ofteeth and gums True or False?
I) Keeping pur gums healthy isas importantas looking after your teeth themselves.
true
2) Smoking can make gumdisease worse and your teeth Will usually became stained from the cigarette
smoke.
true
3) Your brushing should try to remove the layer of which contains bacteria from vvhere it collectsat the base of
teeth.
True
441.- Which type of Hepatitis is often sexually transmitted?
2) Yes.
442.- Maize, bananas and bread consist mostly of:
carbohydrate.
445.- On average, how many calories a day do men that are fairly active require to maintain their weight?
3000
446.- Are the statements about alcohol consumption True or False?
I) Men can normally consume more alcohol than women vvithout ill effects
. True
2) Overweight people candrink more thana thin person vvithout ill effects.
False.
3) Regularly drinking too much increases the risk of various ty*s of long term illnesses.
True
4) Drinking heavily in the evening could leave you witha high level of alcohol inyour bloodstream the next
mormng.
True
447.- What percentage ofyour desirable maximum pulse rate should you aim to reach in order to improve your
level offitness without putting undue strain on your heart?
4) Yes.
448.- Halfa pint of beer or lager would usually be equivalent to:
I unit.
449.- Are the statements about diet True or False?
I) Saturated fats can increase the amount of cholesterol in the bloodstream.
true
2) Youshould try to eat at least three portions of different vegetables and fruit every day
. false
3) Youshould try to eat only very Small amounts of foods containing fatand/or sugar.
Youdid notanswer a ny of the options on this part of the test
True
450.- Which ofthe diseases listed is not sexually transmitted?
Pneumonia
451.- To which food group do eggs, fish and nuts belong?
Proteins
452.- Exercise is important for maintaining health. What is the minimum amount recommended to achieve
some benefit?
30 minutes 3 times a
453.- The symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases:sw
may include all the above.
454.- In Search ofGood Health (Promoting Healthy Living On Board Ship) Test
Smoking can:
cause all the above.
455.- It'sa mandatory requirement for non crevv members boarding a vessel to know to do inan emergency.
Correctansvvers= I) True.
456.- The standard signal for a general/abandon ship alarm is:
7 short, I long blast on the ship'swhistZsiren, bell or klaxon
457.- If you need to go through a Powered watertight door, What should you do?
The door must be operated by a trained and com*tent person.
459.- Who needs to give you clearance to board a ship?
The company/agent and rulaster
460.- As you board the gangway from the quayside, What should you do with your hands?
Keep them on the ropes on either side of the gangway.
461.- It'syour duty to board the ship, vvhether or notyou are satisfied vvith the boarding arrangementS. Youdid
notanswer a ny of the options on this part of the test
False.
462.- If you want to enter a space which might have an oxygen deficient or toxic atmosphers What should you
do?
You should not go in
463.- Who should you inform when you leave the ship?
The Master or Chief Oficer
464.- To climba pilot ladder safely,you should keep your from the ladder by leaning bacz
False
465.- When going on board a shipyoushould take vvithyou a hard hat withadjustable chinstrap.
True
466.- Safety spectacles can be used to protectyour eyes againstany onboard hazard.
False.
467.- What should you take with you to signal an emergency ifyou should find yourself in trouble in a dark
space on the ship?
A whistle or blinking light
468.- Inan emergency on board ship,youshould not use an elevator.
True
469.- What's the first thing that happens when you reach the top ofthe gangway or ladder?
You sign in vvith the gangway watch.
470.- Flip-fiopsare recommended for use while on board in hot climates.
False
471. What kind of portable lighting Will you need if you're going onboard a tanker or chemical carrier?
An intrinsicallysafe torch
472.- If you notice something on board that's suchasan unguarded opening, or oil spilled ona walkway,you
should report it to a ship's oficer as soonas possible.
True
473.- How can you find out your nearest exit?
Consult the ship's onboard safety plan or aska member of the ship's crevv.
474.- How Will you know when to board the accommodation ladder or gangway?
You'll be instructed to board by the gangway watch.
475.- What is a "hot work" permit?
A permit issued to ensure correct proceduresare followed when hotwork is being carried out.
476.- What is the "ABANDON SHIP" signal?
A command given only by the Master or his deputy.
477.- Ifyou have to abandon ship What type of clothing is best?
Put on extra clothing, preferably witha waterproof layer on top.
478.- Are the statements about medical emergencies True or False?
I) If there is an accident the first priority is to move the victim somevvhere warm.
False
2) aren minor accidentsshould be reported
True
3) Back injuries can easily result from using incorrect lifting techniques
True.
479.- What type of extinguisher is most suitable for dealing with fires involving carbonaceous materials?
Water
480.- Drag the correct descriptions into place to match the symbols.
I) Liferaft.2) Primary route.3) Hose box vvith nozzIe.4) Lifejacket. 5) International shore connection
481.- Where on board would you look for the muster list?
Muster lists must be put up in prominent places throughout the ship, including the engine roomand crevv
accommodati on spaces.
483.- If the accommodation is filling with smoke and fumes, you should:
get out of the space withoutdelay; if necessary by crawling on handsand knees.
484.- What is the muster list?
A list thatspecifies details of the ship'salarms, the ocation of the muster stations, and actions to be taken by the
crevv in an emergency.
485.- What would be your most important reaction on discovering a fire?
Reportit by raising the alarm
486.- Why should a Q02 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?
Itwill displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygenavailable.
487.- Complete the sentences about fire extinguishers by dragging the correct ending onto each one.
Use foam extinguishers on liquid fires.
Use water extinguishers on fires involving carbonaceous materials.
Never use water extinguishers on fires involving electricity.
use C02 or dry povvder extinguishers on liquids or electrical fires.
488.- Are the statements about fire prevention True or False?
I) It's notyour job to prevent visitorssmoking in unauthorised places.
false
2) Youshould never smoke while Iying inyour bunz
true
3) Faulty electrical equipmentshould be taken out of service immediately.
true
489.- Are these statements about hazardous situations True or False?
I) Chemicals can enter the body through the respiratory system.
True
2) Prolonged immersion in hot water can cause dermatitis.
True.
3) Man-made cl Othing protects against static electricity which might cause a fire.
False.
490.- Are these statements about PPE True or False?
I) PPE is your first line of defence against accidents.
False
2) If you're notsure vvhether you're using the right kind of PPE,youshouId stop vvhatyou're doing and check
vvith pur immediate chief or safety officer.
True
491.- Clothing coated with or made from neoprene, rubber etc. is for protection against:
strong solvents, oilsand grease.
492.- Safety harnesses must be worn when there is a danger offalling
2 metres or more.
493.- Are these statements about head protection True or False?
I) Sunlight causes deterioration to the Shell of the helmet.
True.
2) The bump cap is the of head PPE that provides the most protection.
False.
494.- Are these statements about eye protection True or False?
I) Eyes need to be protected from gases.
True
2) Safety spectacles, goggles, filtersand faceshields all provide the same level of protection.
False.
495.- Are these statements about foot protection True or False?
I) Wellington boots protectagainst one of the most commonaccidents of and falls.
False.
2) 300ts protectagainst one of the most common problems: knocksand cuts to the ankles.
True.
496.- Is this statement about fall arrest equipment True or False?
I) You should test fall arrest equipment before use by pulling hard.
True.
497.-Clothing made of bonded olefin is for protection against:
fibresand dust
498.- If your protective gloves come into contact with chemicals, you should:
wash them immediately.
499.- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about noise induced hearing loss.
Most noise problems are a bout prolonged exposure to only moderately high
levels. When you're working in an uncomfortable environment, though, which isn't subject to constant noisg
irs tempting to forgetabout protection, but it's alvvays important.
500.- Are these statements about respiratory protection True or False?
I) Face maskswill help inan oygen deficient environment.
False
2) Most respiratory filtersare like sponges in that they can only absorbso much.
True.
501.- Is this statement about hand and arm protection True or False?
I) You can check the condition of rubber, plasticand latexgloves by blowing into them to see if they inflate and
remain infiated
True.
502.- All seafarers must receive familiarization and basic safety training and instruction in respect of PPE
under.
the STCW/ convention.
503.- Is this statement about noise induced hearing loss True or False?
I) Noise induced hearing loss occurs suddenly.
False.
504.- What is the minimum height for toeboard rise on an independent tied scaffold?
150 mm
505.- A ledger on an independent tied scaffold is:
a pole used to keep the standards in each lift equidistant and strengthened
506.- Are the statements listed about inspections True or False?
I) Any inspection needs to be done by a supervisor.
True.
2) These inspectionsare done to keep the ship's records up to date.
False
3) A bad storm may mean thatanother inspection is required.
True.
4) The main focus of the inspectionshould be the condition of the poles.
False
507.- Are the statements listed about inspections True or False?
I) Any inspection needs to be done by a supervisor.
True.
2) These inspectionsare done to keep the ship's records up to date.
False.
3) A bad storm may mean thatanother inspection is required.
True.
4) The main focus of the inspectionshould be the condition of the poles.
False.
508.- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the storage and use of
scaffolding equipment.
Tubesshould be stored... horizontally.
Steel and... aluminium componentsshould not be mixed vvhenstored.
MDF isseverely weakened when itgets... wet.
It's importantto ensure thatanything metal is nota.. corroded.
509.- What is the recommended maximum height for a free standing mobile tower?
9.6 metres
510.- Which ofthese items of personal protective equipment (PPE) is NOT usually required when working at
height?
Ear protectors
511.- Use your mouse to complete the following sentences correctly.
Scaffoldsshould only be erected on a sound base.
Usually,scaffolds Will be rigidly connected to a
Partly builtscaffoldsshould have notices attached at every point of access.
no answer
All platforms must have edge protection and guardrails, to prevent materialsfalling.
Platform boards should be securely fixed so that they don't form a risk to anyone underneath them.
512.- What is the usual rule governing the slope for a ladder when in use?
About I out for every4 up.
513.- Which ofthe faults listed might cause you to reject a ladder as unsafe?
All ofthe above.
514.- Are these statements about risk assessment True or False?
I) Before anyone can workat height, there needs to be a riskassessment.
True
2) Control ling access isa means of helping to provide protection for everyone.
True.
3) The use of individual protective equipmentdoesn't need to be considered until after the scaffold has been
erected
False.
4) The risk assessment process is complete once erection of the scaffold startS.
False.
515.- Of the questions listed, which does NOT need to be considered before the erection or use ofany access
equipment?
How much do the people who Will be using it?
516.- What is the purpose ofa tie on an independent tied scaffold?
To restrict any invvard and outward movement of the scaffold.
517.- What is the minimum width specified by the regulations for a platform on an independent tied scaffold?
600mm
518.- Are these statements about working from scaffolds and scaffold towers True or False?
I) Slight overloading of the structure is permitted if it is for a short time.
False
2) Use of a scaffold tower is notdependent on vveather conditions.
False
3) Youshould never use a ladder on top of a scaffold tower to gain extra height.
True
4) Youshould only use scaffold towers that have been built by people.
True
5) Any workatall ona scaffold must be covered by a Permit To WorZ
True
421.- When a casualty has a fractured base of skull they may have:
Correct asnwer: blood stained fluid leakingfrom the ears or nose.
422.- A complicated fracture is one where there is:
Correct answer: damage to underlying tissue.
423.- In a concussed casualty you Will find:
Correct answer: both of the pupils react to light.
424.- In Compression, the casualty Will have:
Correct answer: noisy breathing with strong and Slow pulse.
425.- A casualty has a chemical splash in the eye. You should
Correct answer: wash the eye out with the casualty Iying dovvn.
426.- A casualty has a Wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it out?
Correct answer: At least I O minutes
427.- A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound. What action would you take?
Correct answer: Place a dampdressing lightly over the vvound
428.- If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg the rescuer should:
Correct answer: not release them if trapped for longer than 1 5 minutes.
429.- An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice you should
Correct answer: vvrap the finger in plasticand then padding.
430.- A casualty with chest pain should be:
Correct answer: positioned sitting up and supported
- Personal Survival Series Part 2 - Lifeboats (Edition 2)
INTRODUCTION
However well designed and built a ship is, however carefully maintained the equipment is, and however
thoroughly prepared the crew are, emergencies will always happen, Although your best course of action in an
emergency is to stay on ship if you can, it is possible that a serious fire or explosion, a collision, a grounding or
a leak could force you into the survival craft.
And on that day, your life — and other people's — Will depend on your behaviour, skills and qualities, and
those of your fellow seafarers.




Correct procedures for mustering and leaving the ship must be followed
You Will have to be completely familiar with your ship's survival craft and how they should be launched
and boarded, and with the signalling equipment and pyrotechnics
Leadership qualities WII be required, to enable an orderly and efficient evacuation
You must have the ability to stay calm and positive
Warning: If an evacuation should be necessary, do not jump into the Sea except as a last resort, as the
chances of surviving in cold water are very small.
Personal survival, SOLAS and the LSA Code
In the 19th century, all you could do in the event of an emergency at sea was rely on your lifejacket and the
wooden lifeboats, and hope that another ship soon spotted you.
A number of regulations existed, but it was the loss of the White Star liner Titanic that gave the greatest
impetus to the development of international rules governing safety of life at sea. After the 1912 disaster in
which 1,503 people lost their lives, the United Kingdom called maritime nations to a conference to draft a new
International convention for the safety Of Life at sea - the 1914 SOLAS convention.
The SOLAS Convention laid down rules that for the first time were internationally applicable, and although the
treaty has gone through many revisions since then, many of the basic requirernents still stand, including:
• The "fundamental principle" that there should be enough space in the lifeboats for everyone on board
• Lifejackets to be carried for every person on board requirements for embarkation and stowage of lifeboats
and liferafts
• Emergency lighting
• Special duties in an emergency to be allocated to each member of the crew


regular musters of the crews, followed by boat and fire drills
SOLAS is still the most important international on maritime safety. Its Chapter Ill ‘Life-saving appliances and
arrangements' relates closely to personal survival. As it sets out for lifeboats, rescue boats and lifejackets
according to type of ship.
The International Life-saving Appliance (I-SAI Code gives specific technical requirements for life-saving
appliances and is mandatory under SOLAS Regulation 111/34.
A lifeboat can be a life saver if it becomes necessary to abandon ship. But it requires good seamanship skills
to board and launch a lifeboat successfully, often at a considerable height from the sea, especially in severe
weather conditions and at night, and as quickly as possible before the ship sinks.
These skills can only be gained by acquiring knowledge about the techniques and procedures required for
specific types of survival craft, and, most importantly, from hands-on experience acquired through doing
regular drills and, if possible, getting involved in the maintenance of the equipment.
2.1 Types of lifeboat
The types of lifeboat most commonly found on ships are:


davit-launched lifeboats, which are lowered to the waterline and secured to the davits with gripes
when stowed. This type of survival craft may be fully enclosed, partially enclosed, or — increasingly
rarely — open lifeboats.
freefall lifeboats, which are launched from a ramp, without any restraining apparatus, The occupants
are secured by a harness and sit on shock absorbent seats. This type of lifeboat is capable of floating
free if the parent ship should sink.
Familiarise yourself with which type(s) of lifeboat you have on board, and their davit arrangements and type of
release hook mechanisms, by looking at the ship's SOLAS training manual (which can normally be found on
the bridge, in the engine control room and in accommodation areas such as the mess room and/or recreation
room).
Instructions for how to launch the lifeboats will be posted at muster and boarding points.
TRAINER QUESTIONS
What type(s) of lifeboat does the ship have?
Have you consulted the SOLAS training manual to find out how they operate?
2.2 Before you board the lifeboat
Which lifeboat?
Find out which lifeboat you have been assigned to by consulting the Muster List, and/or your Personal Muster
Card. You should also be familiar with your lifeboat from the regular abandon ship drills.
When to board?
No-one should board a lifeboat until the appropriate signal, as indicated on the Muster List, has been received.
(Normally the order to abandon ship is given verbally by the Master or their deputy.)
What if your lifeboat is inaccessible?
If there should be a fire on one side of the ship, or another factor that prevents you from launching your allotted
lifeboat: go to the other side of the ship. Each side's lifeboats WIII be able to cater for the whole crew.
What to check?
Before boarding, check whether the hooks are of the on-load type. If so, are FPDs (Fall Preventer Devices) in
place? If they are not the boat may not be confirmed safe to enter.
What to bring?
Depending on your duties in an emergency, you may have to collect and bring with you the supplies and
equipment that will be needed for the time you will be spending in the lifeboat: radio, extra food and water,
extra cloth 'ng, SART (if it is not already in the lifeboat), and EPIRB.
Remember that nobody is allowed to carry luggage on to a lifeboat. Everyone should be wearing a lifejacket,
but you may have to take it off if there is not enough room to fit everyone in the lifeboat, Immersion suits should
be carried, rather than worn, unless you will be boarding an open lifeboat.

If you work on a ferry or cruise ship, your duty may include assisting passengers to put on their
lifejackets.
Calming nervous passengers by explaining the boarding and launching procedure will help to evacuate the
ship quickly and safely.
TRAINER QUESTIONS


What are your duties in an emergency?
Where are the following emergency items located?
(a) SART
(b) EPIRB
(c) Drinking water and non-perishable food
(d) Flares
2.3 Launching procedure: Fully enclosed lifeboat
Preparing to launch
Once permission to board has been given by the bridge or by the lifeboat crew, the launching procedure can
begin.
1. Check that the water is free of obstacles and/or persons
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Check that the harbour pins, lifeboat gripes and brake lever locking pin have been removed.
Check that FPDs are in place (except in boats with locking devices at the hooks)
Disconnect the power plug from the ship.
Lower the embarkation ladder.
Insert the drain plugs.
Pass the painter out of the forward hatch and secure it, if not already rigged.
Direct the evacuees to their seats and instruct them to strap themselves firmly into their seats. Even
distribution of weight is important,
9. Once everyone is inside, secure the doors and hatches.
10. The person in charge starts the engine.
Lowering the lifeboat into the water
If the lifeboat has to be lowered from on board the ship using the brake release lever, the person who lowered
the boat should then climb down the embarkation ladder to board the lifeboat. This can be an extremely
hazardous operation so you should follow your company's safety procedures carefully.
Alternatively, you can lower the lifeboat from inside the boat. The person in charge pulls on the self-lowering
cable to start the descent and goes on pulling down until it cannot be pulled any further.
The speed of descent will be controlled by the brake control cable on the davit and it can be stopped at any
time by releasing the tension on the cable.
Care with the gripes
People can be injured and the boat damaged if the gripes are fouled during the lowering process, To reduce
the risk of this happening:


clear the auto release gripes manually beforehand
release the gripes and move them clear of the boat before the boat is moved
On-load and off-load release mechanisms
There are two methods of release on lifeboats and rescue boats:
1. 'off-load', which are fixed hook releases that only permit release when the falls are slack, i.e. ‘off load'
2. 'on-load,' when the lifeboat can be released with the load on the hooks.
Safeguards
All on-load release systems must have built in safeguards against early release, ensuring that both falls are
released at the same time There are different types of gear, and your SOLAS training manual will contain a
detailed description of the release mechanism fitted to the survival craft on your ship.
Familiarise yourself with how the release mechanism works
To minimise the risk of accidents, you should carefully read the manufacturer's handbook for:



the correct procedures and operation of the release mechanism, including the procedure for resetting it
after use'
the safety checks that should be carried out
how the rest of the launching equipment works
• Accidents have occurred because the lifeboats' release mechanisms were not properly reset when they were
last used, causing the system to release prematurely during a launch or recovery.
Fall Preventer Devices (FPDs)
The purpose of FPDs is to prevent accidents during launching and recovery that could result from failure with
the hook release system. Often, the devices are in the form of strops or slings. Wires or chains should not be
used as FPDs as they do not absorb shock loads,
It is extremely important that the ship's operating crew should be familiar with the release equipment fitted to
the lifeboat on their ship. Use of these should be as per the company/Master's instructions, and detailed
instructions on FPDs should be as per the company/Master's instructions, and detailed instructions on FPDs
should be available in the ship's SOLAS training manual and/or at the launching stations.
TRAINER QUESTIONS


What FPDs are our lifeboats equipped with?
How do they work?
Launching the fully enclosed lifeboat step by step
1. Halt the lifeboat descent just before it reaches the water and adjust the painter if required,
2. The person in charge should order the removal of the FPDs, just before the boat reaches the water. As
soon as this has been done, the crew member should report back to the person in charge.
3. Lower the boat into the water and release the falls immediately.
4. Put the engine in gear.
5. Turn the lifeboat's rudder away from the ship.
6. Once the boat is at a safe distance, the painter should be released, and the boat manoeuvred away.
2.4 Launching procedure: Partially enclosed lifeboats
Partially enclosed lifeboats have rigid covers over at least 20% of their length at both ends, forming two
shelters. There are folding canopies that two people can erect over the open parts.
The release gear on partially enclosed lifeboats is similar to the type on totally enclosed boats, but, as with all
lifeboats, there are many variations in the system. For example, if your vessel has an extending arm or sliding
beam davits, you will need to remove the sliphook of the gripes and the rest of the securing system before the
operation can begin.
TRAINER QUESTION

If you have a partially enclosed lifeboat, are you familiar with its release system?
1. The winch operator lowers the lifeboat to the embarkation deck where it is securely bowsed alongside.
2. The person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare to board the evacuees.
3. Boarding can begin.

To enable a smooth boarding operation for passengers, the lifeboat party will have opened the ship's
rails and positioned the steps before directing passengers to their seats.
4. The order to launch is given and the boat lowered to the waterline, either by a winch operator or from within
the boat.
5. Once in the water, the person in charge would release the boat from the falls and clear the vessel as in
Section 2.3 above.
• Is the area where the lifeboat will land free of obstacles?
10. If all the answers are affirmative, the release handle can be operated and the lifeboat launched.
TRAINER QUESTIONS


If your ship has freefall lifeboats, are you familiar with the type of safety harness seat belt?
How does it work?
2.6 What to do once the lifeboat is in the water
Getting clear
Getting clear of the stricken ship as fast as possible is now top priority. Judging the safe distance from the ship
is up to the person in charge and depends on prevailing conditions and the type of emergency. A minimum
distance would be a ship's length, but half a mile upwind would be safe in all conditions.
Evacuees must immediately take anti seasickness tablets, as vomiting leads to dehydration.
The person in charge now uses the onboard radio to contact the other survival craft and get them together.
Grouping the craft is important, as they will be more visible to potential rescuers. It also helps to reduce an
sense of isolation.
Activating the detection equipment
Once clear of the ship, the EPIRB (distress beacon) should be activated and secured to the survival craft, and
the SART (rescue transponder) should also be mounted.
This equipment has limited battery life and operation.
Remember: when using a SART, do not use a radar reflector at the same time.
If the lifeboat should roll over
Modern designs of totally enclosed Iifeboats are designed to be self righting in the event of capsizing, and the
occupants will be held secure by their harnesses/restraints.
Everyone should stay strapped into their seats, to minimise the risk of injury.
Extra protection
Some lifeboats have external cooling systems in case of fire, and internal air supplies.
External cooling systems
In a fire, the external cooling system will cover the surface of the boat in water, It must therefore only be
operated with the embarkation hatch closed, so that water cannot get into the lifeboat To activate it, the suction
valve must be opened to allow saltwater into the system.
With a sprinkler system, once the lifeboat is in the water, the spray pump is driven by the engine. However, it is
important to increase the RPM (revolutions per minute) before putting the engine in gear or it may stall
because of the added load of the pump.
The system should always be flushed with fresh water after use in a drill.
Internal air supply
Some lifeboats have an internal air supply which is operated by opening individual air bottles and the main air
manifold. Some lifeboats have an internal air supply which is operated by opening individual air manifold. The
system will supply a constant flow of air for a minimum of 10 minutes — enough to get the lifeboat's occupants
clear of burning oil or other noxious gases and smoke.
TRAINER QUESTIONS


Are the lifeboats on the ship equipped with external cooling systems and/or an internal air supply?
If so, are you familiar with how to use them?
2.7 The importance of leadership
It is the role of the person in charge to take command of the evacuees and their good leadership will be an
important factor in everyone's survival. Bear in mind that if you have passengers in the craft, they may need
extra reassurance — your calm and well rehearsed attitude towards the situation can be a great help.
Key points


Your ship is your best lifeboat — do not leave it unless absolutely necessary and never jump overboard
unless there is no alternative.
Knowing how to operate your ship's Iifeboat systems correctly could save your life and other people's,
so it is strongly recommended to spend time reading your vessel's Muster List and SOLAS Training
Manual.
There is no substitute for hands-on experience, which is why lifeboat drills are so invaluable.
Whatever happens, try to stay calm and focused — this will reassure other people, reduce the likelihood of
making mistakes, and increase the chances of survival for everybody on board.
3 APPENDICES
3.1 Glossary
Bowsing: The term 'bowsing' when used with regard to lifeboats and liferafts means to pull/haul the boat/raft in
to the ship's side with a tackle, to facilitate boarding.
Davit-launched lifeboat/liferaft: A survival craft that is lowered to the waterline while still attached to the davit
falls, the speed of descent being controlled by the davit winch brake.
EPIRB (Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon): This is a sophisticated battery-operated radio
beacon that transmits a signal with the vessel's unique serial number, and (if the device also has a GPS
receiver) the user's location: so that a rescue co-ordination centre can identify them and so that rescuers in
planes or vessels can find the EPIRB It can be activated manually, and will activate automatically when
immersed in water.
Fall Preventer Device (FPD): A means of preventing accidents during launching and recovery that could
result from failure with the hook release system. FPDs include strops, slings and hook-locking devices.
Free-Fall Lifeboat: A survival craft that drops to the waterline solely under the influence of gravity and is not
attached to the davit once it has been released,
Hanging off Pennant: A wire or strop that attaches the survival craft directly to the davit for use when
performing maintenance on the falls or release hook.
Harbour Pin: A pin that prevents the operation of the davit. Traditionally used to prevent accidental release
while alongside in port.
Hypothermia: This potentially fatal condition sets in when the body's core temperature drops below 350C,
GMDSS (Global Maritime Distress and Safety System): Advanced communication technology equipment
such as EPIRBs and SARTs. Under SOLAS, every cargo ship over 300 GT and every passenger ship
engaged on international voyages must have the means of providing essential GMDSS functions including
transmitting and receiving ship-to-shore distress alerts, transmitting signals for locating, and transmitting and
receiving ship-to-ship distress alerts.
Immersion suit: A protective suit which reduces the body heat loss of a person wearing it in cold water.
Lifeboat: A rigid boat used for abandoning ship in an emergency. These are normally enclosed or partially
enclosed, though open lifeboats may still be in use on older ships.
Liferaft: An inflatable survival craft with a canopy, often equipped with hydrostatic release.
MRCC: Maritime Rescue Co-ordination Centre.
MES: Marine Evacuation System. An appliance for the rapid transfer of persons from the embarkation deck of
a ship to a floating survival craft.
Personal Flotation Device: A personal flotation device is a device designed to assist a wearer, either
conscious or unconscious, disabled or exhausted, to keep afloat with their mouth and nose (airway) above the
water surface. Also referred to as PFD, lifejacket, life preserver, Mae West, life vest, life saver, cork jacket, life
belt, flotation suit.
Radar reflector: a device made of intersecting pieces of metal that reflect electromagnetic waves and so make
the boat more visible on radar.
Recovery Strop: A soft strop or strops that connect between the release hook and the survival craft to
separate the heavy hook arrangement from the seafarer when recovering the survival craft during heavy sea
conditions. Also referred to as 'Heavy Weather Strops'.
Release Hook: The hook that connects the survival craft to the davit.
Remote Lowering Wire: The control wire by which the winch brake of a davit launched lifeboat can be
operated from within the lifeboat.
SAR: search and Rescue
SART: Search and Rescue Radar Transponder. A device that enables vessels to pinpoint the SART within a
range of around 5-8 nm. It works by day or night and in all weathers, and is automatically activated into
transmit mode by the signal sweep of the radar of a passing vessel. The ship's radar screen will display a
straight line of dots, alerting it that there is a SART, presumably attached to a survival craft, within 100m of the
dot nearest the centre of the radar.
Senhouse slip: a quick release mechanism.
SOLAS: IMO International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea.
Survival Craft: A craft such as a lifeboat or liferaft that is capable of sustaining the lives of persons in distress
from the time of abandoning the ship.
TPA (Thermal Protective Aid): A bag or suit made of waterproof material designed to provide protection
against hypothermia, usually down to approximately -300C.
3.2 Further information
Regulations and publications
SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea) Convention, edition 2009. Chapter Ill is about life-saving appliances and
arrangements.
Life Saving Appliance (LSA) Code, edition 2009. The LSA Code provides international standards for the lifesaving appliances required by chapter Ill of the SOLAS Convention.
IAMSAR (International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue) Manual, jointly published by IMO
and the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). Ships are required by SOLAS chapter V, Safety of
Navigation, to carry an up-to-date copy of IAMSAR Volume Ill, Mobile Facilities. Its function is to help with
performance Of a search, rescue or on-Scene co-ordinator function, and with aspects of search and rescue
that relate to the vessel's own emergencies
MCA MGN 71 (M): Musters, drills, on-board training and instructions, and Decision Support Systems
MSC/Circ.1136, 15 December 2004, Guidance on Safety during Abandon Ship Drills using Lifeboats
MSC.1/Circ.1206/Rev.1 of 11 June 2009. Measures to Prevent Accidents with Lifeboats.
MSC.1/Circ.1327, 11 June 2009, Guidelines for the Fitting and Use of Fall Preventer Devices (FPDs)
MSC.1/Circ.1185, Guide for coId water survival
IMO Pocket Guide to Recovery Techniques
Survival Craft, a Seafarer's Guide, published by OCIMF
Marine Survival and Rescue Systems, 2nd Edition, David J House, published by Witherby
Naval Handbook for Survivors, published by The Nautical Institute
Extract from STCW Code requirements for training of personnel who assist passengers
STCW sets out training requirements for seafarers on seagoing ro-ro passenger ships and on passenger ships
other than ro-ros:



All personnel providing a direct service to passengers, including those working in shops, bars and
restaurants, are required to be able to communicate effectively between themselves and with
passengers during an emergency, and be able to demonstrate the correct donning of lifejackets.
All personnel designated on muster lists to assist passengers in an emergency are required to
complete crowd management training.
Masters, chief mates, chief engineer officers, second engineer officers and any person having
responsibility for the safety of passengers in emergency situations onboard passenger ships must
complete training in crisis management and human behaviour.
3.3 Case studies
1. MSC NAPOLI: A well-managed evacuation, but over-heating of crew in lifeboats
During the morning of 18 January 2007, when on passage in the English Channel, the 4419 TEIJ container
ship MSC Napoli encountered heavy seas, causing the ship to pitch heavily. The ship was making good a
speed of 1 1 knots and the height of the waves was up to 9m. At about 1 105, the vessel suffered a
catastrophic failure of her hull in way of her engine room. The quickly assessed the seriousness of the situation
and decided to abandon ship.
A distress message was sent via MF DSC at 1125 and the crew started to assemble on the bridge. A few
minutes later, the vessel lost all electrical power. However, lighting was soon restored when the ship's
emergency generator started automatically.
By now, the ship was stopped in the water, with her starboard side exposed to the wind and sea,
Consequently, the Master sent the bosun and three of the crew to prepare the port lifeboat for launch, (It was
evident during the investigation that the master had placed a great deal of emphasis on the importance of
safety drills and the maintenance of lifesaving equipment, and that the preparation and lowering of lifeboats
had been well-practised in accordance with company policy,) Others were sent to the provision locker to get
cases of bottled water.
After all crew had been accounted for, the Master sounded the emergency alarm of seven short, and one long
blast on the ship's whistle to indicate to the crew to make their way to the lifeboat station. He then called
Ushant Traffic on VHF radio to advise that he and his crew were abandoning into the lifeboat. The Master and
third officer were the last to enter the lifeboat, having collected the SART, EPIRB and a number of the ship's
documents. The lifeboat engine had been started and, following verbal confirmation from the chief officer that
all 26 crew members were on board, the
Master ordered the chief engineer to lower the lifeboat by hauling down on the
confirmation from the chief officer that all 26 crew members were on board, the
Master ordered the chief engineer to lower the lifeboat by hauling down on the
rerrnte lowering wire.
The lifeboat smoothly descended the 16 metres to the sea. Once waterborne, the
bosun released the fore and aft falls from inside the lifeboat, However, the crewman
sitting nearest the forward painter release could not pull the release pin sufficiently
far to allow the painter to disengage, He was squeezed between two other crew and
his rnovement was restricted by his immersion suit. The painter was eventually cut by
the chief engineer, who had a knife, and was able to reach the painter via the
lifeboat's forward hatch.
After clearing MSC Napoli, the lifeboat was manoeuvred to a position between 1 and
1 h miles away from the stricken vessel. The master then activated the EPIRB and
the SART.
The rnotion of the lifeboat was violent and the atrnosphere inside was very
unconfortable; all of the crew suffered from sea sickness Although the l'f±oat was
certified to accomrnodate up to 32 persons, the 26 crew wearing immersion suits and
lifejackets were very cramped. They were very warm and several felt faint and
dehydrated. The situation became more tolerable after the crew cut off the gloves
Vdeotel 2011
from their immersion suits with the chief engineer's knife. This allowed them to use
111
1115
their hands more effectivel
and the were able to donk from lastic drinkin water
from their immersion suits with the chief engineer's knife. This allowed them to use
their hands more effectively, and they were able to drink from plastic drinking water
bottles they had brought with thern
On receipt of the "Mayday', CROSS Corsen initiated the assistance of a SAR
helicopter and a tug. When the crew abandoned, Falmouth MRCC was also
requested to assist. Falmouth MRCC activated two SAR helicopters. The first
helicopter arrived at the scene at 1150. Initially, a highline could not be passed to the
lifeboat due to the severe weather conditions. However, at about 1230, a diver was
lowered from the helicopter into the sea and swam to the lifeboat A highline was
rigged and the helicopter crew recovered 13 survivors from the lifeboat. The second
helicopter took over the winching operation at 1325, and by 1409 the remaining 13
survivors had been recovered.
source: MAIB
2. MS ESTONIA — a catastrophic chain of events
The incident
The Estonian-flagged ro-ro passenger ferry ESTONIA departed from Tallinn on 27
September 1994 at 1915 hrs for a scheduled voyage to Stockholm. She carned 989
people, 803 of whom were passengers,
The ship left harbour with all four main engines running, Sea conditions along the
Estonian coast were moderate, but became more rough when the ship left the
sheltered waters. The rolling and pitching of the vessel increased gradually, and
some passengers becarne seasick,
During his scheduled round on the car deck the seaman of the watch heard shortly
before 0100 hrs a metallic bang from the bow area as the vessel hit a heavy wave.
Further observations of unusual noise, starting at about 0105 hrs, were made during
the following 10 minutes by many passengers and some crew rrEmbers who were off
duty in their cabins.
At about 0115 hrs the visor separated from the bow and tilted over the stem. The
At about 0115 hrs the visor separated from the bow and tilted over the stem. The
ramp was pulled fully open, allowing large amounts of water to enter the car deck.
Very rapidly the ship took on a heavy starboard list. Passengers started to rush up
the staircases and panic developed at many places. Many passengers were trapped
in their cabins and had no chance of getting out in tirne, Lifejackets were distributed
to those passengers who managed to reach the boat deck. They jumped or were
washed into the sea, Some managed to clirrb into liferafts which had been released
from the vessel. No lifeboats could be launched due to the heavy list.
At about 0120 the alarm was called over the public address system and soon after
this the general lifeboat alarm was given. Two Mayday calls from the ESTONIA were
received at 0122 and 0124 hrs.
The list to starboard increased and water started to enter the accommodation decks.
Flood' ng of the accommodation continued with considerable speed and the starboard
side of the ship was submerged at about 0130 hrs. During the final stage of flooding
the list was more than go degrees. The ship sank rapidly, stern first, and disappeared
from the radar screens of ships in the area at about 0150 hrs.
Witnesses reported various problems with the survival craft: lifeboats irnpossible to
release because the lashings were too rusty and the list was too heavy, inability to
open the liferaft containers, liferafts that inflated and were then blown from the deck
use t as Ings were too rusty an e 1st was too eavy, Ina lty to
open the liferaft containers, liferafts that inflated and were then blown from the deck
into the water, rafts that did not inflate sufficiently, rafts that turned over so that the
occupants fell into the water.
Rescue efforts were initiated by MRCC Turku. About one hour after the ESTONIA
had sunk, four passenger ferries in the vicinity arrived on the scene of the accident
Rescue helicopters were summoned and the first one arrived at 0305 hrs.
During the night and early morning, helicnpters and asSsting ships rescued 138
people, of whom one later died in hospital. During the day and on the two following
days 92 bodies were recovered, Most of the missing persons accompanied the
vessel to the seabed. 852 people died in total.
Conclusions:
2.
Evacu ation
The tirne available for evacuation v.•es very short, between 10 and 20 minutes,
and there was no organised evacuation.
The evacuation was hampered by the rapid increase in the list, by narrow
passages, by transverse staircases, by objects coming loose and by crowding.
About 300 people reached the outer decks. Most victirns remained trapped
inside the vessel.
The lifesaving equiprnent in many cases did not function as intended.
Lifeboats could not be lowered,
The rapid increase in the list contributed to the large loss of life.
The lifeboat alarm was not given until about five minutes after the list
developed, nor was any informat'on given to the passengers over the public
address systern By the time the alarm was given, the list made escaping from
inside the vessel very difficult This together with problems in using lifesaving
equipment contributed to the tragic outcorne.
Rescue operation
The lifesaving equiprnent of vessels participating in the rescue operation
proved unsuitable for rescuing people from the water in the prevailing heavy
esav.ng equprne
vesse pa c pa ng In
rescue ope on
proved unsuitable for rescuing people from the water in the prevailing heavy
weather conditions.
The alarming of helicopters was late.
The helicopters had a key part in the rescue operation by rescuing rmst of the
people who had succeeded in climbing onto liferafts or lifeboats
One rescue man per helicopter was not enough due to the very exhausting
rescue work.
The main reasons for the delay in issuing alarms in general were that the
distress traffic was conducted separately from MRCC Turku, and that there
was only one person on duty at MRCC Turku, at MRCC Helsinki and at
Helsinki Radio, respectively.
In the Finnish MRCCs the instructions regarding distress traffic were
inadequate.
Soume: Joint Accident Investigation Commission of Estonia, Finland and Sweden.
3. Lifeboat hoisting incident
A vessel was secured alongside, waiting to resurne unloading her cargo. At about
1515, the crew members carried out a rrnnthly abandon ship drill, which on this
occasion involved launching the starboard lifeboat and checking the engine.
occasion involved launching the starboard lifeboat and checking the engine.
The totally enclosed lifeboat accordingly was lowered to the boat deck and six crew
members went on board. The davit winch brake was released and the lifeboat
lowered into the water, The srnall safety pin was withdrawn from the housing of the
control lever at the steering statiorL Then the remote control lever was pulled to
disengage the stud from the groove in the housing. The lever was moved from the
vertical position to the horizontal to open the on-load release hooks; the davit falls
were disengaged and the crew members made a run in the harbour.
At about 1600, the lifeboat was manoeuvred alongside the starboard side of the
vessel off the davits. The long links of the falls were engaged in the on-load release
hooks, and the remote control lever was brought to the vertical position with some
difficulty The lifeboat was raised 30 to 40 cm above the water surface, but because
the forward hook did not lock, the lifeboat was again lowered into the water.
To make certain that the long link rernained engaged in the forward hook, tension
was maintained on the forward fall and the lever was again from the
horizontal position to the vertical. The hooks seemed to have locked and the lifeboat
was hoisted to the level of the boat deck. Two crew tæmbers disentarked_ While the
lifeboat was hanging approximately 8.3 rn above the water, the long link becarne
disengaged from the forward hook With the after hook still locked, the lifeboat tipped
forward. The transom and part of the structure holding the after hook separated from
the forward part of the lifeboat, and the boat fell to the water. The after hook
rernained hanging from the after fall, with the safety pin inserted in the hook.
Two of the four crew æmbers who were on board, and who were not wearing hard
hats, suffered head and other injuries. Another crew member broke his ribs, and the
fourth suffered neck and leg injuries.
Analysis
On the first attempt, the crew had difficulty moving the lever to the vertical position.
They thought that to arm the hydrostatic hook release mechanism, they only had to
move the lever to the vertical position and engage the stud in the groove of the
Analysis
On the first attempt, the crew had difficulty moving the lever to the vertical position.
They thought that to arm the hydrostatic hook release mechanism, they only had to
move the lever to the vertical position and engage the stud in the groove of the
housing. On the second attempt, the crew concentrated on properly engaging the
long links of the falls in the hooks. The interlock device was not examined. Thinking
they had cocked the interlock device because the lever was in the vertical position
and the hook was engaged, the crew hoisted the lifeboat The safety pin of the
forward hook had not been replaced before the drill. Thus, the hook was engaged
only by the interlock device The presence of corrosion in the cable housing and the
breaking of the metal cable hampered the cocking of the interlock device. Since the
hook was not damaged, evidence indicates that the forward hook must have
released from the interlock device. The force of gravity exerted by the hook on the
partially cocked interlock device caused it to tip down. The hook pivoted, and the long
link of the forward fall released from the hook.
Findings
1. The monthly inspection did not include checking the hydrostatic hook release
Mechanisrn
Insp on
n Incu c ec Ing e ros IC 00 re ease
mechanisrn
2. The interlock device was not completely cocked before the lifeboat was
hoisted back on board.
3. The forward hook released during the lifeboat hoisting manoeuvre, causing
the after hook to give way and resulting in the uncontrolled fall of the lifeboat.
4, The crew members who nere not wearing their hard hats suffered head
injuries.
The crew did not take all necessary actions to arm the hydrostatic hook release
mechanism before hoisting the lifeboat back on board. The monthly inspection did
not include checking the hydrostatic hook release mechanism. Thus, a safety pin was
not replaced before the rmnthly abandon ship drill.
Source: Transportation Safety Board of Canada
Editor's note: This report pre-dated the introduction of FPD advice from IMO (MSC
Circ, 1327), and if FPDs had been in use the accident would not have happened. In
this case both pins together would be deemed an FPD. One alone is not so
because the system is dependent on both falls.
4. Rescue boat accidents
1. A vessel was lifting the six-man glass reinforced plastic rescue boat aboard as
part of the routine training exercise, with two persons aboard, when one of the
eyes for the four leg lifting bridle pulled out of the hull of the boat which was
suspended approximately 0.5 rn above the water. The boat was quickly returned
to the water and to an upright postion afloat. Although shaken by the experience,
no staff were injured or fell out of the boat.
The bridle is designed so that two larger legs are attached fore and aft and take
rmst of the weight, with two smaller legs to stabilise port and starboard
A contributory cause to the failure, in addition to poor boat design: was found to
be that the lifting bridle was attached to the davit incorrectly. Consequently the
largernonger fore and aft legs being the outer pair munted on the master link, the
shorter port and starboard stabilising legs were outside the fore and aft legs
rger onger ore an a
ang
er pair rnoun on e mas er In
2.
shorter port and starboard stabilising legs were outside the fore and aft legs
rreking them shorter still and then taking extra strain for which they were not
designed, It is important that, when using multiple leg lifting bridle, it is attached
correctly.
A large cargo vessel vas at anchor. The opportunity was taken to carry out a drill
of the vessel's rescue boat. The boat is an open dory, made of glass reinforced
plastic For lifting, it has three eye-plates, one forward, and one each side at the
after end. Each eye-plate is bolted to the hull with four bolts. The heads of the
bolts are visible but not the shanks and nuts. The boat is lifted by a single arm
davit, with a three-part wire bridle, with one part to each of the eye plates.
The boat crew on board were wearing boiler suit, safety boots, helmet and a
lifejacket The boat was swung out with the four crew members on board. As
lowering commenced, the eye-plates on the port side aft suddenly detached from
the hull. The boat was left hanging starboard side up, Three of the boat's crew
plummeted into the sea, a distance of approximately 12 m. The officer in charge
of the boat was left hanging on. Having ascertained that the officer was able to
2011
TIVIDEOTEL
remain secure, the boat was lowered to the veter and the three crew members
were recovered, fortunately without long-term injury.
Source: CHIRP (UK Confidential Hazardous Incident Reporting Programme)
Maritime Feedback.
1-Are the statements about incineration True or False?
-Nothing else should be burned at the same time as plastics
-It is dangerous to try and incinerate aerosol cans
What size tankers are required to keep an oil record book?

over 150 gross tons
MARPOL annex V applies to

All ships
Which MARPOL Annex relates to the discharge of garbage?

V
5-Are the statements about incinerator operation TRUE or FALSE?
-incinerator overheating is commonly caused by overloading
-if the incinerator chamber is overloaded the contents will go on burning even though the burners have shut down
6-Information about the maximum weight and volume per charge recommended for your incinerator
can be found in:
the manufactures manual
8-Which of the items listed should NOT be put into lavatories on board?
All the above
9-Extended aeration sewage treatment plants make use of:
aerobic bacteria
10-What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before It is allowed to discharge untreated
sewage?
12 nautical miles
11-Are the statements about plant maintenance True or False?
it is important to check and maintain the level of tablets in the chlorinator
the integrity of the pipe work should be checked regularly
12-Why are domestic cleaners used on shore not suitable for cleaning toilet: on board?
they would kill the bacteria on which the plant depends
13-Very rarely, someone may have to go inside the plant for maintenance. If so.
a proper risk assessment should be undertaken first
14-What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed to discharge
comminuted and disinfected sewage?
3 nautical miles
15-which MARPOL Annex relates to the sewage system?
IV
16-which ls the final stage of treatment in an extended aeration plant?
chlorination
17-Why are anaerobic bacteria not dasirable in a sewage system?
they can produce toxic or flammable gases
18-MARPOL annex IV applies to ships below 400 gross tons if they are certified to carry more than:
15 people
What is the minimum gross tonnage for ships other than tankers that requires an ORB to be kept?

over 400 gross tons
20-ls the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or False?
Entries should always be made In Ink. TRUE
21-Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?
During any discharge of oily water overboard the ships speed must be noted and recorded TRUE
22-Bilge water with less than 15ppm oil can be discharged:
anywhere outside the Antarctic special area
23-What size tankers are required to keep an Oil Record Book?
Over 150 gross tons
24-ls the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or False?
Mistakes should be erased or blanked out with Tipex. FALSE
25-Which MARPOL annex relates to the carriage of oil cargoes?
I
26-Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or False?
There should be no blank lines in the record book TRUE
27-ls the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or False?
The tank descriptions must match those used in the IOPP form A TRUE
Which of the areas listed is NOT a special area for oil pollution as defined in Annex I?

The Caspian Sea
30-Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?
When sludge or other oily residues are discharged ashore, a receipt must be obtained
With reference to the oil record book, how long after the date of the last entry must the Oil Record Book be
retained on board?




1 years
2 years
3 years
4 years
32-Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?
Bunker transfer do not need to be included in the ORB.
33-What is the maximum permitted oil concentration when discharging oily water through the
Separator?
15 parts per million
34-Is the statement about chemical tanker operations True or FaIse?
Nitrogen is lighter than air and so may remain in the top of a tank even when reading elsewhere in the tank show a goo
oxygen level. FALSE
35-ls the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?
Mechanical ventilation of the space and regular monitoring of oxygen and gas levels must continue while personnel are
inside an enclosed space TRUE
36-lf you are asked to perform a task which you feel is dangerous, what should you do?
Consult your safety officer or other senior officer
37-ls the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?
Most deaths from fire are caused by asphyxiation and not from direct contact flames. TRUE
39-Are these statements about chemical hazards True or False?
Caustic soda is a corrosive chemical and can burn human tissue. TRUE
If you breathe carbon dioxide in an enclosed space, you will rapidly become unconscious. TRUE
Certain flammable cargoes may emit flammable gases when they come into contact with water. TRUE}
40-Are these statements about the pre-arrival meeting True or False?
The cargo emergency stopping arrangements should form part of the plan. TRUE
41-Static accumulators are:
Cargoes that can become electrostatically charged
42-Is the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?
While topping off completing cargo operations, the officer of the watch should monitor activity on deck via radio. FALSE
43-Are these statements about Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) True or False?
Most chemical suits protect against the vast majority of all the chemical risk TRUE
44-What is the maximum recommended initial pipeline velocity when loading static accumulator oil?
1.0 meters/sec.
45-Which of the items listed has the potential to develop electrostatic charges?
Grain dust
46-Charged synthetics or plastic can generate:
High voltages and small currents.
47-A charge can develop in a cargo tank:
When it is being washed
48-Are the statements about possible static electricity hazards True or False?
Helicopters may develop a very substantial static charge when in flight. TRUE
Injecting CO2 under pressure can create high levels of static electricity .TRUE
49-The relationship between current, I, and voltage, V, in a circuit is governed by the resistance, R. This is
known as Ohm‘s Law which is written as:
V=lR
50-Are the statements about stray currents True or False?
Properly sited radar scanners are unlikely to present a hazard TRUE
Stray currents can be generated by cathodic protection systems TRUE
When electric welding you should never use the hull as a return and only run put one cable TRUE
51-Synthetic ropes should not be used:
In cargo tanks
52-An atom that is positively or negatively charged is known as:
An ion
53-Which of the oils listed does NOT act as a static accumulator?
Crude oil
54-When using a portable tank washing machine, you can pravent sparks being generated by ensuring
It is:
Electrically connected to the hull
55-What is the minimum time that should elapse before dipping, ullaging or sampling after static
accumulator oils have been loaded without the ullage space being inerted?
30 minutes
56-An atom with an extra electron is:
Negatively charged
57-To prevent arcing, modern practice recommends that ships are:
Insulated from shore at the cargo connections
58-STS transfer operations can result in considerable freeboard differences between the two vessels. The steeper the
orientation of the mooring lines, the less effective they will be in resisting horizontal loads. Freeboard differences shoul
be kept to a minimum and consideration may be given to ballasting down the higher ship.
59-What is the typical air consumption per minute for a man wearing a BA set in an emergency situation performing hea
work?
50-60 liters
60-How long should a hand held lamp be tested for?
20 seconds
61-Who should check the torches and communications prior to entry?
The officer in charge
62-At what pressure should the warning whistle sound (on a 207 bar set)?
45-50 bar
63-Prior to donning the BA, the by-pass valve should be:
Closed
64-Scaffolds should only be erected on a sound base.
Usually, scaffolds will be rigidly connected to a permanent structure.
Party built scaffolds should have notices attached at every point of access.
All platforms must have edge protection and guardrails, to prevent material falling.
Platform boards should be securely fixed so that they don’t form a risk to any one underneath them.
65-Are the statements listed about inspections True or False?
Any inspection needs to be done by a supervisor TRUE
A bad storm may mean that another inspection is required TRUE
66- What is the minimum height for toe board rise on an independent tied scaffold?
150 mm
67- Which of the faults listed might cause you to reject a ladder as unsafe?
All of the above
68-Which of these items of personal protective equipment is not usually required when working at height?
Ear protectors
69-What is the recommended maximum height a free standing mobile tower?
9.6 meters
70- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the storage and use of scaffolding equipment
Tubes should be stored horizontally
Steel and aluminum components should not be mixed when stored
MDF is severely weakened when it gets wet
It’s important to ensure that anything metal is not corroded
71-Are these statements about working from scaffolds and scaffold towers true or false?
Slight overloading of the structure is permitted if it is for a short time FALSE
Use of a scaffold tower is not dependent on weather conditions FALSE
You should never use a ladder on top of a scaffold tower to gain extra height TRUE
You should only use scaffold towers that have been built by competent people TRUE
Any work at all on a scaffold must be covered by a permit to work TRUE
72- Are these statements about risk assessment true or false?
Before anyone can work at height, there needs to be a risk assessment TRUE
Controlling access is a means of helping to provide protection for everyone TRUE
The use of individual protective equipment does not need to be considered until after scaffold has been erected FALSE
The risk assessment process is complete once erection of the scaffold starts FALSE
73- A ledger on an independent tied scaffold is?
A pole used to keep the standards in each lift equidistant and strengthened
74-What is the usual rule governing the slope for a ladder when in use?
About 1 out for every 4 up
75- What is the purpose of a tie on an independent tied scaffold?
To restrict any inward and outward movement of the scaffold
76- What is the minimum width specified by the regulations for a platform on an independent tied scaffold?
600mm
77- Of the questions listed, which does not need to be considered before the erection or use of any access equipment?
How much do the people weigh who will be using it?
78- Abrasive wheels can kill people if they burst and shatter.
Abrasive wheels should never be used if they are cracked or damaged
You should always check the speed details on the wheel with those on the machine
The law requires you to use the safety equipment provided
The safety guard protects you if the wheel shatters and prevents any contact with the wheel
79- Fitting an oversized wheel is dangerous because
The guard will not close over an oversized wheel
80-which letters at the end of a wheel marker indicate that it is suitable for portable machines?
BF
81-which of the items of information listed should be provided on the blotter or printed on the wheel?
The diameter, thickness and bore
A manufacture’s code
The maxi in operating speed
82-are the statements about abrasive wheel procedures true or false?
The wheel should fit tightly onto the spindle FALSE
The spindle operating speed should be the same or less than the wheel speed TRUE
The ring test is performed with the wheel suspended from a ring in the center FALSE
All wheels should be kept in storage free from vibration and damp and away from extremes of hot and cold TRUE
83-once the wheel has been dressed, how far should the work rest be set from the wheel?
1-2mm
84-Are the statements about abrasive wheel procedures true or false?
Grinding machines need regular routine maintenance TRUE
Hot work permits are not needed when abrasive tools are used FALSE
You should only grind magnesium alloys if you are sure there is an efficient dust extraction system TRUE
New wheels do not need truing before use FALSE
85- Which is the hardest abrasive material used on abrasive wheel?
Diamond
86- which type of machine needs daily inspection?
240 volt machine
87-are the statements about suspicious behavior true or false?
Regular drills are important to build confidence and practice skills TRUE
A new crew member taking a lot of photographs of the ship is not a cause for suspicion FALSE
It is important that gangway personnel are not distracted and allow unauthorized persons to get on board TRUE
88-why is it important to remain vigilant?
It helps prevent crime
89-MARPOL annex VI specifies that the bunker delivery note (BON) should be kept available for inspection for
3 years
90- Outside special areas, how many nautical miles from the nearest land can oil or oily mixtures be discharged from an
oil tanker?
50
91- Is the following statement about bunkering true or false?
The ullage should be checked once the transfer has been completed FALSE
92-the SEEMP is
A ship specific plan for managing the ship’s energy efficient
93-which of those listed is not a special area designated under MARPOL 73/78 annex 1?
The Caribbean Sea area
94- MARPOL annex VI limits the emissions into the atmosphere from ships of
Nitrogen oxides
95-improving the fuel efficiency of the vessel may require
Use of weather routing
Just in time arrival
Improved hull maintenance
Optimum trim
96- Is the following statements about bunkering true or false?
During transfer the deck scuppers should be plugged TRUE
97- MARPOL annex v affects
All ships (unless expressly provided otherwise)
98-which MARPOL annex deals with the regulations for the prevention of pollution of oil?
Annex 1
99- The disposal of plastics at sea is
Sticky prohibited everywhere
100- Sewage which has not been comminuted or disinfected
12 nautical miles from shore
101-ships may only discharge processed bilge water from machinery space into the sea if certain very specific criteria a
met. Which of those listed is correct?
The ship is proceeding on route
102-Is the following statements true or false?
103-Vessels smaller than 400 GT can discharge oil or oily mixture into the sea in the Antarctic area FALSE
104-all oily water discharge must be monitored to ensure that the oil contents is not greater than the permitted limit. Thi
is:
15 parts per million
105- The term segregated ballast means
A ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil system
107-since 1 July 2010, what has been the maximum permitted Sulphur of fuel oil in an emission control area (ECA)
according to MARPOL annex VI?
1.0%
108-which MARPOL annex deals with garbage and waste disposal from ships?
V
109- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the possible consequences of falling to comp
with the regulations in force.
Failure to comply may lead to penalties and loss of revenue for the shipping company. The vessel may be required to
retain her ballast and load less cargo. The ship may not be allowed to dock or may be forced to go out to sea and
exchange her ballast water. There could be the risk of a heavy fine or even imprisonment
110-the current, recommended method of ballast water management is
Exchanged
111-the IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting form. Which of the items of information
listed does this form contain?
Vessel information
Voyage information
Ballast water management information (numbers of tanks discharged)
112-the IMO guidelines state that every ship that carries ballast water must have a ballast water management plan
TRUE
113-which of the items listed is not included in the section of the IMO guidelines dealing with ships operational
procedures?
Training and education
114-Which of the actions listed does not form part of the duties of the designated ballast water management officer?
Deciding whether sea conditions allow exchange to be undertaken safely
115-are the statements about ballast water exchanged true or false?
Ballast water exchanged at sea can have a serious effect on the ship’s structural integrity TRUE
Sequential exchange of ballast water at sea must be carried out by emptying pairs of tanks at a time to maintain the shi
trim and stability TRUE
Correctly carried out, ballast water exchange at sea is a complete solution to the problem FALSE
The master decides precisely how exchange at sea should be carried out FALSE
116- what is the minimum distance does far from shore mean for ships entering north America great lakes ports or visit
ports further up Hudson river than the George Washington bridge ?
200 miles
117- In order to replace approximately 95% of ballast water in a tank using the flow-through method exchange, the
amount of water pumped through the tank must be
3 x the tank’s volume
118- In the black sea, the comb jelly became a major contributor to the rapid decline in the catch of which particular fish
Anchovy
119- Which of the factors listed is not relevant for port state authorities when implementing their ballast water
management programmers and assessing risks?
The type of vessel concerned
120-the IMO has adopted a set of guidelines for the management of ballast water. At present, these are:
Voluntary
121-exchanging ballast water at sea can affect the trim and draft. The engine intakes may come out of the water. It can
set up stresses in the hull leading to structural failure and could cause a loss of stability. Even in calm weather, you mu
carry out this procedure with extreme caution.
122-are the statements about treatment methods true or false?
The use of clean, treated fresh water for ballast solves the potential problems with ballast water TRUE
The problems with the mechanical treatment of ballast water are expense and maintenance of the filters TRUE
123-part four of the ballast water reporting form is a detailed history of the ballast water. Which of the items of informati
listed would not be required?
The types of organism in the water
124- Are the statements about ballast water true or false?
Marine organisms carried in ballast water can damage the ship FALSE
Many countries have already introduced quarantine requirements for ballast water management TRUE
Ballast water can carry disease from one part of the world to another TRUE
Organisms carried in ballast water which survive on discharge can multiply and cause serious environmental TRUE
125-is this statement about risk assessment true or false?
Risk assessment should take place as soon as the barge arrives FALSE
126-drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about measuring the volume of bunker fuel delivered
Throughout the bunkering operation, the ship’s representative on the barge should therefore witness and monitor tank
levels, by checking the reference heights and tank numbers in the calibration tables supplied by the barge
127- Which information about the fuel oil that has been delivered does the BDN (bunker delivery note) not include?
Flash point
1. Under European pollution laws, a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to a pollution incident trough
‘complicity’. What does ‘complicity’ mean?
Encouraging someone to commit an offence.
2. If you see or know of an unauthorized an illegal pollution discharge occurring from your vessel at sea, what
should you do?
Make sure the Master is told about it.
3. Under European pollution laws a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to a pollution incident through
‘inaction’. What does ‘inaction’ mean?
Suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it.
4. Oil cargoes may pose health hazards and these can be caused trough ingestion, skin contact or inhalation.
Which of these posess the greatest risk?
Inhalation
5. Are the statements listed true or false?
Most Marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties. False
The majority of spills are less than seven tones. True
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small so no special precautions
taken before starting. False
6. Are the statements about possible hazards associated with spills True or False?
Frequent or prolonged skin contact with benzene is not a cause of concem. False
Inhalation or hydrogen supplied can be fatal. True
Your sense of smell can become rapidly de-sensitized, particularly to hydrogen supplied. True
Most oil cargoes do not require the use of any special protective clothing or equipment. False
need to be
7. When a spill moves with a tide or current at what percentage or the tide or current speed does it move?
100%
8. Are the statements listed true or false?
In a real emergency, it may be necessary to close air vents to the engine room and close sweater intakes.
True
The OPA 90 Vessel Response Plan must always be available in English. True
The crew would not normally be mustered until a detailed emergency response had agreed with the shore
office. False.
9. Which of the items of information listed is NOT required by the standard from for reporting incidents to the
National Response Centre?
The number of crew on board.
10. Which of the actions listed are the responsibility of the Command Centre?
The coordination and distribution on information conceming the actual and forecast condition of the spill.
The management of all tactical operations required to excuse the company’s general emergency response
plan.
Obtaining manpower, equipment, material, food, protective clothing and other facilities needed to support
the emergency response.
Setting compensation claims.
All of the above.
11. Which of these statements about the Qualified individual (QI) is NOT correct?
The QI must be a member of the ship’s crew.
12. Under OPA 90, who must be notified first in the event of an incident?
The National Response Centre in Washington D.C.
13. What do the initials SOPEP stand for?
Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan
14. In the event of a spill, where would the Master find the list of contacts who must be notified.
In the SOPEP
15. The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:
Running aground.
16. OPA 90 applies to:
All ships entering US waters whatever their flag.
17. How far from the shoreline do US waters extend?
200 nautical miles.
18. Fouling organisms removed from the seawater piping system should ideally be discharged when the vessel
is:
More than 50mm from shore.
19. Who should be responsible for dealing with the press and media?
A responsible individual in the shore office.
20. Above what size are ships, other than oil tankers, required to have a SOPEP?
400GT.
21. In seawater cooling systems, the filters should be:
Cleaned regularly when more that 50mm from shore.
22. Are the statements listed true or false?
In a real grounding, the master would instruct the engine room to stop the engine. True
Depending on the circumstances, in a genuine emergency, oil could get in through seawater intakes. True
Notification of the coastal state in mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or probable discharge of
oil. True
Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or probable discharge of
oil. False
23. To minimise chain locker effluent, the anchor chain is should be thoroughly washed town:
After every hauling up.
24. Is the following statement about the implementation of the VGP true or false?
Vessels over 400 GT with graywater storage capacity should discharge when more than 1mm from shore
and while underway. True
25. Is the following hull cleaning is required in port, it should take place in dry dock.
If major hull cleaning is required in port, it should take place in dry dock. True
26. Firemain systems are included in the VGP because their water may contain:
Metal and chemicals.
27. If you found someone is possession of a 2 litre can of hazardous material, which would you find most
suspicious?
2 litres of lighter fuel.
28. What is the minimum ideal team size for searching accommodation and workspaces?
2 including a leader.
29. What should you do when offered an ID by a visitor or official?
Take it, study it, then check it against the list.
30. Why is it important to remain vigilant?
It helps prevent crime.
31. Which type of vessel is NOT currently covered by the ISPS code?
Tug
32. Use your mouse to complete the following sentence correctly.
Absorbents are substances which soak up oil like a sponge.
Absorbents are substances where oil sticks to the outside surface.
Synthetic sorbents absorb a lot of oil and don’t absorb water.
Natural products often soak up water as well as oil.
33. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures requited when ballasting through
the cargo system.
Check that the COW system has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been opened.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is started.
34. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about weathering of oil.
The lower the viscosity of the oil, the faster it will spread.
Low temperatures will make oil more viscous, and spread more slowly.
The higher the ambient temperature and the grater the wind speed, the more oil will evaporate.
Over 36 to 48 hours, oil can mix with the sea to from a mousse.
35. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.
The transfer must start at a low flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be carefully monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring arrangements.
Pipework and air vents must be continually checked for oil leaks.
Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
36. Match the opening words with the closing words to identify some of the key aspects of preparing for
bunkering.
The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition.
All scuppers must be plugged.
Portable pumps must be readily available.
The piping system must be correctly lined up.
37. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about the operation of OPA 90.
The Unfiled Command provides a top level found forum for producing a cohesive plan of action.
All decisions, actions and communications must be logged on the ship.
Unless the Master has serious concems for safety on board, he will normally follow the advice he receives
from the command centre.
38. A full scale PREP to test both ship and shore based emergency response capabilities must be carried out:
Once a year.
39. The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:
Having a collision.
1. Is the following statement about bunkering True or False?
Once transfer begins all the hose and connections should be checked to ensure they are tight under
pressure. True.
2. Engineers believe that an oily water separator will become much more liable to failure after.
7 years.
3. Which of the shipboard records listed are the authorities NOT likely to inspect if the boards a vessel
suspected of causing pollution.
Cargo Manifest.
4. According to HELMEPA, how many years does it take for a tin can to disintegrate in the sea?
100 years.
5. If there is an accident discharge while on the high seas, does it need to be logged?
Yes, all discharge must be logged.
6. Why have so many states tightened up their maritime pollution laws?
Too many ship owners, operators and crews were ignoring the previous, exiting laws.
7. What does Canada’s legal principle of “reverse onus” mean in pollution cases?
An accused seafarer is guilty until proven innocent.
9. Is in the following statement about bunkering True or False?
Cleaning materials should be ready to deal with any accident spill. True.
10. What is the most common alteration to an ID?
The photograph.
11. Are the statements about recognising forms of identification True or False?
Regular drills are important to build confidence and practice skills. True.
You should not expect Port State Control officers to provide ID when they come on board for an
inspection. False.
The best way to avoid problems is to obtain as much information about possible well in advance. True.
12. What should you done once you have checked an ID?
Write their name and details in the gangway long.
13. If an ID has visa stamps on it, is it more likely to be genuine?
Yes.
14. The Reference describes a standard shipboards security system in which the type of clearance provided is
matched to a colour code. Drag the colour to match the clearance led.
Escorted at all times Red.
Access all areas Green.
Partial Escort Blue.
15. What is the IMO Code that now governs procedures for ships and ports?
International Ship and Port Facility Security Code (SPS).
16. If someone turns up with incorrect ID, what do you do?
Log it and report it to your supervisor (or SSO)
17. What do you if someone refuses to give you their ID?
Report it to your supervisor (or SSO).
18. How can a UV lamp help in spotting forgeries?
It shows changes in handwriting.
19. When you challenge someone how should you treat them?
Politely but firmly.
20. Why might you be suspicious of the clothes someone is wearing?
They seem to be the wrong type of clothes for the weather or for the job.
21. What should you do if you see a group of people on the dock studying your ship?
Report in to you supervisor.
22. What should you do after challenging a visitor in the wrong part of the ship?
Escort them to the correct area.
23. Why is it important to report an incident of suspicious behavior?
It might be one of a series of incidents.
24. Whose behavior do you need to check?
Non-crewmembers and visitors.
25. You have reported an incident of suspicious behaviour to your supervisor. What else should you do?
Record the incident in the appropriate long.
26. What should you do if you see a visitor in the wrong area of the ship?
Challenge them.
13.- which ofthese is it good practice to wear whenever you go into a tank?
1) A ATLDbadge
2)A lifting harness
3)An identity disk
4)A lifejacket
15.-what is a Neil-Robertson?
1)A type of breathing apparatus
2) A portable whinch
3)A type of stretcher
4)A special type of bandage for depp wounds
17.-If there is medical problem on board that no one is sure how to treat, what should be done?
1) Check the medical guide and make a guess what the best treatment is
2) Keep the person warm and make for the nearest port
3) Radio for a helicopter evacuation
4) Radio for medical advice immediately
24.-Galleys and pantries present particular fire risks. Care should be taken in particular:
1)when using steel utensils.
2)whilst boiling large quantities of food
3)prior to the serving of meals.
4)to avoid overheating or spilling fat or oil.
5)the statement is not correct-fire is unlikely to break out in the galley.
25.- Are the following statements True or False?
1) The health of people on board depends on the galley staff doing their job properly. TRUE
2) Because you carry out a task every day, there is no risk injury in the galley. FALSE
3) Temperature control is important in the preparation of microwave packs. TRUE
4) You may leave the galley when food is cooking for a prolonged period of time. FALSE
26) Complete the followings sentences
A.-Indiscriminate use of water in hosing down and washing equipment in the galley can be very dangerous
particularly around electric installations.
Q.- Dry clothes or pot holders and oven gloves should:
A.- always be used to handle hot pans and dishes.
Q.-No one should be:
A.- directly in front of an oven when door is opened.
Q.- Catering staff should not:
A.- attempt to repair electric or oil fired ranges or microwave ovens.
Q.- Range guard rails:
A.- Should always be used in rough weather.
27.- What precautions, if any should be taken water is used to hose down and wash the galley?
1)No precautions are necessary. Large amounts of water will help in achieving thorough cleaning and
insect/pest control.
2)Indiscriminate use of water in the galley is dangerous. Power to electrical installations should be isolated.
3) As long as one wears appropriate protective clothing, the practice of hosing down with large amounts of
water is correct procedure.
4) The water used should be cold and mixed with disinfectant so that germs will be killed.
28.-Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with your mouse.
Q.-Use protective clothing to:
A.-protect yourself against cuts, abrasions, heat and chemicals.
Q.-Clear up spills to avoid:
A.-slips and falls.
Q.-Remove sources of potential fire:
A.-danger by good housekeeping.
Q.-Wear your hard hat to avoid:
A.-injury from knocks or falling objects.
29.-Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with your mouse.
Q.-The atmosphere in an enclosed space:
A.-may lack oxygen or contain toxic gases.
Q.-Whenever someone enters an enclosed space:
A.-there should be a back up team standins by.
Q.-The permit to work, or entry permit, must be authorised by:
A.- an appropiate officer.
Q.-Before any enclosed space entry is attempted:
A.-the atmosphere must be checked.
30.-The statements about personal protective equipment True or False?
1) Use your ear defenders to protect your ears against noise. TRUE
2) Masks should be used whenever your work near dusty cargoes. TRUE
3) While working on deck no special footwear is required. FALSE
31.- Who is responsible for your personal safety on board?
1) I am responsible for my own safety. (others may also rely on you).
2) The master is solely responsible for the safety of persons on board.
3) The ship’s safety officer is solely responsible for my safety on board.
4) The superintendent is responsible for my safety
32.- Are the statements about possible hazards on bulk carriers True or False?
1) Opening access hatches could in the release of flammable vapours. TRUE
2) Any work with a naked flame or with welding equipment requires the issuing of a Permit to Work. TRUE
3) Opening and closing the hatc covers is not likely to create any hazzards. FALSE
33).- Gas leaks should be investigated by:
1) The designated team.
2) Authorised crew members wearing appropiatre PPE.
3) The Safety Officer.
4) The Master.
34).- If you work alone you should.
1) Let someone know where you are going.
2) Have a permit.
3) Ask permission from your manager.
4) Get on with it is not necessary to inform your crew members of your every movement.
35).- Are the statements about safety procedures True or False?
1) Every should know the location of hazardus cargo and procedures for dealing with it. TRUE
2)You should never smoke in cargo spaces under any circumstances. TRUE
3) When handling refrigerants such as CFCs, you should follow the safety regulations. TRUE
36).- If you must be on deck in heavy weather, you should
1) wear safety line
2)wear protective goggles
3)mak sure someone is with you
4)inform your supervising officer.
37).-When checking the tops of containers for loose items, you should:
1) get the driver to carry out the crack
2) climb uo and have a look yourself
3) give a stevedore a le-up so that he can remove any loose item.
4)use a portable ladder and someone to hold it.
38).-Are the statements about access to the ship True or False?
1) There is a constant risk of being struck by containers being handled either on board ship or on the dockside.
TRUE
2)On the dockside, you can use any route to your ship. FALSE
3)Only the cargo handlers are responsible for keeping access routes clear of obstructions. FALSE
39).- It is best to work:
1) in teams of 4
2) on your own.
3) in pairs
4) It does not matter how many people you work with, as long as all are properly trained
40) .-If there is a container fire with hazardous cargo, it should be dealt with by:
1) all available means and following the advice given in the IMDG Code
2) crew members using a fire blanket
3) crew members using a fire extinguisher
4) crew members using the nearest available water supply
41).- Is the statement about fire prevention True or False?
1) Under certain conditions static electricity can cause spaks TRUE
42).-Is this statement about working practices True or False?
1) only intrinsically safe equipment should be used on deck and in tanks TRUE
43).- How long can you survive in a toxic hydrocarbon atmosphere?
1) an hour
2) 30 minutes
3) 2-3 minutes
4) a few seconds
44).-I s this statement about fire prevention True or False?
1) You should be careful when metal tools because they can generate a spark when dropped. TRUE
45).- If you can smell a cargo vapour, it means that:
1) this is a normal situation on a tanker.
2) it is localized and not a problem.
3) you should carry out work more quickly
4) Something is wrong.
46).-I f you carrying a cargo you are not familiar with, for your own safety you should:
1) consult the cargo
2) consult your senior officer
3) leave the cargo well alone
4) look at the ship’s manual.
47).- Is the statement about fire prevention True or False?
1) it is not your job to prevent visitors smoking in unauthorized places. FALSE
48).-If you wish to smoke, you should do so:
1) only on the cargo deck
2) only in your cabin
3) only in the designated areas
4) only in the designated areas and in the open air.
49) .-When entering an unoccupied confined space, your permit to work or entry permit must be authorized by:
1) yourself
2) the master and the officer in charge
3) nobody. You do not need one.
4) any member f the engine room personnel.
50).- What is the time limit for hot work?
1) Only in the designated areas in the open air.
2) 1 hour
3) 2 hours
4) The time specified in the permit to work.
51).- Is the statement about working practices True or False?
1) Visitors to the ship can use their mobile phones in all areas away from the cargo manifold. FALSE
52). - Your main defense against injury is:
1) our PPE
2) Lifesaving appliances on board
3) keeping to company procedures.
4) being very careful.
53).- Is this statement bout fire prevention True or False?
1) Apart from by the manifold during cargo transfer, the deck will be a vapour free area. FALSE
54),- How should visitors to the ship be processed?
1) According to procedures laid down in the ship’s manual
2) According to company procedures
3) According to ISPS procedures
4) According to ISM Code procedures
55).-If petroleum cargo gets on your skin, you should:
1) wash it off immediately
2) find the first aid kit
3) report it to a senior officer
4) ignore it – petroleum cargo is harmless
56).- Are these statements about Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) True or False?
1) PPE is your first line of defense FALSE
2) Most chemical suits protect against the vast majority of all chemical risks TRUE
57).- Are these statement about the pre-arrival meeting True or False?
1) The cargo emergency stopping arrangements should form part of the pairs. TRUE
2) The exact schedule for the transfer of toxic cargoes will be announced. FALSE
58).-Are these statement about chemical hazards True or False?
1) Caustics soda is corrosive chemical and can burn human tissue. TRUE
2) All toxic chemicals circulate throughout the body and end up in the liver FALSE
3) If you breathe carbon dioxide in an enclosed space, you will rapidly become unconscious TRUE
4) certain flammable cargoes may emit flammable gases when they come into contact with water TRUE
59).- Is the statement bout chemical tanker operations True or False?
1) While topping off and completing cargo operations, the officer of the watch should monitor activity on deck
via radio. FALSE
60). - Static accumulators are:
1) cargoes that can become electrostatically charged.
2) Cargoes that must not be moved more than absolutely necessary
3) devices that monitor static electricity
4) devices that enable statics to be built up
61.-If you are asked to perform a task which you feel is dangerous, what should you do?
1) Delegate it to a more experienced fellow crew member
2) Trust the person who told you to perform the task and go ahead with it
3) Argue assertively with the person who told you to do it
3) Consult tour safety officer or other senior officer.
62.-The statement about chemical tanker operation true o false?
Nitrogen is lighter than air and so may remain in the stop of tamk event readings else where in the tank show a
good oxygen level. FALSE
63.- Is the statement about tanker operations true or false?
1) Mechanical ventilation of the space and regular monitoring of oxygen and gas levels must continue while
personnel inside an enclosed space TRUE
64.- Is the statement about chemical tanker operations true or false?
1) Most deaths from fire are caused by asphyxiation and not from direct contact with flame. TRUE
69.- correct answers:
Carbon monoxide CO
Chlorine CL2
Hydrogen Sulphide H25
Methane CH4
Oxygen O2
77.-Use your mouse to complete the following sentences about enclosed space entry:
Before any enclosed space entry is attempted authorisation must obtained from a responsible person.
The atmosphere in an enclosed space may lack oxygen or contain toxic gases.
Entering an enclosed space without informing someone often results in casualties.
The permit to work, or entry permit, should list all the precautions required before and during entry.
Whenever someone enters an enclosed space a supervisor must remain by the entry to monitor the ir safety.
108- Are these statements about different risk and risk assessment True or False?
A collision involving a high speed ferry could have very serious consequences TRUE
2) The fact that it may become more difficult find well qualified officers in the future should not really affect our
business FALSE
Risk depend on circumstance so risk assessment must always be a dynamic process TRUE
Effective risk assessment can improve financial performance TRUE
116- What is the definition give for the word “risk”?
It describes what would happen in case of the sudden operational failure of vital piece of equipment on board
ship.
It is a combination of two factors- the probability of something happening and the consequences if it does.
An unintended event involving death or injury, and/or damage to the ship, other property, or environment.
The outcome of an accident.
117-Datailed oil discharge producers in the ships manual are a good example of:
Engineered safety
Procedural safety
Human factory safety
Inherent safety
123. The final step we define in the risk assessment process is to monitor and reassess to examine how the
decisions work out in practice. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about this
process
Look for no answer what seemed
124- Which of these beliefs about a no-blame reporting system are justified?
A no-blame system encourages everyone to make sure that all incidents and near misses are reported
127- When alone in the engine room you must follow:
The notification procedures
128- what must be done when machinery is not to be used ?
In all case, warning notices must be posted at or near the controls
129-is it true or false to state the following?
Remove rings and jewellery so that don’t become caught in moving machinery TRUE
Spontaneous combustion is unlikely to occur in engine room space FALSE
Use your ear defenders to protect your ear against noise TRUE
130- follow the correct procedures when operating watertight doors TRUE
Pre-plan scape routes in case of emergency TRUE
Ordinary prescription spectacles will afford adequate protection when working in the engine room FALSE
131- Know the location of safety equipment in the engine room
Use protective clothing to protect yourself against cuts, abrasions, heat and chemical.
Wear your hard hat to avoid injury from knocks or falling objects.
Remove sources of potential fire danger by good housekeeping
Clear up spills to avoid slips and falls
132- no alarm system situated in the engine room should be isolated the permission of the
Chief engineer
133- chemicals should always be handled with the utmost care TRUE
Manufacturers advice on the correct use of chemicals should always be followed TRUE
Domestic chemical cleaning agents are harmless FALSE
Chemicals should not be mixed unless it is known that dangerous chemical reactions will not be caused TRUE
134- oily rags are dangerous if left lying about.
Safety helmets should be worn in the engine room when there is a risk of head injury.
Spilled oil should always be cleaned up immediately.
Good engine room housekeeping is essential as a precaution against fire in the engine room.
If provided, the lifting handles should be used when a floor plate is removed.
135- Who is the responsible for your personal safety in the engine room?
I am the responsible for my own safety
136- Why is important to read the labels on chemical containers carefully before operating them?
To find out about any hazards from the contents
137- Normally, welding should only be undertaken when:
A fire watch is standing by
138- damaged or worn tool should not be used.
The proper tool of the right size should be used.
When not in use, tools should be stowed away.
To avoid injury a tool in use should be directed away from the body.
139- rubber, synthetic or pvc gloves best for handling acids, alkalis, solvents
Leather gloves best for handling sharp objects
Heat resistant gloves best for handling hot objects
139- The decision and the suitability of any person to undertake electric arc welding should be taken by:
The senior officer in charge
140-
Prohibition
Warning- danger
Mandatory- must do
Emergency scape, first aid and safe condition the safe way
Fire equipment –location or use of the fire equipment
141- Nitrogen is one of the greatest hazard of enclosed space because
It has no smell
It given no warming symptoms to an effected person
A person can lose consciousness very quickly, sometimes in less than 20 seconds
142- which of those listed is not one of the general safety management objectives of the ism code?
To specify who is competent to undertake hazardous procedures
1. A casualty with heat exhaustion is:
Pale and breathing fast.
2. Which of the injuries listed is best treated using and elevation sling?.
Dislocated el bow
3. A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid. You should:
Give them sips of water to drink.
4. Which of the symptoms listed could indicate a spinal injury?
Any of the above.
5. If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their:
Blood sugar is too low.
6. A casualty with chest pain should be:
Positioned sitting up and supported.
7. When applying a dressing to a sucking chest wound is should be:
Non stick and sealed with top edge open.
8. In compression, the casualty will have:
Noisy breathing with strong and fast pulse.
9. A casualty has fallen from a height and appears to be unconscious. What would you do first?
Check their breathing.
10. How would you position a conscious casualty with and sucking wound on the left side of their chest?
Sitting up and leaning towards the left.
11. In hypothermia the casualty will be:
Pale, with a slow pulse.
12. In a concussed casualty you will find:
Both of the pupils react to light.
13. A complicated fracture is one where there is:
Damage to underlying tissue.
14. A casualty has chemical splash in the eyes. You should:
Wash the eye out with the casualty lying down.
15. A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound. What action would you take?
Place a damp dressing lightly over the wound.
16. Is the following statement about first aid procedures True or False?
The casualty may be a danger to the rescuer. True
17. Is the following statement about first aid procedures True or False?
A shocked casualty who is thirsty may be given a drink of water. False.
18. An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice you should:
Wrap the finger in plastic and then padding.
19. On rescue, a hypothermic casualty is unconscious. You should:
Wrap them in blankets.
20. A casualty has a wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it out?
At least 10 minutes.
21. When a casualty has a dislocated shoulder you must:
Tie the arm to the side of body.
22. Is the following statement about firs aid procedures true or false?
It is OK to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions and ventilations.
True.
23. When a casualty has a fractured base of skull they may have:
Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
24. A casualty having and asthma attack will have:
Pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse.
25. If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg the rescuer should:
Not release them if trapped for longer than 15 minutes.
26. A casualty with heat stroke is:
Red with a strong pulse.
27. A sprain is an injury to:
Ligament.
28. Your casualty has an arterial bleed at the wrist. The first aid treatment is to:
Press directly on the wound
29. The immediate treatment for a hot burn is to:
Cool the area with water.
30. During resuscitation, the rate of compression should be:
100 per minute.
31. If you think a casualty is choking you should first:
Ask them if they are choking.
33. Why is it important to keep the bowsing lines within that raft?
So that they will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while it is being lowered.
34. How many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
1.
35. Arterial blood is:
Bright red and spurting.
36. What is the ratio of ventilations to chest compressions in resuscitation?
2:30
37. A burn should cooled for a minimum of:
20 minutes
38. The casualty’s palm is considered to be:
1% of the total body surface area.
39. What is the first action in launching a davit-launched liferaft?
Remove the ships side rails.
40. The severity of a burn is assessed by:
Its depth and its area.
41. A casualty is found collapsed in an enclosed space. What should the rescuer do first?
Raise the alarm.
42. A casualty is placed in the recovery position:
To maintain the airway.
43. When launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft shackle out of the canister, what
should you do next?
Hook it on the bowsing line.
44. As evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew member sitting at the entrance should:
Direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on.
45. Indirect pressure to stop bleeding should be kept in place for:
10 minutes and released slowly.
46. When may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
When the Master on their deputy gives the order.
47. When checking a casualty’s ABC how long do you allow in order to check their breathing?
10 seconds.
48. Once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the bowsing lines be used for?
To pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding.
49. A casualty in shock has:
Pale clammy skin and fast pulse.
50. The severity of a burn is assessed by:
Its depth and its area.
51. Is the following statement about first procedures True or False?
Cold burns to the hands may be warmed up by being rubbed False.
52. Where can find out details information about liferaft equipment and operation?
From the SOLAS training manual.
53. SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within:
30 minutes.
124. Which of this beliefs about no blame reporting system are justified?
A no blame system encourages everyone to make sure that all the accidents and near misses are
reported.
127. what is the definition of the word risk?
It is a combination of two facts. The probability of something happening and the consequences if it does.
131. The video shows an example of ship passing through the strait of Messina. Which of the possible for
managing the risk was regarded as unacceptable?
Taking the long route to port.
134 which of the activities listened would NOT required the using of a permit to work?
Hot work, Entering a cargo tank, Working a loft.
135. what is the diefintion given for the word risk?
It is acombination of two factors the likelihood of something happening and the consequences if it
does.
138. are the statements about implementing a permit to work true or false?
*Only the work specified on the permit should be undertaken. TRUE
*On some jobs it will be difficult to assess how long they need so the permit should not specify a time limit.
FALSE
* if someone else takes over the job specified in the permit the permit should be reissued in their name. TRUE
* If unforeseen extra work is required during the work covered by the permit , this work can be done as long as
an officer is informed afterwards. FALSE
141. which of those listed is NOT one of the six basic principlesof risk control?
Substitution
Safe working procedures
Training instructions and supervision.
142. Which of those listed is NOT one of the general safety management objectives of the ISM code?
To provide for safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment.
To establish safeguards against all identified risks.
To continuously improve the safety management skills of personnel ashore and aboard.
148. which of the statements does not belong in the list? A hot work permit should sent out
The time and date of its validity. NO
The precise location of the work. NO
The qualification of the crew members to do the work. YES
The precise description of the work (including equipment and materials). NO
The preparation work to be undertaken before the job can commence. NO
The compartment at the lower forward extremity of ship is called______.
The aft peak
The double bottom
The forepeak
The forecastle
A watertight floor separates_______.
Two double bottom tanks
A hold from the double bottom
One hold from another
The tank top from the bottom shell
GOOD BUNKERING PRACTICE-962
1.-Which information about the fuel oil that has been delivered does the BDN ( BUNKER DELIVERY NOTE)
.-FLASH POINT
2.-The BDN ( BUNKER DELIVERY NOTE) must be kept on board at least:
-3 years
3.-The simple of fuel oil required for MARPOL should not be less tan:
-400ml
4.-What is the MARPOL annex VI máximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oil used within a SECA?
-1.5% M/M
5.-In some ports such as singapore, a system of hands signals is required, and the bunkering team should be
familiar with these.
-start, wait, reduce pumping rate, increase pumpig rate,stop, finish.
6.-What are most of spills at sea caused by?
.-overspills during bunkering.
8.-Are these statements about bunker fuel true or false?
.-Bunker fuek used in the auxiliary engines as well as the main engines.
true
.-Bunker fuel is the highest quallity product distilled from crude oil.
False
9.-When should fuel oil samples be taken?
.-Continuosly during transfer.
10.-What is the MARPOL, annex VI máximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oils used outside a
SECA?
.-4.5% M/M
11.-Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about measuring the volumen of bunker fuel
delivered,
.-Throughout the bunkering operation, the ship’s representative on the BARGE should therefore witness and
monitor tank LEVELS by cheking the reference HEIGHTS and tank NUMBER in the CALIBRATION tables
supplied by the barge.
12.-Are these statements about bunkering procedures true or false?
T.-When preparing for bunkering, any unused flanges should be blanked.
F.-A member of the ship’s engine department should board the barge to be in overall control of the bunkering
operation.
F.-The position of the hose should never be changed once the bunkering transfer has started.
T.-The tank gauge can indicate a false measurement, depending on the vessel’s trim.
13.-Is this statement about risk assessment true or false?
F.-Risk assesment should take place as son as the barge arrives.
14.-Which of the ítems listed is NOT regulated by MARPOL annex VI?
N.-Maximum sulphur content
N.-Quality of the fuel oil
N.-Information on the BDN
Y.-Emergency shut-down procedures
N.-Sampling procedures.
15.-Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about material safety data sheets.
Material safety detalling any DANGEROUS characterics of the fuel oil should have been received from the
SUPPLIER in advance of the bunkering OPERATION and the bunkering TEAM should be made familiar with
them.
16.-How many fuel oil samples need to be taken?
.-4
SAFE CARGO STOWAGE AND SECURING TEST-747
1.-True or false
1.- Cargo should be stowed so as to leave gaps to make crew inspections easier….f
2.- Placing cargo on strips of Woods is an excellent way of increasing friction at the point of contact….t
3,.Cargo lashings should be attached to the ship-not to other cargo or lashing...t.
4.-it may sometimes be necessary to weld temporary securing points to the ships structure….t
2.-Safe cargo stowage and securing test
wich of the information listed would NOT be included in the cargo securing manual?
1.-all the necessary information regarding the correct loading, stowage and lashing of the cargoes on board the
ship….n
2.-lists of all the lashing equipment which will be carried on the ship….n
3.-details of all the likely cargo types which the ship may carry and how to lash them properly in accordance
with the SOLAS requirements….n
4.-the size limitations on individual havy items….y
3.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
leading a wire round a bar of its own diameter or smaller can reduce its breaking load by up to.
.-50%
4.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
the video refers to the carriage of a large cased item. such items should be lashed:
1.-firmily at the base….n
2.-below the centre of gravity....n
3.-above the centre of gravity….y
5.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
the first priority when preparing a stowage plan is:
1.- the safety of the ship...y
2.-to th fit as much cargo as possible on board....n
3.-to guarantee that the ship can leave port on schedule….n
4.-to ensure acces ways are not obstructed….n
6.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
What is the maximum securing load value, (MSL), of a lashing consisting of a wire, turnbuckle and shackle?
1.-the last msl figure of all the elements in the lashing, including the deck ring….y
2.-the mean of all the MSL values of the elements in the lashing….n
3.-the total of the MSL values of the elements in the lashing….n
7.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
are the statements listed true or false
1.-aceceleration forces on cargo increase the further it is from the centre of the ship….t
2.-as the ship rises on a swell, the cargo effectively becomes lighter….f
3.-when the ship rolls, cargo lashings will be stretched and compressed alternately….t
4.-if the lashings become to loose, an item can lose contact with the deck and slide….t
8.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
the vertical lashing angles should not be greater than.
.-60 grados.
9.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
how should lashings be distributed at a cargo unit with single stowage pattern?
1.-equally to fore and aft….n
2.-equally to all sides….n
3.-80% to port and starboard, 20% to fore and aft….y
4.-50% to port and starboard, 50% to fire and aft….n
10.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
complete the following sentences about some common problems of cargo stowage.
a pre-arranged stowage plan may show...INADEQUATE DISTRIBUTION OF CARGO, OFTEN NOT
REFLECTING SUITABLE CARGO HANDLING IN SUBSEQUENT PORTS.
heavy cargo unitsmay be offered for shipment without..HEAVING SUITABLE LIFTING AND SECURING
POINTS.
cargo weights and dimensions may…DIFFER CONSIDERABLY FROM FIGURES GIVEN WHEN IT WAS
BOCKED.
cargo may not be…REALLY AVAILABLE AS NEEDED FOR LOADING ACCORDING TO THE PLAN.
11.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
which of the stowage patterns listed is NOT a recognised pattern?
1.-single stowage.
2.-vertical stowage.--- correct
3.-side stowage.
4.-cross stowage.
12.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
the diagram shows a load of 80 tonnes with lashings to either side. what should be the MSL of each lashing?
la imagen muestra un 80 tonnes en un recuadro.
.-20 tonnes.
13.-safe cargo stowage and securing test
complete the sentences about cargo stowage by dragging the correct ending onto each one.
1.-The purpose of the cargo securing manual is...TO GIVE DETAILS ON THE STOWAGE AND SECURING
OF ALL CARGOES THE SHIP IS LIKELY TO CARRY.
2.-Well managed cargo must be stowed...SO AS TO MAINTAIN THE STABILITY OF THE SHIP.
3.-The stowage plan must be...FLEXIBLE ENOUGH TO ACCOMMODATE LAST MINUTE CHANGES.
4.-During a voyage the cargo will be...SUBJECTED TO CONTINUALLY CHANGING ACCELERATION
FORCES.
938-HATCH COVERS- A PRACTICAL GUIDE
1.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
the main advantages of ultrasonic testing are:
1.-that it can be used whether tha holds are full or empty.
2.-that it reduces the risk of pollution.
3.-that it can be operated in all weather conditions.
4.-all of the above….y
2.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
the use of flexible hoses as a substitute for an approved non-return drainage system:
1.-is good practice and is strongly recommended….n
2.-may be accepted as a temporary solution only….y
3.-is a bad practice-they should never be used….n
3.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
when opening or closing the hatch covers, wich of the occurrences listed could signify a problem to be
investigated further?
1.-uneven or unusual movement….n
2.-abnormal variation in speed….n
3.-unusual vibration….n
4.-all the above….y
4.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
true or false?
1.-bearing pads are intended to take the vertical load of the hatch cover….t
2.-the primary function of the cleats is to pull the hatch covers down for a tighter seal….f
3.-over-tightening the securing devices may permanentyl damage the rubber seals….t
4.-if wear of the steel-to-steel contact arrangements results in the rubber packings becoming permanently
deformed,the solution is to replace the rubbers….f
5.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
in order to remain water-tight, hatch covers must:
1.-not move at all when secured to the hatch coamings….n
2.-not move at all when the ship is flexing at sea….n
3.-move slightly when secured to the hatch coamings to allow for the ship flexing at sea….y
6.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
what water pressure should be used when hose testing?
1.-1 bar….n
2.- 2-3 bar….y
3.-5 bar ….n
7.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
when checking the hatch covers while at sea you need to pay particular attention to the area where the sea
loads are greatest. this is:
1.-the forward 25% of the ships length….y
2.-the area just forward or the superstructure...n
3.-the forward 10% of the ships length...n
8.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
locators:
1.-are used to ensure steel-to-steel contact….n
2.-guide the panels into their correct closing position...y
3.-should be flexible...n
9.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
minor damage to compression bars, such as small cuts and gouges:
1.-are usually acceptable and should not affect the sealing ability….n
2.-should be added to the list of dry-dock repairs….n
3.-are unaceptable as compression bars must always be completely straight,levels and structurally sound….y
10.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
during a hose test, the first indication that hatch covers are water-tight is if water is seen:
1.-dripping from the drain valves….y
2.-leaking into the cargo hold….n
3.-dripping into the cargo hold and from the drain valves simultaneously….n
11.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
which of these statements about cleats is not correct?
1.-cleats should allow the panels to move to a limited extent….n
2.-cleats should be closed in a specific order….n
3.-cleats are used to hold the panels in place when at sea….n
4.-cleats should be tightenend very hard in order to prevent the panels flexing….y
12.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
packing rubbers should be replaced:
1.- if they have a permanent imprint….n
2.-every 2 years….n
3.-if there is a permanent imprint which exceeds the manufacturers specified design limits….y
13.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
to prove that due diligence has been exercised, which of the documents and records listed should be avalaible
on board?
1.-manufacturers manual for the hatch covers….n
2.-records of inspection, maintenance and repair….n
3.-hatch cover test reports….n
4.-all the above….y
14.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
in order to be efficent, the rubber packing needs to:
1.-be flexible and resilient….y
2.-be hard and resilient….n
3.-show a deep permanent imprint….n
15.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
hatch coaming brackets should be checked regulary for:
1.-deformation….n
2.-wastage….n
3.-cracks….n
4.-all the above….y
16.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
are these statements about hatch cover operation true or false?
1.-when opening and closing the hatches at leas two crewmembers should be involved….t
2.-you should never climb on the hatch covers while they are moving….t
3.-once the hatch covers are fully open the securing devices should be applied….t
4.-high expansion foam may sometimes be useful to help reduce the risk of leaks round the hatch coaming….f
17.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
the hydraulic oil in the hatch cover power unit should be:
1.-replaced automatically every 2 years….n
2.-be analysed regulary and replaced as necessary….y
3.-kept at 35°c….n
18.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
the video states that a significant proportion of major bulk cargo claims are due to hatch cover leakage- the
figure given was approximately:
1.-one quarter….n
2.-one third….y
3.-one half….n
19.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
which of the methods listed would NOT be appropiate for testing hatch covers?
1.-chalk test….n
2.-air test….n
3.-x-ray examination….y
4.-light infiltration test….n
1.-967-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
1.-drag abd drop the appropiate instruction on to the hands signals to the lifting operator.
2.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
All lifting equipments should be maintained:
1.-whrn it needs attention….n
2.-when it is broken….n
3.-once a year….n
4.- to the manufacturers recommendations….y
3.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the crane and equipment operator.
The operator should CHECK safety devices fitted to lifting APPLIANCES before works starts and at regular
intervals thereafter to ennsure that they are working properly. The CONTROLS of liting appliances should be
permanently and legibly marked with their FUNCTION and their operating directions shown by ARROWS or
other simple means.
4.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
What is the recommended minimum number of people to be involved in a lift.?
1.-Two people….n
2.-Three people….y
3.-Four people….n
4.-Five people….n
5.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
Each piece of equipment for lifting must have a certificate. How long should that certificate be for?
1.-one year….n
2.-two years….n
3.-three years….n
4.-five years….y
6.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
which of these statements is correct?
1.-SWL must never be exceeded on any piece of lifting equipment….y
2.-it is ok as long as you do not exceed the SWL by more than 10%....n
3.-it is ok as long as you do not exceed the SWL by more than 20%....n
4.-SWL can be exceeded if the person in charge of the lift gives you the authority to do so….n
7.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
Who should be in charge of a lifting operation?
1.-the captain….n
2.-crane operator….n
3.-appointed signaller….n
4.-designated team leader….y
8.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
who should keep records of lifting equipment?
1.-the chief officer….y
2.-the safety officer….n
3.-a responsible crew member….n
4.-the bosun….n
9.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
which of these is usually the best method for the signaller to communicate to other crew members involved in
the lifting operation?
1.-flags….n
2.-walkie-talkie….n
3.-hand signals….y
4.-a clear voice….n
10.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
where should lifting appliances and associated equipment be stored?
1.-near the place last used….n
2.-in a dedicated central location….y
3.-each piece near the place it is likely to be most used…..n
4.-it does not matter as lang as it is properly logged….n
11.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
how often should a lifting appliance or item of loose lifting gear be inspected?
1.-every year….y
2.-every two years….n
3.-every three years….n
4.-every five years….n
12.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
are these statements about lifting do’s and don’ts false or false?
1.-at the start of the operation, you should lift the load in a smooth continuous movement without stopping…..f
2.-never allow a load to be lifted over other people….t
3.-you should only lift people in a properly certified personnel basket….t
13.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about typical causes of lifting accidents.
1.-There might be poor COMMUNICATION between key PERSONNEL.Someone might have DISABLED and
endstopper, or a level switch, perhaps, or another safety DEVICE on the lifting equipment. Or maybe someone
has not checked that the LOAD does not exced the SWL of the gear.
14.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
true or false.
1.-when lifting a load, SWL is not affected by the angle at which slings are used….f
2.-when carrying out risk assesment for lifting a load, you should check maintenance records….t
3.-everyone involved in a lift should be wearing gloves….t
4.-the first action before carrying out a lift is to check weather and sea conditions….f
15.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
What does SWL stand for
1.-Short working life….n
2.-Safe working load….y
3.-Soft working load….n
4.-Sequential weight lift….n
972-Working with tugs Test.
1.- True or false.
1.- The tugmaster and pilot must be made aware of the minimum speed of the towed vessel….t
2.-The pilot must know the power of the tugs….t
3.-Communications channels should be left open and adaptable to further agreement….f
2.-Working with tugs Test.
Why is it important to check and protect towlines regulary when offshore towing?
1.-because towlines tend to be longer….n
2.-because there is rarely a constant distance between the towing vessel and tow, putting its own stress on the
lines….n
3.-to minimise shock loads to the tow….n
4.-for all the reason above….y
3.-Working with tugs Test.
how often should emergency towing drills be carried out on the vessel?
1.-once a year….n
2.-once a month….n
3.-every 3 months…n.
4.-every 6 months or when a significant number of crew members are replaced...y
4.-Working with tugs Test.
who is legally responsible for any damage caused if there is a collision with dock installations, jetties or another
vessel when being towed?
1.-the tugmaster….n
2.-the master of the vessel being towed….n
3.-the pilot….n
4.-the owner of the towed ship….y
5.-Working with tugs Test.
in mooring and towing, what is the main danger to seafarers on the deck of the vessel being towed?
1.-death or injury caused by the failure of on-board ropes and gear….y
2.-collision with another vessel….n
3.-running aground….n
6.-Working with tugs Test.
what size of tanker requires emergency towing arrangements to be fitted a both ends?
1.-5,000 to 9,000 tonnes deadweight….n
2.-9,000 to 20,000 tonnes deadweight….n
3.-over 20,000 tonnes deadweight….y
4.-all the above….n
7.-Working with tugs Test.
which of the statements about carrying out a risk assessment of towing operation is correct?
1.-a standar risk assessment should be carried out only in excepcional circumstances….n
2.-a stardard risk assessment should be carried out for each and every towing operation….n
3.-a standard risk assesment should be carried out of each and every towing operation, but varied for
individual circumstances….y
4.- a standard risk assessment need to be carried out for most common towing operations….n
8.-Working with tugs Test.
which of the factors listed are important on a long tow?
1.-wing speeds….n
2.-knowing how much extra power the towing tugs can generate….n
3.-state of the tide at your destination….n
4.-speed and direction of any currents….n
5.-the nearest port should and emergency occur….n
6.-all the above….y
9.-Working with tugs Test.
select the correct towing situation.
1.-When tight control and manoeuvrability are required in restricted in restricted waters: Alongside / hip tows.
2.-Where assisted steering and braking from the stern of the vessel is required: Active escort tows.
3.-Better for longer distances and in open waters: Stern tows.
4.-Where the tug is standing close by the vessel in case it is needed: Passive escort.
10.-Working with tugs Test.
Which of the measures listed would NOT stop the tow line chafing and endangering the tow?
1.-Pay out the tow line periodically….n
2.-fit a suitable protector to the tow line….n
3.-keep the tow line in one position….y
4.-monitor the tow line on the vessel being towed and freshen the contact point if required….n
11.-Working with tugs Test.
who would not be involved in approving all emergency towing gear.
1.-the master of the vessel….y
2.-a naval architect….n
3.-a marine engineer….n
4.-the appropiate classification society prior to use….n
12.-Working with tugs Test.
are the statements about emergency towing true or false?
1.-communications must be established with local maritime authorities and the towing vessel….t
2.-the disabled vessels position should be plotted frequently and reported to the local authorities and assisting
vessel(s)....t
3.- the disabled vessels rudder should not be used during the tow, even if it has steering capability….f
13.-Working with tugs Test.
are the statements about the pilot and the master of the vessel planning true or false?
1.-the master should provide the pilot with a deck general arrangement showing the layout and safe working
load ( SWL ) of the mooring fittings….t
2.-the master should inform the pilot which fairleads, chocks, bitts and strong points should be used for
towing….t
3.- the pilots should inform the master of the SWL of the tugs equipment….f
14.-Working with tugs Test.
the number of tugs required for towing will depend on.
1.-the type of tug used….n
2.- the weight of the vessel to be towed….n
3.- the support needed to tow the vessel to its destination….n
4.-the type of tugs used and the support needed….y
15.-Working with tugs Test.
are the statements about towing offshore true or false.
1.-it is importan to consider the condition, size and loading of the towed vessel of plataform….t
2.-wind, tide, current and sea conditions must all be taken into account….t
3.-details of the destination berth can be sorted out nearer the arrival time….f
4.-if something goes wrong, a contingency meeting should be held….f
16.-Working with tugs Test.
when planning a safe tow, which of the actions below are important?
1.-good teamwork between everyone involved….n
2.-understanding of towing techniques, tug capabilities and the ships requirements….n
3.-effective communications between the master, the pilot, the tugmaster, the bridge team and deck crew….n
4.-agreeing a plan and operational procedures in advance….n
5.-all the above….y
17.-Working with tugs Test.
which of the items of information listed should the pilot give the master when advising him about the
forthcoming tow?
1.-the number ot tugs and the mode of towage....n
2.-the type of tugs to be used and their bollard pull(s)....n
3.-maximum planned speed for the passage….n
4.-the method by which the ships crew should take on board and release the tugs tow line….n
5.-primary and secondary VHF channels for use in the operation….n
6.- all the above….y
18.-Working with tugs Test.
which of the areas listed should be considered as a possible attachment point an emergency tow line?
1.-structural members….n
2.-anchor windlass on the bow….n
3.-anchor chain-if secured from running out….n
4.-all the above….y
19.-Working with tugs Test.
are the statements about towing procedures true or false?
1.-ensure that the heaving line is long enough and ligh enough to allow the tug to stand off as far as
possible….t
2.-when casting off at the stern, drop the line onto the tugs deck below….f
3.-all radios should be tested before operations begin to ensure they are working properly….t
20.-Working with tugs Test.
are the statements about the planning of a tow by the pilot and tugmaster true or false?
1.-there is no need to check the SWL of the vessels chocks, bitts and strong points to be used for towing….f
2.-the maximum speed of the tug should be discussed….t
3.-details of the vessels passage into the harbour while accompanied by the tugs should be discussed….t
21.-Working with tugs Test.
towing by tugs is more hazardous than it used to be. which of the causes listed does NOT contribute to this
problem?
1.-increased vessel size making them more difficult to manoeuvre….n
2.-more traffic in general….n
3.-smaller, less powerful tugs….y
4.-more complex harbour operations….n
5.-greater variety of tug types….n
6.-difficulties in communication….n
22.-Working with tugs Test.
match the hand signals on the righ with the pictures by dragging and dropping them with your mouse:
1.-stop 2.-emergency stop 3.-hoist slowly 4.-raise 5.-lower 6.-make fast
1104-theory of mooring
1.- which of these factors can affect a ships moorings?
1.-wind….n
2.-currents….n
3.-the ships drafts….n
4.-all of these….y
2.--theory of mooring
what is the force of a wind at 60 metres compared to the same wind at sea level?
1.- much the same….n
2.-less….n
3.-greater….y
4.-depends on wind direction….n
3.--theory of mooring
how many times greater is the force of a three-knot current on a vessel’s hull compared to that of a one knot
current?
1.- the same….n
2.-double….n
3.-three times greater….n
4.-nine times greater….y
4.--theory of mooring
in ports with a large tidal range , what precaution should be taken to ensure a vessel remains safely moored?
1.-use automatic self-tensioning winches….n
2.-use additional mooring lines forward and aft….n
3.-use the largest steel wire ropes the vessel has available….n
4.-check the tide tables and regulary inspect all morings….y
5.--theory of mooring
is the following statement true or false?
1.- you should avoid mixing lines made of different materials….t
6.--theory of mooring
what is a 6x 36 mooring wire?
1.-a rope constructed from six strands of an inner core made of one type of synthetic fibre material, surrounded
by 36 strands of a second layer of a different type of synthetic fibre material….n
2.-a rope constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of steel wire, surrounded by six strands of a
second layer of synthetic fibre material….n
3.-a rope constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of steel wire, surrounded by six strands of a
second layer of synthetic fibre material….y
4.-a line constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of one type of synthetic fibre material, surrounded
by six strands of a second layer made from a different type of synthetic fibre material….n
7.--theory of mooring
what does MBL standd for?
1.-maximum bollard layers….n
2.-minimum breaking load….y
3.-maximum breaking load….n
4.-maximum berth length….n
8.-theory of mooring
how is the size of a wire rope measured?
1.-by the circumference….n
2.-by the diameter….y
3.-by the number of strands….n
4.-by the number of individual wires….n
9.--theory of mooring
when mooring lines change direction around rollers, fairleads of panama leads, there can be a further loss of
effectiveness of up to:
1.-25%....y
2.-30%....n
3.-10%....n
4.-50%....n
10.--theory of mooring
which of tnose listed is the strongest synthetic material commonly used in rope construction?
1.-polyamide….N
2.-polyamide….N
3.-polypropylene….N
4.-HMPE….Y
11-theory of mooring
Which is the only one of these materials that floats?
1.-polyester….n
2.- polyamide….n
3.-polypropylene….y
4.-aramid….n
12.--theory of mooring
how much elasticity does a high modulus synthetic fibre rope typically have?
1.- more than 20%....n
2.-1-2%....y
3.-4-5%....n
4.-about 10%....n
13-theory of mooring
how much elasticity does a conventional synthetic fibre ropw typically have?
1.-about 30%....y
2.-about 10%....n
3.-about 4-5%....n
4.-about 60%....n
14.--theory of mooring
which lines may be deployed in a mooring arrangement to counteract any turning force on a ship?
1.-spring lines….n
2.-head and breast lines….n
3.-head and stern lines….y
4.-breast lines….n
15.--theory of mooring
currents with a small angle off the bow:
1.-can create a considerable transverse force….y
2.-can usually be ignores….n
3.-are not very common….n
4.-will usually be weak….n
16.--theory of mooring
what percentage of a ropes MBL should the primary brake on a mooring winch be set to?
1.-50%....n
2.-60%....y
3.-70%....n
4.-75%....n
17.--theory of mooring
which end of the brake should a rope fitted to a winch drum always pull against?
1.- the fixed or anchored end….y
2.-the floating end….n
3.-it doesn’t matter….n
4.-only the centre….n
18.--theory of mooring
how many rope layers should there be on the tension drum of a split drum winch?
1.-two….n
2.-three….n
3.-one….y
4.-several….n
1148-leadership and team working skills-vessel resourcee managment series part 7
1.-what type of situational leader would allow the team to allocate task and processes?
1.-delegating leader….n
2.-telling leader….n
3.-managing leader….n
4.-supporting leader….y
2.-leadership and team working skills
among the strategies you can develop for coping with stress, which is the least effective?
1.-use of alchohol….y
2.-physical exercise….n
3.-assertiveness training….n
4.-getting enough sleep….n
3.-leadership and team working skills
is the statement about resource management true or false?
1.-in a perceptual set there is a bias or readiness to perceive certain of the available data and to ignore
otheers….t
4.-leadership and team working skills
to participate effectively in your ships emergency procedures, you first need to:
1.-be trained for emergency duties….n
2.-understand what other emergency parties are doing….n
3.-be completely familiar with the entire set of personnel, equipment and duties….y
4.-become a member of one of the emergency response teams….n
5.-leadership and team working skills
which of the symptoms listed would not normally be one of the physical effects of stress?
1.-heart rate increases….n
2.-body prepares for fight or flight….n
3.-lungs take on more air….n
4.-eyesight blurs….y
6.-leadership and team working skills
can you name one of the chief qualities of situational leadership?
1.-it emohasises clarity of communication….n
2.-it works in most environments for most people….y
3.-it rapidly assesses the situation….n
4.-it guarantees a set of standing orders in place….n
7.-leadership and team working skills
true or false
1.-when conducting an emergency drill it is generally not necessary to hold a debrief afterwards….f
8.-leadership and team working skills
what qualities do you need for really effective drill?
1.-avoiding routine and creating surprise….n
2.-working with others to build teamwork….n
3.-taking it seriously….n
4.-careful planning….n
5.-all the above….y
9.-leadership and team working skills
what is the golden rule when thinking about calling the master in a amergency?
1.-wait, things mighy improve….n
2.-surely somebody else can deal with this?….n
3.-if you are thinking about calling the master, call the master….y
4.-i’ll sort this out and prove myself….n
10.-leadership and team working skills
true or false?
1.-leadership and managements skills are essentially the same….f
11.-leadership and team working skills
what is the process called that can allow one wrong assumption to be made which leads onto another until a
particular view is created?
1.-vicious circle….n
2.-error chain….y
3.-bad faith….n
4.-information overload….n
12.-leadership and team working skills
which of the items listed is not an essential component of good resource management?
1.-a strong sense of hierarchy….y
2.-good teamwork….n
3.-good leadership….n
4.-effective communication….n
5.-good situational awareness….n
926-(AIS) Automatic identification system.
1.-What is the VHF communications element of ais?
1.-two VHF transmitters, one VHF receiver, one dsc receiver….n
2.-one vhf transmitter, two vhf receiver, one dsc receiver….y
3.-one vhf transmitter, two vhf receivers, one dsc transmitter….n
4.-one vhf transmitter, one vhf receiver, one dsc receiver….n
2.-Automatic identification system.
true or false?
1.-radar gives a tagets position relative to own ship….t
2.-ais relies on other vessels transmitting information correctly….t
3.-ais supplies less information than radar….f
4.-radar is able to see targets that are not fitted with ais….t
3.-Automatic identification system.
what is the reporting speed or a normal vessel underway with a speed of less than 14 knots?
1.-10 times per miute….n
2.-10 times per hour….n
3.-once every 10 seconds….y
4.-once every 10 minutes….n
4.-Automatic identification system.
which vessels have to be fitted with ais?
1.-all solas vessels….n
2.-vessels of 500 GT and above trading internationally, all other vessels of 1000 GT and above….n
3.-all ships of 10,000 GT and above….n
4.-vessels of 300 GT and above trading internationally, all other vessels of 500 GT and above….y
5.-Automatic identification system.
if clicks are heard when using the primary VHF what might this indicate?
1.-it is usual for this to occur and shows that the ais is working properly….n
2.-it highlights the possibility of a faulty AIS installation and should be investigated and rectified….y
6.-Automatic identification system.
what does ais stand for?
1.- automatic identification system….y
2.-autonomous identification system….n
3.-automatic identification of ships….n
4.-automatic identify system….n
7.-Automatic identification system.
what does srm stand for?
1.-safety related message….y
2.-safety request message….n
3.-security related message….n
4.-none of these….n
8.-Automatic identification system.
which of the items listed is not included as AIS voyage related data?
1.-ETA a next port….n
2.-draught….n
3.-destination….n
4.-heading….y
9.-Automatic identification system.
what category does navigation status, such as at anchor, come under?
1.-static data….n
2.-voyage related data….n
3.-dynamic data….y
4.-safety related messages….n
10.-Automatic identification system.
what is the MKD?
1.-the unit which specially houses the VHF transceivers and GPS receiver….N
2.-the master key descryption circuitry that deals with AIS passwords….N
3.-the minimum kinect distance, which is the minimum distance that should separate the AIS display unit from
other equipment to avoid heat damage….N
4.-the minimum keyboard and display, which houses the AIS display and keyboard and provides the minimum
functionally as defined by IMO….Y
11.-Automatic identification system.
1.-It uses the DSC channel to allocate a unique frequency to each vessel….n
2.-it uses the long-range communication facility to allocate unique time slots to each vessel….n
3.-vessels autonomously self organise unique time slots for their use….y
4.-vessels autonomously self organise unique frequencies for their use…n
12.-Automatic identification system.
which of the messages listed would be a legitimate of an AIS SRM?
1.-See you in rotterdam….n
2.-sighted semi-submerged container 4 miles south of berry head….y
3.-hi-have a nice day….n
4.-jus look at that sunset...n
13.-Automatic identification system.
which of the items listed is not included as AIS static data?
1.-Ships name….n
2.-call sign….n
3.-beam….n
4.-draught….y
14.-Automatic identification system.
what is the primary purpose of the AIS internal position fixing system?
1.-to generate position…n
2.-to generate a location position if the ship is involved in an accident….n
3.-to generate accurate time…y
4.-to generate accurate frequency….n
705- The safe use of electronics charts
1.-The safe use of electronics charts
what is the dual-fuel system?
1.-when the ECDIS can display radar and ARPA information at the same time….n
2.-when the ECDIS can display both a raster and vector chart on scren at the same time….n
3.-when the ECDIS can display either a raster or vector chart….y
4.-when the ECDIS can be powered by either the ships power supply or its own batteries….n
2.-are these statements about the ECDIS true or false?
1.-if an electronic chart system is not classified as an ECDIS, it should not be used at all for primary
navigation….t
2.-an ECDIS is any electronic chart system which can display vectors charts….f
3.-an ECDIS can display vector charts if available, or raster if vector is not available….t
4.-generating an alarm when crossing a safety contour is a standared ECDIS function….t
3.-The safe use of electronics charts
what should the master or bridge team agree upon about the ECDIS at the start of a voyage?
1.-the colours used on the display screen….n
2.-during which watches it should be in operation….n
3.-what levels of information should be kept on displays as standard….y
4.-how loud the alarmsd should be….n
4.-The safe use of electronics charts
what does a raster chart look like?
1.-a standard paper char….y
2.-a standard paper chart without any shore navigational features….n
3.-a satellite photograph of a sea area….n
4.-a satellite photograph of a sea area laid over a standard paper chart….n
5.-The safe use of electronics charts
if you are using a n unofficial electronic chart how would yout system be classified?
1.-as an ECS….Y
2.-As an ECDIS….N
3.-as an RCDS….N
4.-As a SENC….N
6.-The safe use of electronics charts
Which of these is the most important factor to check before passage planning on an ECDIS?
1.-the weather forecast….n
2.-the tide levels….n
3.-that the most recent chart updates have been received….n
4.-information downloads….n
7.-The safe use of electronics charts
how does an ECDIS in RCDS mode trigger an alarm about a navigational hazard?
1.-information on the possible hazard has to be entered into the system by the operator….y
2.-such hazard can be pre-set automatically to trigger an alarm….n
3.-the potential hazard and location has to be entered electronically into the ECDIS system….n
4.-the ECDIS system in RCDS mode is not capable of triggering an alarm….n
8.-The safe use of electronics charts
how does an ECDIS operator ensure the electronic chart in use is on the same scale as other sensor
information being input?
1.-by checking the scales on each item in operation and adjusting them to match the ENC or RNC….n
2.-the ECDIS should provide an indication if there is a scale mis-match….y
3.-the ECDIS will not accept sensor information on a scale different to the electronic chart….n
4.-by adjusting the scale of the ENC or RNC to match those of the sensors….n
9.-The safe use of electronics charts
if you have to plan your passage after the vessel is underway, when is the best time to do it?
1.-as the vessel clears the harbour….n
2.-in the estuary….n
3.-a mile out to sea….n
4.-in deep sea areas….y
10.-The safe use of electronics charts
when does an ENC become a SENC?
1.-when it is updated with new navigational information….n
2.-when it is has been transformed by the ECDIS into a database format….y
3.-when it has been issued by a RENC….n
4.-when it is given IMO approval….n
11.-The safe use of electronics charts
what are the four main components of an ECDIS?
1.-a computer, printer, scanner, and display screen….n
2.-a computer,screen, electronic charts and radar….n
3.-a computer, electronic charts, display screen and speaker….n
4.-a computer, electronic charts, colour display screen and operators control….y
12.-The safe use of electronics charts
what must an ECDIS operator have when using the system in RCDS mode?
1.-conversion tables to re-calculate the different scale….n
2.-a second GPS system to provide an accurate position fix….n
3.-a portfolio of appropiate paper charts….y
4.-the latest ENC updates….n
13.-The safe use of electronics charts
when using ECDIS in RCDS mode what officially-approved back-up do you need?
1.-a second GPS….N
2.-another ECS….N
3.-paper charts….N
4.-ARPA….N
14.-The safe use of electronics charts
Which of these events would trigger only a visual warning on ECDIS?
1.-Failure of the positioning system….y
2.-crossing a safety contour….n
3.-deviation from route….n
4.-approaching a critical point….n
15.-The safe use of electronics charts
which of these is NOT a feature of vectors charts
1.-they are open to interrogation….n
2.-they are multi-layered….n
3.-they use the chart-by-chart system….y
4.-the allow zooming in to see more detail….n
16.-The safe use of electronics charts
how can an ECDIS operator know if part of this electronic chart is based on unofficial data?
1.-the suspect section is marked in red….n
2.-the suspect section may have hatching around it….y
3.-the suspect section should flash….n
4.-the suspect section will have unofficial written across it….n
17.-The safe use of electronics charts
why is it important to use official electronic charts?
1.-they are in english and easier to undestand….n
2.-they have more detail than unofficial charts….n
3.-unofficial charts do not meet the regulations permitting their use in passage planning….y
4.-unofficial charts are usually out of date….n
18.-The safe use of electronics charts
how many waypoints can an ECDIS normally store?
1.-9….n
2.-29….n
3.-99….n
4.-999….y
19.-The safe use of electronics charts
when using RNCs, what does the message shift not know mean when it appears on an ECDIS screen?
1.-the operator has chosen a chart for display which the ECDIS does not have….n
2.-The operator tried to input data from another instrument not connected to the ECDIS….n
3.-the ECDIS cannot match the datum of the RNC….y
4.-The ECDIS is signalling a prohibited manoeuvre by the operator….n
20.-The safe use of electronics charts
which chart display first appears on the ECDIS screen when it is switched on?
1.-star-up display….n
2.-head-up display….n
3.-standard display….y
4.-display base….n
21.-The safe use of electronics charts
what is the best method fo confirming the accuracy of information shown on the ECDIS display?
1.-by visual observation….y
2.-radar….n
3.-comparison with a paper chart….n
4.-zooming in on the ECDIS display for more detail….n
22.-The safe use of electronics charts
what is the minimum periodd for which your navigational instruments should run from your emergency power
supply?
1.-12….n
2.-18….y
3.-24….n
4.-48….n
23.-The safe use of electronics charts
which organization has set the specifications for ECDIS?
1.-IMO….N
2.-USCG….N
3.-NOAA…N.
4.-IHO….Y
24.-The safe use of electronics charts
How many levels of warning does an ECDIS give alerting the operator to a hazard?
1.-two….y
2.-three…n.
3.-five….n
4.-one….n
25.-The safe use of electronics charts
which of these is a problem with vector charts?
1.-they are not capable of showing underwater hazards….n
2.-they are difficult to upgrade with new navigational information….n
3.-they do not yet cover every sea in the world….y
4.-they are difficult to operate….n
26.-The safe use of electronics charts
which of these navigational situations requires ECDIS to give more than a visual alarm?
1.-loss of ships position data….n
2.-different references being used….n
3.-approach to a critical point….y
4.-the vessel crossing a specified area….n
27.-The safe use of electronics charts
what is the difference between an ENC and other electronic charts?
1.-An ENC has more navigational features than any other electronic chart….n
2.-an ENC is an officially approved vector electronic chart….y
3.-an ENC is an officially approved raster electronic chart….n
4.-an ENC is easier to view than other electronic charts….n
927.-navigating in ice
1.-the best to maintain while in ice depends on which two factors?
1.-the vessels course and wind speed….n
2.-the vessels tonnage and the desnsity of the ice….y
3.-the wather conditionsand the vessels tonnage….n
2.-navigating in ice
drag the appropiate words from the list to complete the sentences about the responsibilities of the chief
engineer.
he needs to aware of the dangers ice poses to the RUDDERS.
he needs to make sure the internal WATER circulation is functioning
he must ensure the engine has sufficient power to maintain MANOEUVRABILITY
he should ensure that the fuel oil being used will not freeze or CRYSTALLISE.
3.-navigating in ice
Ships built to the specification for ice class 1a should be able to cope with ice floes up to a thickness.
1.-0.5 metres….n
2.-0.6 metres….n
3.-0.8 metres….y
4.-1.o metres….n
4.-navigating in ice
when following an iceberg through reasonably open ice, what is the ships speed likely to be?
1.-4-5 knots….n
2.-5-6 knots….n
3.-6-7 knots….y
4.-8-10 knots….n
5.-navigating in ice
roughly what proportion of an iceberg is usually below the surface?
1.-¼….n
2.-⅓….n
3.-½….n
4.-⅞….y
6.-navigating in ice
why should all tanks be no more than 90% full when traveling in ice zones?
1.-to allow air to circulate….n
2.-to minimise the free surface effect….n
3.-because if they are full and freeze solid, they could split….y
7.-navigating in ice
when estimating ice drift you must consider the presence of sea currents. which of the currents listed is NOT a
recognised type of current in this context?
1.-permanent currents…n.
2.-periodic currents….n
3.-seasonal currents….y
4.-temporary currents….n
8.-navigating in ice
in calm conditions, at what sort of upper range is radar reliable dor detecting large icebergs?
1.-5 to 8 miles….n
2.-8 to 12 miles….n
3.-12 to 15 miles….y
4.-15 to 20 miles….n
9.-navigating in ice
drag the appropiate words from the list to complete the sentences about preparation for entering an ice zone.
the master orders checks on the ships SYSTEM to make sure all are prepared for extreme cold, These will
include checking the searchlights, greasing and PROTECTING anchor winches, ensuring adequate protective
clothing for the crew and MONITORING the internal water supply. Bridge windows willa also require heating to
prevent condensation FREEZING.
10.-navigating in ice
what is the usual southerly llimit for icebergs in the northern hemisphere?
1.-35th parallel….n
2.-42nd parallel….y
3.-50th parallel….n
4.-62nd parallel….n
11.-navigating in ice
which of the principles listed is not one the three basic ship-handling rules when moving through ice?
1.-keep moving…n
2.-work with the ice….n
3.-keep the vessels speed slow….n
4.-use the rudder frequently….y
12.-navigating in ice
if collision with pack ice is unavoidable, how should the ship enter the ice?
1.-at and angle of about 60°….n
2.-as squarely as possible….y
3.-with a glancing blow….n
4.-at an angle of 45°….n
13.-navigating in ice
are the statements about working with icebreakers true or false?
1.-the master of the icebreaker should ask the ship how they would like to proceed….f
2.-all instructions from the icebreaker must be acknowledged and executed immediately….t
3.-icebreaker signals are shown in the international code of signals….t
14.-navigating in ice
before entering an ice zone the master needs to brief his team. which of the items listed would not need to
feature in the briefing?
1.-number of crew onboard….y
2.-state of hull, machinery and equipment….n
3.-ice experiences of the officers and crew….n
4.-area of operation and acces to icebreakers….n
15.-navigating in ice
when icebergs break up the remains, which may also be dangerous, are know as growlers and:
1.-mush….n
2.-shuga ice….n
3.-bergy bits….y
4.-brash ice….n
16.-navigating in ice
when ice is confirmed, various procedures need to be followed. which of those listed is NOT necessary?
1.- the master must be informed and come to the bridge….n
2.-the master must report to the local authorities….n
3.-all crew must be woken and a muster taken….n
4.-the chief engineer must be informed that they are approaching ice….y
17.-navigating in ice
are the statements about travelling in icebergs zones true or false?
1.-in poor conditions icebergs can be difficult to see, blending in with the grey sky and sea….t
2.-sea clutter may hide the radar reflections from an iceberg….t
3.-the sound of breakers where no lands is expected might indicate the presence of a large iceberg….t
4.-when you approach pack ice it is always easy to see….f
18.-navigating in ice
what is the typical size of icebergs in the artic?
1.-about 45 m tall and 180 m long….y
2.-about 30 m tall and 250 m long….n
3.-about 75 m tall and 100 m long….n
19.-navigating in ice
what is the name given to the small ice plates that first start to form on the surface of the sea as the
temperature drops?
1.-brash ice….n
2.-frazil ice….y
3.-grease ice….n
4.-bergy bits….n
985-search and rescue:
1.-what is the minimum required range for a NAVTEX transmitterP
1.-50 nautical miles….n
2.-150 nautical miles….n
3.-250 nautical miles….y
4.-350 nautical miles….n
2.-search and rescue
which organisation jointly produce the IAMSAR manual?
1.-I….n
2.-II….n
3.-III….y
4.-All of them….n
3.-search and rescue
what is a RCC?
1.-rescue co-ordination centre….y
2.-regional command centre….n
3.-rescue command control….n
4.-regional communications centre….n
4.-search and rescue
at how many levels of importace can a DSC message be set?
1.-3….n
2.-4….y
3.-5….n
4.-6….n
5.-search and rescue
what is the lowest classification of distress alert?
1.-unspecified….n
2.-uncertainty….y
3.-alert….n
4.-uncontrolled….n
6.-search and rescue
how is the NAVTEX broadcast?
1.-518 khz….y
2.-NBDP on selected HF frequencies….n
3.-218 khz….n
4.-vhf channel 16….n
7.-search and rescue
by what means can vessel beyond NAVTEX coastal transmmission range receive MSI?
1.-COSPAS-SARSAT….N
2.-MarsaNET….N
3.-telesat….N
4.-safetyNET….Y
8.-search and rescue
how many primary satellites make up the inmarsat system?
1.-2….n
2.-6….n
3.-5….n
4.-4….y
9.-search and rescue
what are the three most important items contained in a DSC alert?
1.-the vessels identity, position and nature of the distress….y
2.-the vessels identity, position and number of crew….n
3.-the vessels position, number of crew and nature of the distress….n
4.-the vessels identity, level of alert and assistance required….n
10.-search and rescue
in a SAR operation, who has overall responsibility for directing the operation?
1.-the aircraft co-ordinator….n
2.-the service provider….n
3.-the SAR mission co-ordinator….y
4.-the on scene co-ordinator….n
11.-search and rescue
if you vessel receives a DSC distress alert and there is no initial response from any SAR services, you should:
1.-respond yourself to the vessel in distress then relay it on to a MRCC….y
2.-report the message to your own ships owners and get instructions….n
3.-relay the distress message on your GMDSS and wait for a response….n
4.-log the message and continue to listen out….n
12.-search and rescue
enhanced group calling (EGC) enables a SAR service to:
1.-transmit multiple messages simultaneously….n
2.-transmit the ame message in multiple languages simultaneously….n
3.-confirm the correct position of a vessel transmitting a distress signal….n
4.-transmit a message to a defined are….y
13.-search and rescue
what is a SRU?
1.-search region unit….n
2.-search and rescue unit….y
3.-strategic resource unit….n
4.-search and recovey unit….n
14.-search and rescue
what is the general means of communication within an A2 sea area?
1.-VHF….N
2.-MF….Y
3.-UHF….N
4.-VHF and NAVTEX….N
15.-search and rescue
Roughly what latitude north and south marks the boundary of the A4 sea area?
1.-65°….n
2.-70°….n
3.-76°….y
4.-80°….n
16.-search and rescue
what triggers transmission of a location signal form a SART?
1.-inmmersion in water….n
2.-a rada signal….y
3.-manual activation….n
4.-a satellite signal….n
17.-search and rescue
with in approximately what range will a SART respond to a radar signal?
1.-5-8 nautical miles….y
2.-8-12 nautical miles….n
3.-12-15 nautical miles….n
4.-15-20 nautical miles….n
18.-search and rescue
when can an alerting post crease direct communications with a vessel in distress?
1.-when it is located by a SAR authority….N
2.-when it is told to do so by a SRU….N
3.-when it switches communications to a working channel….N
4.-when it is told to do so by the MRCC….Y
19.-search and rescue
what are the means of notifying SRU commanders that a SAR operation is to be terminated?
1.-NAVTEX hard copy message….n
2.-R/T and NAVTEX….n
3.-R/T and SITREP….y
4.-SafetyNET transmission….n
20.-search and rescue
GMDSS is required on all cargo ships over:
1.-250GT….N
2.-300GT….Y
3.-500GT….N
4.-1000GT….N
21.-search and rescue
if a vessel receives a DSC distress alert what is the first thing that it should do?
1.-wait a while to see if a SAR authority respond….y
2.-immediately send a DSC acknowledgement….n
3.-call the vessel in distress on channel 16….n
4.-report the message to your own ships owners and get instructions….n
22.-search and rescue
which organisations jointly produce the IAMSAR manual?
1.-IMO and IRS….N
2.-ICAO and NGS….N
3.-AIS and WHO….N
4.-IMO and ICAO….Y
23.-search and rescue
Over which area of the earth are two inmarsat satellites permanently stationed?
1.-indian ocean….n
2.-pacific ocean….n
3.-equator….n
4.-atlantic ocean….y
24.-search and rescue
what is the difference between wait and wait out?
1.-wait means there is a pause, while wait out means channels….n
2.-wait means there is going to be a long pause,while wait out means end of transmission but will call you
back….n
3.-wait means there is going to be a short pause,while wait out mensa there is going to be a long pause….y
4.-wait means there is going to be a break in transmission, while wait out means case transmission until further
notice….n
25.-search and rescue
what actual range do most NAVTEX transmitters achieve?
1.-400 nautical miles….y
2.-450 nautical miles….n
3.-500 nautical miles….n
4.-550 nautical miles….n
1102-offshore supply safety
1.-when should the toolbox talk or sale job analysis meeting for the cargo operation at the installation be held?
1.- it is not necessary to hold the meeting, as personnel will already be familiar with what to do…..n
2.-before leaving port….n
3.-when the vessel is more than one hour from the installation….n
4.-when the vessel is close to the installation….y
2.-search and rescue
when there is mud and grease on deck from anchor handling or mooring operations you should:
1.-stop the operation….y
2.-inform the master….n
3.-clean it up ass soon as possible….n
4.-consult your fellow crew members….n
3.-search and rescue
if you recognise symptoms of fatigue in yourself, what should you do?
1.-finish the task then take a long rest….n
2.-finish the task then inform your supervisor….n
3.-stop for a cup of cofee and something to eat….n
4.-speak to yout supervisor….y
4.-search and rescue
what part of the equipment is most often the first indication that something has gone wrong during discharge of
dry bulk product?
1.-the hose in the water….n
2.-the hose in the deck….n
3.-the manifold….n
4.-the installations vent….y
5.-search and rescue
your main defence against injury is:
1.-your PPE….n
2.-life-saving appliances on board….n
3.-following correct operational procedures….y
4.-being very careful….n
6.-search and rescue
dangerous cargoes should be:
1.-pre-slug and, ideally, capped….n
2.-stowed in a designated area away from the accomodation….y
3.-securely stowed in racks….n
4.-allowed to move freely….n
7.-search and rescue
bridge personnel on offshore supply vessels are particularly susceptible to fatigue because:
1.-they are not allotted sufficient rest hours in the schedule…n
2.-they tend not to delegate to officer…n
3.-their vessels are often manoeuvred for long periods while close to installation….y
4.-they have to deal with so many officials...n
8.-search and rescue
once the crane sling is attached, the crew must:
1.-remain where they are, while manitoring the operation….N
2.-communicate with the bridge….N
3.-withdraw to a position of safety…Y
4.-put on their PPE….N
9.-search and rescue
Legislation on minimum rest hours for personnel assigned duty as officer in charge of a wathc or as a rating in
charge or a watch comes from:
1.-STCW….y
2.-the ISPS code….n
3.-OCIMF….n
4.-the marine safety forum….n
10.-search and rescue
are the statements about personal safety while working on offshore supply vessels true or false?
1.-when wearing a hard hat, chinstraps are optional, depending on the task in hand….f
2.-caffeine helps to minimise fatique…f
11.-search and rescue
if weather conditions are poor, who has the fina say about whether the operation should go ahead or.
1.-the vessels master….Y
2.-the vessels owner….N
3.-the field supervisor….N
4.-the OIM...N
12.-search and rescue
Are the statements about safety in offshore supply operations true or false?
1.-if a venting hose is used, it must be placed overboard, away from the jetty, and properly weighted….t
2.-in poor weather, the cargo lashings should all be removed well in advance of the discharge to the
installation….f
3.-within the 500 metre zone, one man on the bridge and two men in the engine room is considered good
practice….f
13.-search and rescue
where can you find out what PPE to wear when handling a particular bulk cargo?
1.-from the cargos MSDS…y
2.-you should know this already…n
3.-by asking the master....n
4.-what PPE you wear should not vary from cargo to cargo...n
14.-search and rescue
well casing should be:
1.-stowed in a designated area away from the accommodation....n
2.-pre-slung and, ideally, capped….y
3.-securely stowed in racks….n
4.-allowed to move freely….n
15.-search and rescue
once given permission to enter the 500 metre zone, the vessel should proceed to a safe position. How far
should this be from the installation?
1.-at least 25 metres….n
2.-at least 50 metres....y
3.-at least 75 metres….n
4.-at least 100 metres….n
16.-search and rescue
if you arent sure how to go about an operation, should:
1.-finish it to the best of your ability….n
2.-take extra care when doing it….n
3.-ask your fellow crew members to do it for you….n
4.-stop and ask for help….y
17.-search and rescue
why must the loading hoses be secured when pressuried air is used?
1.-in case they burst….n
2.-to prevent water getting in….n
3.-to stop them moving around….y
4.-it is not necessary to secure loading hoses when pressurised air is used….n
1106-maintenance of mooring systems
1.-
2.-maintenance of mooring systems
what provides a clear indication that a wire rope is becoming worn?
1.-wire snags appearing along its length….n
2.-a singing noise when it is under strain….n
3.-it becomes more pliant and easier to handle each time it is used….n
4.-a reduction in diameter….y
3.-maintenance of mooring systems
4.-maintenance of mooring systems
the brushes on a DC electrical winch systeam should be inspected:
1.-monthly….n
2.-after every mooring operation….n
3.-as specified in the companys service manual….y
4.-every six months….n
5.-maintenance of mooring systems
if a maintenance check shows signs that oil has penetrated the winch brake linings, they should be:
1.-replaced as soon as possible….y
2.-thoroughly cleaned with an effective solvent…n.
3.-dried out by exposure to the air for 24 hrs….n
4.-replaced at the time of the next annual survey….n
6.-maintenance of mooring systems
in particular, what do polyethylene ropes have to be checked for?
1.-extra stretching….n
2.-discolouring due to chemical sensitivity….n
3.-unpleasant smell indicating chemical attack....n
4.-heat damage due to their low melting point….y
7.-maintenance of mooring systems
is the statements about aramid fibre ropes true or false?
1.-compared to other materials, aramid fibre ropes have reduced resistance to ultra-violet light….t
8.-maintenance of mooring systems
how much abrasion damage to a synthetic fibre rope would mean it must be discarded?
1.-any sign….n
2.-5%....n
3.-10%....y
4.-15%....n
9.-maintenance of mooring systems
why are wire ropes treated with lubrican?
1.-to prevent excessive stretching….n
2.-to lubricate the internal wires, so maintaining service and flexibility….y
3.-to prevent corrosion on the outside of the wire….n
4.-to make the wire stretch more….n
10.-maintenance of mooring systems
how often should synthetic lines be end-for-ended in normal service?
1.-after every third mooring in which they have been used….n
2.-monthly….n
3.-at least every 4-6 months….y
4.-annually….n
11.-maintenance of mooring systems
if the complte strand of a wire rope has broken, the rope should be:
1.-
12.-maintenance of mooring systems
when visually inspecting synthetic fibre ropes, an important factor to watch for is:
1.-dirt on the ropes….n
2.-unusual colours in the ropes lenght….n
3.-a change in the ropes lenght….n
4.-degradation of the rope surface due to prolonged exposure to sunlight….n
962.-good bunkering practice
1.-are these statements about bunkering procedures true or false?
1.-when preparing for bunkering, any unused flanges should be blanked….t
2.-a member of the ships engine department should board the barge to be in overall control of the
bunkering….f
3.-the position of the hose should never be changed once the bunkering transfer has started….f
4.-the tank gauge can indicate a false measurement, depending on the vessels trim….t
2.-good bunkering practice
true or false
1.-bunker fuel is used in the auxiliary engines as well as the main engines….t
2.-bunker fuel is the highest quallity product distilled form crude oil….f
3.-good bunkering practice
when should fuel oil samples be taken?
1.-at the start of transfer….n
2.-in the middle of transfer….n
3.-continuosly during transfer….y
4.-at the end of transfer….n
4.-good bunkering practice
what are most oil spills at sea caused by?
1.- collision….n
2.-overspills during bunkering….y
3.-leaking barges….n
4.-corroded oil drums….n
5,.good bunkering practice
the sample of the fuel oil required for MARPOL should not be less than:
1.-100ml….n
2.-200ml….n
3.-300ml….n
4.-400ml….y
6.-good bunkering practice
what is the MARPOL annex VI maximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oil used within a SECA?
1.-0.5% m/m….n
2.-1.5% m/m….y
3.-2.5% m/m….n
4.-4.5% m/m….n
7.-good bunkering practice
which of the items listed is NOT regullated by MARPOL annex VI?
1.-maximum sulphur content….
2.-quality of the fuel oil….n
3.information on the BDN….n
4.-emergency shut-down procedures….y
5.-sampling procedures….n
9.-good bunkering practice
How many fuel oil samples need to be taken?
1.-2....n
2.-3….n
3.-4....y
4.-6….n
10.-good bunkering practice
elige la imagen correcta, drag the commands to match the appropiate bunkering hand signals
1.-start. 2.-wai 3.-reduce pumping rate 4.-increase pumping rate 5.-stop 6.-finish
11.-good bunkering practice
drag the correct words form the list to complete the sentences about measuring the volume of bunker fuel
delivered.
Throughout the bunkering operation, the ships representative on the BARGE should therefore witness and
monitor tank LEVELS, by checking the reference HEIGHTS and tank NUMBERS in the CALIBRATION tables
supplied by the barge.
12.-good bunkering practice
Which information about the fuel oil that has been delivered does the BDN (Bunker delivery note) NOT
include?
1.-quantity….n
2.-density….n
3.-flash-point….y
4.-sulphur content….n
13.-good bunkering practice
is this statement about risk assessment true or false?
1.-risk assessment should take place as soon as the barge arrive….f
14.-good bunkering practice
The BDN ( bunker delivery note) must be kept on board for at least:
1.-3 years….y
2.-4 years….n
3.-5 years….n
4.-7 years….n
15.-good bunkering practice
drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about material safety data sheets.
Material safety data sheets detailing any DANGEROUS characteristics of the fuel oil should have been
received from the SUPPLIER in advance of the bunkering OPERATION, and the bunkering TEAM should be
made familiar with them.
1103-vessel general permit
1.-for which vessels greater than 79 feet is submission of a notice of intent (NOI) required in order to obtain
coverage under the VGP?
1.-Large fishing vessels….n
2.-merchant ships under 300 GT, with ballast water capacity of less than 8 cubic metres….n
3.-merchant ships of 300 GT or above, or whose ballast water capacity is 8 cubic metres or more….y
4.-all vessels, regardless of weight of ballast water capacity….n
2.-vessel general permit
true or false?
1.-the purpose of the VPG is to enable better control of pollution in US waters….t
3.-vessel general permit
true or false?
1.-annual inspections should be carried out in dry dock….f
4.-vessel general permit
VPG applies in waters:
1.-up to 1nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
2.-up to 3nm fromthe US coast and US inland waterways….y
3.-up to 12nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
4.-up to 20nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
5.-vessel general permit
inspections for effluent discharges should bee:
1.-every watch, weekly, quarterly and annually….y
2.-only weekly and annually….n
3.-only every watch and annually….n
4.-it is up to the EPA to carry out inspections, not the ship….n
6.-vessel general permit
if a discharge is made that could endanger health or the environment, what should you do?
1.-report it to the US coast guard within 7 days….n
2.-report it to the EPA within 24 hours….y
3.-report it to the EPA within 7 days….n
4.-report it to the company within 24 hours, and they will contact the US coast guard or EPA on the vessels
behalf….n
7.-vessel general permit
when should simple corrective actions such as housekeeping be carried out?
1.-immediately….y
2.-no longer than 2 weeks….n
3.-no longer than 3 months….n
4.-before the vessels is re-launched from dry dock….n
8.-vessel general permit
when should changes requiring new parts or equipment to be installed without dry docking be carried out?
1.-inmmediately….n
2.-within 2 weeks….n
3.-within 3 months….y
4.-within 6 months….n
9.-vessel general permit
all records must be kept on board from:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y
10.-vessel general permit
the penalty for knowingly making a false statement is:
1.-a fine of $5,000….n
2.-a fine of $10,000 and up to 2 years in prison….n
3.-a fine of $50,000 per day of violation and up to 3 years in prision….y
4.-a fine of $100,000 per day of violation and up 5 years in prison….n
11.-vessel general permit
under MARPOL annex I, the maximum permitted concentration of oil in any oily discharges is:
1.-<1 ppm….n
2.-<5 ppm….n
3.-<50 ppm….n
4.-<15 ppm….y
12.-vessel general permit
which vessels may discharge untreated oily bilge water?
1.-any vessel….n
2.-no vessel….n
3.-vessels under 400 GT….y
4.-Vessels greater than 400 GT….n
13.-vessel general permit
if the vessel is on an ocean going voyage, it can only discharge ballast water in VGP controlled waters if the
ballast water has been exchanged in waters more than:
1.-3nm from shore….n
2.-12nm from shore….n
3.-100nm from shore….n
4.-200nm from shore….y
14.-vessel general permit
is the following statement about the implementation of the VGP true or false?
1.-no vessel may discharge boiler blowdown within 1nm of federally protected waters under any
circumstances….f
15.-vessel general permit
true or false?
1.-vessels over 400 GT with graywater storage capacity should discharge when more than 1nm from shore
and while underway….t
16.-vessel general permit
true or false?
1.-if major hull cleaning is required in port, it should take place in dry dock….t
17.-vessel general permit
to minimise chain locker effluent, the anchor chains should be thoroughly washed down:
1.-after every hauling up….y
2.-once a week….n
3.-once a month….n
4.-before a entering port….n
18.-vessel general permit
firemain systems are included in the VGP because their water may contain:
1.-metal and chemicals….y
2.-bacteria and nutrients….n
3.-oil and grease….n
4.-solvents….n
19.-vessel general permit
in seawather cooling systems, the filters should be:
1.-cleaned regulary while in port….N
2.-cleaned regularly when more than 50nm from shor….Y
3.-replaced once a month….N
4.-maintained as usual. seawather cooling systems are not regulated by the VGP….N
20.-vessel general permit
Fouling organisms removed from the seawater piping systems should ideally be discharged when the vessels
is:
1.-more than 1nm from shore….n
2.-more than 3nm from shore….n
3.-more than 12 nm from shore….n
4.-more than 50 nm from shore….y
1115.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
1.-Once the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation deck ande securely bowsed, what
is the next step in the launching procedure?
1.-the sliphook of the gripes is connected….n
2.-the sliding beam davits are removed….n
3.-the boat is lowered to the waterline….n
4.-the person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare to board the evacuees….y
2.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
a fully enclosed ifeboats descent can be stopped at any time by:
1.-pulling on the painter….n
2.-signalling to the winch operator….n
3.-increasing the tension on the brake control cable….n
4.-releasing the tension on the brake control cable….y
3.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
the shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:
1.-rigid covers….n
2.-folding canopies….n
3.-a combination of rigid covers and folding canopies….y
4.-a fibreglass shell that is operated electronically and can cover up to 80% of the boat….n
4.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
when lauching a fully enclosed lifeboat, theFPDs should be removed….
1.-before the boat stars to descend….n
2.-just before the boat reaches the water….y
3.-once the boat is in the water….b
4.-FPDs should never be removed….b
5.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
what is a SART?
1.-A survival craft radar transponder….y
2.-a survival craft radio transmitter….n
3.-a search and rescue team on standby for maritime emergencies….n
4.-a search and rescue training exercise….n
6.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboat extremely carefully?
1.-because the boat is in the water and they could get wet….n
2.-because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle….y
3.-because it is extremely weight-sensitive….n
4.-because sudden movements could dislodge it….n
7.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
what are the gripes?
1.-they are special storage spaces onboard the lifeboat to hold food supplies….n
2.-they secure the lifeboat to the bollards on the main deck….n
3.-they aid in lowering the boat by using the winch mechanism….n
4.-they secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed….y
8.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
true or false?
1.-all on-load release system must have built in safeguards against early release….t
2.-when the boats is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released….t
3.-a freefall lifeboat should be abandoned if the engine does not start….f
9.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
if you lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long will the constant flow of air last?
1.-a minimum of 2 minutes….n
2.-a minimum of 5 minutes….n
3.-a minimum of 10 minutes….y
4.-a minimum of 20 minutes….n
10.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanism. which of the actions listed to avoid
this happening does NOT belong on the list?
1.-make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease all moving parts….
2.-check the manufacturers handbook on proper use of the mechanism….y
3.-make yourself fully aware of the correct procedures….n
4.-make yourself fully aware of the safety checks….n
5.-make yourself fully aware of all other launching equipment….n
11.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
when getting clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended procedure?
1.-make sur the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship….y
2.-head down wind of the ship and clear of its bow and stern….n
3.-stay within 100 metres of the ship, on the bow side….n
4.-stay within 100 metres of the ship, on the stern side….n
12.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
at what point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a fully enclosed lifeboat?
1.-once the bottom plugs have been set….n
2.-once the painter has been passed out of the forward hatch and secured….n
3.-once everyone is inside….y
4.-once the engine has been started….n
13.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?
1.-fire-protected lifeboats….n
2.-freefall lifeboats….y
3.-partially enclosed lifeboats….n
4.-fully enclosed lifeboats….n
1116-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
1.-which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release?
1.-all liferafts except the ones stored forward….y
2.-the ones stored insie the accommodation….n
3.-all throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release….n
4.-no throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release….n
2.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
how many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
1.-1….y
2.-2….n
3.-3….n
4.-25 person liferafts are too heavy to right….n
3.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
true or false?
1.-the priority after launching the liferafts is to get clear of the ship using any means possible….t
2.-marine evacuation system have the disadvantage that evacuees may have to enter the water before getting
into the liferaft….f
3.-once a throw overboard liferaft is in the water, you should rig the embarkation ladder….f
4.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
as evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew members sitting at the entrance should:
1.-check that they have removed all sharp objects from their pockets….n
2.-check that they have brought all the necessary survival equipment….n
3.-direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on….y
4.-direct the first evacuees to sit on the buoayancy chambers,and then the rest to left and right….n
5.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
what is the first action when boarding a throw overboard liferaft?
1.-use the painter to secure the liferaft alongside….n
2.-rig the ships boarding ladders….n
3.-check the liferaft for leaks and damage….y
4.-prepare the davit….n
6.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the browsing lines be used for?
1.-to pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding….y
2.-to act as a safety device when boarding….n
3.-there are no bowsing lines on davit-launched liferafts….n
4.-clearing the boarding area of obstacles….n
7.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
when launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft shackle out of the canister, what
should you do next?
1.-let it go….n
2.-hook it on to the davit….y
3.-hook it on to the browsing line….n
4.-you should never pull the liferafts shackle out of the canister….n
8.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
what is the first action is launching a davit-launched liferaft?
1.-remove the ships side rails….y
2.-remove the liferafts securing straps….n
3.-prepare the davit….n
4.-check that the launch area is unobstructed….n
9.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
where can you find out detailed information about liferaft equipment and operation?
1.-from the ships safety management system….n
2.-from the manufacturers websites….n
3.-from the muster list….n
4.-from the SOLAS training manual….y
10.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
why is it important to keep the bowsing lives within the raft?
1.-so that they can be used to tie the rafts together when the raft is clear….n
2.-so that they can be used to tie evacuees together it the liferaft should sink….n
3.-so that the davit hook can be raisedd ready for the next launch….n
4.-so that they will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while it is being lowered….y
11.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
how are throw overboard liferafts inflated?
1.-by releasing the senhouse slip….n
2.-by opening the valise….n
3.-by using the pump supplied….n
4.-by giving a strong pull on the painter at its full extent….y
12.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within:
1.-15 minutes….n
2.-30 minutes….y
3.-45 minutes….n
4.-one hour….n
13.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
when may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
1.-when you hear the general emergency signal….n
2.-when the person in charge of the liferaft gives the order….n
3.-when the master or their deputy gives the order….y
4.-when you judge that it is no longer safe to stay on the ship….n
14.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
what should you do if water enters the life raft?
1.-let it out, using the drain plug….n
2.-nothing. the raft will remain buoyant in any case….n
3.-bail it out as soon as possible, using the baler and/or sponge….y
4.-contact other liferafts in the vicinity for assistance….n
1117-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4.1.-There are four main dangers faced by evacuees in a survival craft. which item does not belong in this.
1.-drowning….n
2.-cold exposure….n
3.-lack of water….n
4.-lack of food….n
5.-inability to sleep….y
2.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
true or false?
1.-immersion suits should be put on and zipped up before entering an enclosed lifeboat….f
3.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
whats the recommended way of cooling yourself down in a hot climate when in a liferaft?
1.-by taking regular dips in the sea….n
2.-by using the battery-operated fan provided….n
3.-by deflating the liferaft floor….y
4.-by paddling the raft to create an air current….n
4.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
how long can a well-nourished person normally survive without water?
1.-24 hours….n
2.-3-4 days….y
3.-8-10 days….n
4.-1 month….n
5.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
how much water should be given per day after the first 24 hours?
1.-no rations are required for the first 5 days….n
2.-1 glass….n
3.-0.5 litre….y
4.-1.5 litres….n
6.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
look-out watches should be kept:
1.-24 hours a day….y
2.-during daylight hours….n
3.-at night….n
4.-at the discretion of the person in charge….n
7.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
which piece of equipment transmits a distress signal with your vessels unique serial number?
1.-SART….N
2.-radar reflector….N
3.-GMDSS….N
4.-EPIRB….Y
8.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
Which piece of equipment communicates with nearby vessels radar?
1.-SART….Y
2.-radar reflector….N
3.-GMDSS….N
4.-EPIRB….N
9.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
Which piece of signalling equipment is used for long range signalling?
1.-heliograph….n
2.-smoke canister….n
3.-parachute flare….y
4.-hand flare….n
10.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
what is the heliograph used for?
1.-to check the outside temperature….n
2.-to warm the emergency food rations….n
3.-as a first aid burns dressing….n
4.-as a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun….y
11.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
if you have had to enter the water, what is the best course of action?
1.-move as mucho as possible to keep your circulation going….n
2.-take off your boots or shoes….n
3.-find an object to climb on to….y
4.-keep your front into the wind and waves….n
12.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
which piece of signalling equipment will help helicopter pilots judge the surface wind speed and direction?
1.-smoke float….y
2.-heliograph….n
3.-parachute flare….n
4.-hand flare….n
13.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
whats the normal methodd of winching a single uninjured person into a helicopter from a ship?
1.-a highline….n
2.-a lifting stretcher….n
3.-a basket….n
4.-a rescue hook or strop….y
14.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
whats the minimum number of crew required in the rescue boat?
1.-2 people….n
2.-3 people….y
3.-4 people….n
4.-5 people….n
15.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
when launching a rescue boat, what shoul the ships speed be?
1.-no more than 2 knots….n
2.-no more than 5 knots….y
3.-no more than 7 knots….n
4.-no more than 10 knots….n
16.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
what is the function of the inside watchman on board an inflated raft?
1.-to prepare food and distribute the water….n
2.-to stop people from smoking….n
3.-to cheer up the occupants….n
4.-to check on injured personnel and on the state of the survival craft….y
17.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
shock is a state of collapse that may occur after any serious injury. how should victims be treated?
1-they should be kept cool, and if conscious placed in an upright position….n
2.-they should be kept warm, laid flat and, if conscious, given frequent sips of water- except for those with
stomach injuries….y
3.-they should be given a small dose of medicinal brandy, then laid flat and given rest….n
4.-none, wait untill rescue services arrive with speciallist personnel trained to deal with such a medical
emergency….n
18.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4
When would you fire the pyrotechnics after launching the lifeboats and liferafts?
1.-once every hour immediately after launching….n
2.-when you have sighted the rescue services or other ships/ aricraft….y
3.-once every hour during the hours of darkness….n
4.-on request from the rescue services….n
1119-MARPOL annex VI1.-For ships of 400 GT and above, the bunker delivery note must be kept on board for at least:
1.-1 year….n
2.-3 years….y
3.-5 years….n
4.-7 years….n
2.-MARPOL annex VI
on or after 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oil used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….y
4.-4.5% m/m….n
3.-MARPOL annex VI
what is the minimum allowed combustion chamber gas outlet temperature fot the incirenator?
1.-550°c….n
2.-850°c….y
3.-750°c….n
4.-650°c….n
4.-MARPOL annex VI
under the MARPOL Annex VI, there must be valid certification for the ships built on or after which date?
1.-19 may 2000….n
2.-19 may 2002….n
3.-19 may 2003….n
4.-19 may 2005...y
5.-MARPOL annex VI
tier III NOx limits apply to engines installed on ships on or after:
1.-1 january 2000….n
2.-1 january 2005….n
3.-1 january 2011….n
4.-1 january 2016….y
6.-MARPOL annex VI
what is the Tier II NOx limit where the engine speed is less than 130 rpm?
1.-17.0….n
2.-9.8….n
3.-14.4….y
4.-3.4….n
7.-MARPOL annex VI
true or false.
1.-the incineration of PCBs is never allowed under Annex VI….T
8.-MARPOL annex VI
True or false.
1.-annex VI applies to all merchant ship types, however large or small, except where specifically exempted….t
9.-MARPOL annex VI
which of the substances listed may be incinerated on board, as long as the ship is not in a port, harbour or
estuary?
1.-sewage sludge and sludge oil generated during normal shipboard operation….1
2.-waste, containing traces of heavy metals such as mercury and cadmium….n
3.-refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds….n
4.-MARPOL annex I,II ir III residues and any associated contaminated packaging….n
5.-exhaust gas cleaning system residues….n
10.-MARPOL annex VI
on or after 1/7/2010, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used inside an ECA is:
1.-1.00% m/m….y
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-2.0% m/m….n
4.-2.5% m/m…..n
11.-MARPOL annex VI
from the time the fuel oil is delivered, the fuel oil sample should be retained under the ships control for:
1.-at least 6 months….n
2.-at least 12 months….y
3.-at least 18 months….n
4.-at least 24 months….n
12.-MARPOL annex VI
until 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oil used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….n
4.-4.5% m/m….y
13.-MARPOL annex VI
true or false?
1.-when taking the fuel sample for MARPOL, care should be taken not to shake the primary sample quantity
before filling the retained sample container….f
4.-nobodys. the ship is not required to be equipped with a means of collecting VOCs….n
15.-MARPOL annex VI
true or false?
1.-vapour emission recovery regulations apply to tankers trading in all ports and terminals….f
16.-MARPOL annex VI
the sample of fuel oil required by annex VI should be not less than:
1.-400 ml….y
2.-300 ml….n
3.-200 ml….n
4.-100 ml….n
17.-MARPOL annex VI
refrigerant and fire-fighting systems using hydro-chlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) may be installed until:
1.-19 may 2010….n
2.-19 may 2012….n
3.-1 january 2016….n
4.-1 january 2020….y
18.-MARPOL annex VI
which of the substances listed is not controlled by MARPOL annex VI?
1.-halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs….n
4.-NOx….n
5.-H2S….y
6.-SOx….n
19.-MARPOL annex VI
is the following statement relating to annex Vi true or false?
1.-in order to obtain an EIAPPC, a re-survey is not needed for engines which have already been issued with
statements of compliance with the NOx technical code….t
20.-MARPOL annex VI
which atmospheric pollutant is released when crude oils or petroleum products are trasnported, loaded and
unloaded on ships?
1.-halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs....y
4.-NOx….n
5.-H25….n
6.-SOx….n
1122-FIGHTING POLLUTION1.-true or false.
1.-the ullage should be checked once the transfer has been completed….f
2.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
sewage which has not been communited or disinfected can only be discharged when the ship is more than:
1.-3 nautical miles from shone….n
2.-12 nautical miles from shore….y
3.-4 nautical miles from shore….n
4.-50 nautical miles from shore….n
3.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
the term segregated ballast means:
1.-a ballast system completely separated from the fuel oil system….n
2.-a ballast system completely separated from the cargo oil system….n
3.-a ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil systems….y
4.-none of the above….n
4.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
the disposal of plastics at sea is:
1.-allowed anywhere outside the designated special / areas….n
2.-allowed as long as they have passed through a comminutor….n
3.-allowed as long as the ship is no less than 12 nautical miles from the coast….n
4.-strictly prohibited everywhere….y
5.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
MARPOL annex V affects.
1.-all shipss ( unless expressly provided otherwise )....y
2.-ships of 150 GT and above….n
3.-ships of 500 GT and above….n
4.-ships carrying 12 or more passengers….n
6.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
according to HELMEPA, how many years does it take for a tin can do disintegrate in the sea?
1.-1 month….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-10 years….n
4.-100 years….y
7.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
MARPOL annex VI limits the emissions into the atmosphere from ships of:
1.-nitrogen oxides….y
2.-methyl bromide….n
3.-carbon dioxide….n
4.-ozone….n
8.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
improving the fuel efficiency of the vessel may require:
1.-use of weather routing….n
2.-just in time arriva….n
3.-improved hull maintenance….n
4.-optimum trim….n
5.-all of the above….y
9.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
true or false?
1.-cleaning materials should be ready to deal with any accidental spill….t
10.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
since 1 july 2010, whats has been the maximum permitted sulphur content of fuel oils in an emission control
area ( ECA) according to MARPOL annex VI?
1.-0.5%....N
2.-1.0%....Y
3.-1.5%....N
4.-4.5%...N
11.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
Which MARPOL annex deals with the regulations for the prevention of pollution of oil?
1.-annex I….Y
2.-annex II….N
3.-annex IV….N
4.-annex V….N
12,.FIGHTING POLLUTION
Ships many only discharge processed bilge water from machinery spaces into the sea if certain very specific
criteria are met. which of those listed is correct?
1.-the ship is sailing within a special area….N
2.-the ship is proceeding en route….Y
3.-the oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 100 ppm….N
4.-the ship has in operation equipment as required by regulation 16(5) of annex 1 to MARPOL….N
13.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
TRUE OR FALSE.
1.-during fuel transfer the deck scuppers should be plugged….t
14.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
All oily water discharge must be monitored to ensure that the oil content is not greater than the permitted limit.
this:
1.-10 parts per million….n
2.-15 parts per million….y
3.-25 parts per million….n
4.-50 parts per million….n
15.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
outside special areas, how many nautical miles from the nearest land can oil or oily mixtures be discharged
from an oil tanker?
1.-15….n
2.-35….n
3.-50….y
4.-75….n
16.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
the SEEMP is:
1.-a plan for monitoring environmental effectiveness on board….n
2.-a system for monitoring improvements is energy consumption….n
3.-a ship specific plan for managing the ships energy efficiency….y
17.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
true or false
1.-vessels smaller than 400 GT can discharge oil or oily mixture into the sea in the antartic area….f
18.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
true or false
1.-once transfer begins all the hoses and connections should be checked to ensure they are tight under
pressure….t
19.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
which of those listed is not a special area designated under MARPOL 73/78 annex 1?
1.-the mediterranean sea area….n
2.-the baltic sea area….n
3.-the red sea area….n
4.-the caribbean sea area….y
5.-the black sea area….n
20.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
which MARPOL annex deals with garbage and waste disposal from ships?
1.-I….N
2.-IV….N
3.-V….Y
4.-VI….N
22.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
MARPOL annex VI specifies that the bunker delivery note ( BDN) should be kept available for inspection for:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y
1174-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT1.-At which stage should garbage be separated out into different categories?
1.-at collection….y
2.-at processing….n
3.-at storage….n
4.-at discharge….n
2.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
is the following statement about the management of garbage true or false?
1.-every ship of 100 GT and above, every ship certified to carry 15 or more persons, and fixed or floating
platforms must all carry a garbage management plan….t
3.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
how long does a tin can take a biodegrade?
1.-1 year….n
2.-10 years….n
3.-25 years….n
4.-50 years….y
4.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false?
1.-offshore platforms may discharge non-harmful cleaning agents and addities in deck and external surfaces
wash water….f
5.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
after the last entry, the garbage record book must be kept on board the ship or platform and available
for inspection for a minimum of:




6 months
1 year
2 years
5 years
6.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
how much plastic garbage in the oceans is the estimated to have been generated by boats, ship and
platforms?
1.-80%....n
2.-100%....n
3.-20%....y
4.-50%....n
7.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false
1.-the garbage management plan must cover the collection, processing, storage and discharge of garbage….t
8.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
the revised MARPOL annex provisions for the discharge of garbage into the sea have applied since:
1.-1 july 2013….n
2.-1 january 2013….y
3.-1 january 2014….n
4.-1 july 2014….n
9.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false
1.-placards alerting crew and passengers to the discharge prohibitions must be prominently displayed on the
ship or platform….t
10.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
to what size does food waste need to be reduced before it can be discharged into the sea at the specified
distance from nearest land?
1.-1 cm….n
2.-50 mm….n
3.-25 mm….y
4.-there is no set size….n
in the garbage record book, each completed page must be signed by:




the person designated in charge of garbage management
the master
the safety officer
the officer of the watch
12.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
which of the areas listed is NOT specia AREA?
1.-The baltic sea….n
2.-the wider caribbean region….n
3.-the red sea….n
4.-the south china sea….y
13.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false?
1.-garbage may be discharged to sea if it presents an imminent health risk….t
14.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
at what distance from the nearest land may ships outside special areas discharge cooking, floating dunnage,
paper and lining and packing materials?
1.-discharge of these materials is prohibited anywhere….y
2.-12 nautical miles….n
3.-100 nautical miles….n
4.-there is no specified distance….n
15.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false
1.-once garbage has been incinerated, the resulting ash may be discharged into the sea….f
16.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
which of the items listed is NOT considered garbage under the revised MARPOL annex V regulations?
1.-food waste….n
2.-plastic….n
3.-domestic wastes….n
4.-operational waste….n
5.-fresh fish….y
6.-cargo residues…n.
7.-cooking oil….n
8.-fishing gear….n
17.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
true or false
1.-ships within special areas may discharge animal carcasses, on condition that it is as far from the nearest
land as possible and en route….f
18.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
at what distance from the nearest land may ships within special areas discharge non-hamful cargo residues
contained in wash water?
1.-3 nautical miles…n
2.-12 nautical miles….y
3.-100 nautical miles….n
4.-there is no specified distance….n
19.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
outside a special area, at what distance from the nearest land may ground food waste be discharged into the
sea by ships?
1.-3 nautical miles….y
2.-12 nautical miles….n
3.-100 nautical miles….n
4.-no specified distance….n
20.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
who has overall responsibility for garbage procedures on the ship of platform?
1.-everyone is equally responsible….n
2.-the officer of the watch….n
3.-the safety officer….n
4.-the person or persons designated in the garbage management plan….y
975-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING.
1.-When a piece of electrical equipment is being worked on, the electrician removes the fuses in order to:
1.-use them where they are more urgently needed….n
2.-isolate the area….y
3.-act as a warning….n
4.-avoid the power draining away….n
2.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
ventilation systems should be efficiently maintained so that:
1.-fumes are drawn off….y
2.-the power supply does not surge….n
3.-the negative ions in the air continue to circulate….n
4.-the cargo is not affected….n
3.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
true or false?
1.-it is dangerous to secure oxyacetylene cylinders….f
2.-first aid kits should never be touched except in an emergency….f
3.-the purpose of keeping guards in place on machines is so that loose clothing is not caught in the moving
parts….t
4.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
who is primarily responsible for good housekeeping on board ship?
1.-the master….n
2.-the safety officer….n
3.-the chief engineer….n
4.-everyone on board….y
5.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
true or false?
1.-when you have finished working below bottom plate level, the first thing you should do is dispose of the oily
rags and paper waste….f
2.-spilled oil is a fact of life on board ship and a certain amount left on the surfaces is acceptable….f
3.-spare parts for tools and machinery should be labelled….t
6.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
when working on a ladder, you should keep any necessary tools:
1.-in your pocket….n
2.-in a container….y
3.-in your backpack….n
4.-attached to your belt….n
7.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
if a colour-coded pipe has faded or become obscured, you should:
1.-give it a good wash….n
2.-repaint it in a similar colour….n
3.-report it for repainting….y
4.-grit-blast it to remove the colour altogether….n
8.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
true or false?
1.-warning signs should be placed in the vicinity of hot pipes….t
2.-oily rags and waste paper can cause fumes and fire from spontaneous combustion….t
3.-the chemicals required for cleaning equipment will have been approved for use on board andd will not
require any special precautions….f
977-PORT STATE CONTROL
1.-Which of the actions listed is NOT one that the PSCO can request following an inspection?
1.-rectify the deficiency at the next survey….y
2.-rectify the deficiency at the next port….n
3.-rectify the deficiency within 14 days….n
4.-rectify the deficiency before departure….n
2.-PORT STATE CONTROL
Which of the conditions listed would NOT constitute clear grounds for a more detailed inspection?
1.-crew members are not familiar with essential shipboard operational procedures related to the safety of the
ship or pollution prevention….n
2.-the crew accommodation is untidy and dirty….y
3.-the ships equipment does not appear to correspond substanially with the requirements fo the relevant
conventions….n
3.-PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false.
1.-inspectors may ask to see the crew undertaking drills….t
4.-PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-a surveyor from a recognised organisation may be asked to attend the ship and sort out remedial action
acceptable to the PSCO….T
5.-PORT STATE CONTROL
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Absence of valid ISM certification will lead to a detention….t
6.-PORT STATE CONTROL
inspection reports must be retained on board the ship:
1.-for 2 years….y
2.-for 3 years….n
3.-for 4 years….n
4.-until the next inspection….n
7.-PORT STATE CONTROL
which of the IMO conventions listed is NOT relevant for PSC inspection?
1.-loadlines….n
2.-SOLAS….n
3.-MARPOL….n
4.-intact stability code….y
4.-Colreg convention….n
true or false?
records of all drills should be retained for inspection

true
the PSCO will always want to start the inspection with:




a quick tour of the ship
a check of previous report forms
a through check of the ships documents
a check on how well the crew can communicate with each other
true or false?
inspections can only board ships during the day and by appointment

false
during the inspection the PSCO should be:



left to go wherever he likes on his own
accompanied by one or more ships officers
accompanied by adn AB
12.-PORT STATE CONTROL
Regulations concerning crew living and working conditions as well as the social rights of seawaters are
specified in a convention developed by:
1.-the international maritime organization (IMO)....N
2.-the international transport workers federation (ITF)....N
3.-the international chamber of shipping (ISC)....N
4.-The international labour organisation (ILO)….Y
13.-PORT STATE CONTROL
Which of the conditions listed do PSCOs commonly find as deficiencies?
1.-charts not properly updated….n
2.-lack of proper maintenance….n
3.-unsatisfactory life saving appliances….n
4.-oil record book not kept properly….n
5.-all of the above….y
14.-PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-if the master feels the detention order is unfair he should ignore it and raise it with his flag state at the next
port….f
15.-PORT STATE CONTROL
as a minimum the port state control officer will inspect:
1.-the ships certificate plus a general inspection of the ship which must include the bridge….n
2.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which may include the engine room, bridge, deck
and crew accommodation….y
3.-the ships certificates….n
4.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which must include crew accommodation….n
1171.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
1.-true or false.
1.-PSC examinations should last around 2-4 hours….t
2.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false.
1.-the accommodation and lliving quarters are private and not subject to PSC examinations….f
3.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false
1.-PSCOs examine the workings of the vessel and not its certificates and documentation….f
4.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false.
1.-PSCOs are concerned with the environmental impact of invasive species….t
5.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false
1.-detained vessels may challenge PSC findings….t
6.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
which of the IMO conventions listed is not relevant for PSC examination?
1.-loadlines….n
2.-SOLAS….n
3.-MARPOL….n
4.-Intact stability code….y
5.-COLREGS convention….n
7.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
during the examination the port state control officer should be:
1.-accompanied by one or more ships officers….y
2.-left to go wherever he likes on his own….n
3.-accompanied by an AB….n
4.-accompanied by the master throughout the entire process….n
8.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false.
1.-the PSC examination does not include items covered under the vessel general permit….f
9.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
in most cases the PSCO will want to start the examination with:
1.-a quick tour of the vessel….n
2.-a search for asian gypsy moth egg masses….n
3.-a thorough check of the ships documents….y
4.-a check on how well the crew can communicate with each other….n
10.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-crew members may be required to demonstrate equipment and procedures….t
11.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-PSC examinations are for officers only….f
12.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-PSCOs are concerned with vessels safety as well as the protection of US ports….t
13.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false?
1.-PSCOs do not have the authority to detain vessels that fail inspections….f
14.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
inspection reports must be retained on board ship:
1.-for 2 years….y
2.-for 3 years….n
3.-for 4 years….n
4.-until the next inspection….n
15.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
as a minimum the port state control officer will inspect:
1.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which must include the bridge….n
2.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which may include the engine room, bridge, deck
and crew accommodation….y
3.-the ships certificates….n
4.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which must include crew accommodation….n
16.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false.
1.-port state control (PSC) is administered by the united states coast guard and customs and border
protection….t
17.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
true or false….
1.-PSC examination can an will review log and record books….t
18.-US PORT STATE CONTROL
with regard to compliance with the ISPS code, when the PSCOs board the ship they will check to see if:
1.-the gangway watch is well maintained….n
2.-the watchstander has adequate knowledge of vessel security….n
3.-an accurate record of visitors is being kept….n
4.-they are greeted and guided to meet the master….n
5.-all the above are true….y
594.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
1.-The most important document that provides evidence of the quantity and condition of cargo carried on board
is the:
1.-ships delivery order….n
2.-bill of landing….y
3.-maters receipt….n
4.-letter of credit….n
2.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
true or false?
1.-minor cuts and bruises dont always have to be investigated and recorded….f
3.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
the main reason for a thorough investigation following an incident is to:
1.-find out who is to blame….n
2.-prevement it from happening again….y
3.-kepp good records of what occurs on board….n
4.-all of the above….n
4.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
any photographs or visual evidence should include:
1.-the correct time, time zone and date….n
2.-some indication of scale, where appropiates….n
3.-separate notes about what the images show and who made them….n
4.-all the above….y
5.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
true or false?
1.- poor record keeping and filing may show the company in a poor light if a case comes to court….t
6.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
why was there a lighting problem in the area where the incident ocurred?
1.-the lighting switch was defective….n
2.-nobody had fitted replacement bulbs….n
3.-because the electrician had failed to order replacement bulbs….y
7.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
true or false?
1.-crewmembers notebooks are private documents and cannot be considered as evidence….f
8.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
true or false?
1.-many ship data recorders only store data for no more than 12 hours….t
9.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
true or false?
1.-all items of evidence should be clearly labelled and securely packaged….t
10.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
which annex MARPOL deals with the prevention of pollution from garbage?
1.-annex I….N
2.-annex IV….N
3.-annex V….Y
4.-annex VI….N
11.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
The ships obligations relating to be carriage of cargo are defined in:
1.- the hague and hague-visby rules….Y
2.-the bill of lading….N
3.-the ships certificate of fitness….N
4.-SOLAS….N
12.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-altering of falsifying records may be regarded as a criminal offence….t
2.-PERMIT TO WORK
which of the statements does NOT belong in the list? A permit to work shoul state:
1.-the qualification of the crewmember(s) to do the work….y
2.-the precise location and details of the work to be done….n
3.-the measures undertaken to make the job safe….n
4.-the nature and resuts of any preliminary tests….n
4.-PERMIT TO WORK
what is the ddefinition given for the word risk?
1.-it describes what would happen in case of the sudden operational failure of a vital piece of equipment on
board ship….n
2.-it is a combination of two factors- the likelihood of something happening and the consequences if it does….y
3.-an unitended event involving death or injury, and/ damage to the ship, other property, or the
environment….n
4.-the outcome of an accident….n
6.-PERMIT TO WORK
nitrogen is one the greatest hazards of enclosed spaces because:
1.-it has no smell….n
2.-it gives no warning symptoms to an affected person….n
3.-a person can lose consciousness very quickly, sometimes in less than 20 seconds….n
4.-of all of the above….y
why entering cargo tanks or other enclosed spaces, what is the required oxygen content for safe:




21%
19%
24%.
18%
8.-PERMIT TO WORK
which of those listed is NOT one of the general safety management objectives of the ISM code?
1.-to provide for safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environments….n
2.-to specific who is competent to undertake hazardous procedures….y
3.-to stablish safeguards against all identified risks….n
4.-to continuosly improve the safety managements skills of personnel ashore and aboard….n
9.-PERMIT TO WORK
if you see or suspect and injury to someone in an enclosed space, what should you do first?
1.-enter the space to assess the situation more fully….n
2.-raise the alarm….y
3.-increase the ventilation….n
4.-check the instruction on the permit to work….n
698.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
1.-Are the statements about ballast water exchange true or false?
1.-ballast water exchange at sea can have a serious effect on the ships structural integrity….t
2.-sequential exchange of ballast water at sea must be carried out by emptying pairs of tanks at a time to
maintain the ships trim and stability….t
3.-correctly carried out, ballast water exchange at sea is a complete solution to the problem….f
4.-the master decides precisely how exchange at sea should be carried out….f
2.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
the IMO guidelines state the every ship that carries ballast water must have a ballast water
1.-true….y
2.-false….n
3.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
which of the factors listed is NOT relevant for port state authorities when implementing their ballast water
management programmes and assessing risks?
1.-highly disparate conditions between uptake and discharge ports….n
2.-ballast water age….n
3.-the type of vessel concerned….y
4.-knowledge of the presence of target organisms….n
4.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
in the black sea, the comb jelly became a major contributor to the rapid decline in the catch of wich particular
fish?
1.-salmon….n
2.-anchovy….y
3.-sturgeon….n
4.-sardine….n
5.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
which of the items listed is NOT included in the section of the IMO guidelines dealing with ships operational
procedures?
1.-precautionary practices, such as timely removal sediment….n
2.-port state considerations….n
3.-training and education….y
4.-ballast water management options….n
6.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the possible consequences of failing to
comply with the regulations in force:
Failure to comply may lead to PENALTIES and loss of revenue for the shipping company. The vessel may be
required to retain her BALLAST and load less cargo. The ship may not be allowed to DOCK or may be forced
to go out to sea and exchange her ballast water. There could be the risk of a heavy fine or even
IMPRISONMENT.
7.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about ballast water exchange.
Exchanging ballast at sea can affect the trim and DRAFT. The engine intakes may come out of the water. It
can set up STRESSES in the hull leading to structural FAILURE and could cause a loss of stability. Even in
calm weather, you must carry out this procedure with exreme caution.
8.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
The IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting from. Which of the items of
information listed does this form contain?
1.-vessel information….n
2.-voyage information….n
3.-ballast water management information ( numbers of tanks discharged )....n
4.-all the above….y
9.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
the IMO adopted a set or guidelines for the management of ballast water. at present, there are:
1.-mandatory….n
2.-voluntary….y
10.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
in order to replace approximately 95% of ballast water in a tank using the flow-through method of exchange,
the amount of water pumped through the tank must be:
1.-1.5 x the thanks volume….n
2.-2 x the tanks volume….n
3.-3 x the tanks volume….y
4.-4 x the tanks volume….n
11.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
what minimum distances does fra from shore mean for ships entering North american great lakes ports or
visiting ports further up the Hudson River than the George Washington bridge?
1.-100 miles….n
2.-200 miles….y
3.-300 miles….n
4.-150 miles….n
12.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
which of the actions listed does NOT form part of the duties of the designated ballas water management
officer?
1.-ensuring the exchange conforms to the plan….n
2.-preparing the ballast water declaration form prior to entering port….n
3.-maintaining the ballast water log….n
4.-deciding wheter sea conditions allow exchange to be undertaken safely….y
13.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
true or false?
1.-the use of clean, treated fresh water for ballast solves the potential problems with ballast water….t
2.-the problems with mechanical tratment of ballast water are expense and maintenance of the filters….t
3.-heating the water of bombarding it with ultra-violet light or ultra-sound will kill everything in the ballast
water….f
14.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
true or false?
1.-marine organisms carried in ballast water can damage the ship….f
2.-many countries have already introduced quarantine requirements for ballast water management…. t
3.-ballast water can carry disease from one part of the world to another….t
4.-organisms carried in ballast water which survive on discharge can multiply and cause serious environmental
problems….t
15.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
the current recommended method of ballast water management is:
1.-isolation….n
2.-treatment….n
3.-exchange….y
16.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.
part hour of the ballast water reporting form is a detailed history of the ballast water. which of the items of
information listed would NOT be required?
1.-the date….n
2.-the types of organism is the water….y
3.-the port….n
4.-the water temperature at the time of the uptake….n
792.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
1.-In the event of a spill, where would the master find the list of contacts who must be notified.
1.-in the P&A Manual….n
2.-in the SOPEP….y
3.-In the safety management system….n
2.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required when ballasting through the
cargo system.
Check that the COW SYSTEM has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the CARGO PUMPS have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been OPENED.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is STARTED.
3.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-In a real grounding, the master would instruct the engine room to stop the engine….t
2.-depending on the circumstances, in a genuine emergency, oil could get in through seawater intakes….t
3.-notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or probable discharge of
oil….t
4.-notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or probable discharge of
oil….f
4.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
who should be responsible for dealing with the press and media?
1.-the p&i club representative….n
2.-the ships master….n
3.-the first officer….n
4.-a responsible individual in the shore office….y
5.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
what do the initials SOPEP stand for?
1.-shipboard oil prevention emergency plan….n
2.-shipboard oil pollution emergency plan….y
3.-shipboard oil pollution energy plan….n
4.-shipboard oil prevention escape plan….n
6.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
the exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:
1.-having a collison….n
2.-running aground….y
3.-catching fire….n
7.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
true or false?
1.-most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties….f
2.-the majority of spills are less than seven tonnes….t
3.-the quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no special precautions need to be
taken before starting….f
8.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of preparing fo bunkering.
The hoses must BE CHECKED TO CONFIRM THEY ARE IN GOOD CONDITION.
All scuppers must BE PLUGGED.
The piping system must BE CORRECTLY LINED UP.
9.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
Above what size are ships, other than oil tankers, required to have a SOPEP?
1.-150 GT….N
2.-250 GT….N
3.-400 GT….Y
4.-500 GT….N
10.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.
The transfer must start at a LOW flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be CAREFULLY monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the MOORING ARRANGEMENTS.
Before disconnection all hoses must be DRAINED.
793-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
1.-OPA 90 applies to:
1.-all oil tankers over 150 GT entering US waters….n
2.-all ships flying the US flag….n
3.-all ships entering US waters whatever their flag….y
4.-all oil chemical tankers entering US waters whatever their flag….n
2.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
how far from the shoreline do US waters extend?
1.-50 nautical miles….n
2.-120 nautical miles….n
3.-150 nautical miles….n
4.-200 nautical miles….y
3.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
true or false?
1.-most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties….f
2.-the majority of spills are less than seven tonnes….t
3.-the quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no special precautions need to be
taken before starting….f
4.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of preparing for bunkering.
The hoses must BE CHECKED TO CONFIRM THEY ARE IN GOOD CONDITION.
All scuppers must BE PLUGGED.
Portable pumps must BE READLY AVAILABLE.
The piping system mus BE CORRECTLY LINE UP.
5.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.
The transfer must start at a LOW flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be CAREFULLY MONITORED.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the MOORING ARRANGEMENTS
Pipework and AIR EVENTS must be continually checked for oil details
Before disconnection all hoses must be DRAINED.
6.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required when ballasting through the
cargo system.
Check that the COW SYSTEM has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the CARGO PUMPS have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been OPENED.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is STARTED.
7.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
The exercise shown in the video s based on the ship.
1.-having a collision….y
2.-running aground….n
3.-catching fire….n
8.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
a full scale PREP to test both ship and shore based emergency response capabilities must be carried out:
1.-once a year….y
2.-three times a year….n
3.-once every two years….n
4.-twice a year….n
9.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
which of these statements about the qualified individual (QI) is NOT correct?
1.-the QI must speak fluent english….n
2.-the QI must be a member of the ships crew….y
3.-the QI has to be based in the USA….n
4.-The QI may authorise funds for the clean up….n
10.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
under OPA 90, who must be notified first in the event of an incident?
1.-the coast guard captain of the nearest port….n
2.-the shipping company headquarters….n
3.-the national response centre in washington D.C…..y
4.-the quaified individual….n
11.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
true or false?
1.-in a real emergency, it may be necessary to close ir vents to the engine room and to close seawater
intaks….t
2.-the OPA 90 vessel response plan must always be available in ENGLISH….t
3.-The crew would not normally be mustered until a detailed emergency response had been agreed with the
shore office….f
12.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
which of the actions listed are the responsibility of the command centre?
1.-the coordination and distribution of information concerning the actual and forecast condition of the spill….n
2.-the management of all tactical operations required to execute the companys general emergency response
plan….
3.-obtaining manpower, equipment, material, food, protective clothing and other facilities needed to support the
emergency response….n
4.-settling compensation claims….n
5.-all of the above….y
13.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
which of the items of information listed is NOT required by the standard from for reporting incidents to the
national response centre?
1.-the ships position….n
2.-the type of product….n
3.-the number of crew on board….y
4.-the quantity at risk….n
14.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
drag the corrects words
The unified command provides a top level forum for PRODUCING a cohesive plan of action.
All decisions, action and COMMUNICATIONSmust be logged on the ship.
Unless the master has serious concerns for safety on board, he will normally follow the ADVICE he recives
from the command centre.
The coast guard will take over operations only if they are asked of if they think things are getting OUT OF
CONTROL.
794-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
1.-Use your mouse to complete the following sentence correctly.
ABSORBENTS are substances which soak up oil loke a sponge.
ADSORBENTS are substances where oil sticks to the outside surface.
SYNTHETIC SORBENTS absorb a lot of oil and dont absorb water.
NATURAL PRODUCTS often soak up water as well as oil.
2.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
oil charges may pose health hazzards and these can be causedd through ingestion, skin contact of inhalation.
Which of these posess the greatest risk?
1.-inhalation….y
2.-skin contact….n
3.-ingestion….n
3.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
drag the correct words from the list
1.-The LOWER the viscosity of the oil, the faster it will spread.
Low temperatures will make oil MORE viscous, and spread more slowly.
The higher the ambient temperature and the greater the WINDS SPEED, the more oil will evaporate.
Over 36 to 48 hour, oil can mix with the sea to form a MOUSSE.
4.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Frequent or prolonged skin contact with benzene is not a cause of concern….f
3.-your sense of smell can become rapidly de-sensitised, particulary to hydrogen sulphide….t
4.-most oil charges do not require the use of any special protective clothing or equipment….f
5.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
drag the corrects words from the list to complete the check procedures required when ballasting through the
cargo system.
check that the COW SYSTEM has been isolated
check that the risers above the CARGO PUMPS have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been OPENED.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is STARTED.
6.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
Match the opening words with the closing words to identify some of the key aspects of preparing for bunkering.
The hoses must BE CHECKED TO CONFIRM THEY ARE IN GOOD CONDITION.
All scuppers must BE PLUGGED.
Portable pumps must BE READILY AVAILABLE.
The piping system must BE CORRECTLY LINED UP.
7.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties….f
2.-the majority of spills are less than seven tonnes….t
3.-the quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small so no special precautions need to be
taken before starting….f
8.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
when a spill moves with a tide or current at what percentage of the tide or current speed does it:
1.-3%....n
2.-10%....n
3.-50%....n
4.-100%....y
9.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
drag the correct words
The transfer must start at a LOW flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be CAREFULLY MONITORED.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the MOORING ARRANGEMENTS.
Pipework and AIR VENTS must be continually checked for oil leaks.
Before disconnection all hoses must be DRAINED.
944-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
1.-Under the MARPOL regulations, what is the maximum aoil concentration permitted in oily water that is to be
discharged?
1.-5 ppm….n
2.-15 ppm….y
3.-50 ppm….n
4.-100 ppm….n
2.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
which of the shipboard records listed are the authorities NOT likely to inspect if they board a vessel suspected
of causing pollution?
1.-tank sounding log….n
2.-cargo manifest….y
3.-garbage record book….n
4.-oil record book….n
3.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
under european pollution laws, a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to a pollution incident through
complicy. what does complicy mena?
1.-encouraring someone to commit and offence….y
2.-working alongside someone committing an offence….n
3.-suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it….n
4.-failure to understand the proper procedures for operating an anti-pollution system….n
4.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
why have so many states tightened up their maritime pollution laws?
1.-ship owners, operators and crews were unaware of the previous, existing laws….n
2.-ship ownes, operators and crews felt the existing laws did not cover modern vessels….n
3.-too many ship owners, operators and crews were ignoring the previous, existing laws….y
4.-the EU felt that ship owners, operators and crews were confused by existing laws….n
5.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
what might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the oily water separator?
1.-the system being very clean shiny….n
2.-elbows in pipelines….y
3.-maintenance records which are very well kept and fully up to date….n
4.-crewmembers who are very knowledge about how the system operates….n
6.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
if you are detained by the authorities because your vessel is accused of having caused a pollution incident,
how should you respond to their questioning?
1.-refuse to tell the investigation anything. Remain completely silent…n
2.-refuse to answer any questions about the pollution incident until you have been adsived by either the
master, the shipowners representative or their lawyers….n
3.-cooperate fully and answer all question truthfully….y
4.-the them you know nothing whatsoever about the incident, even if you do….n
7.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
if there is an accidental discharge while on the high seas, does it need to be logged?
1.-only if its more than 100 litres….n
2.-only if it is more than three times the prescribed ppm….n
3.-only if it is within 200 miles of land….n
4.-yes, all discharges must be logged….y
8.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
engineers believe that an oily water separator will become much more liable to failure after:
1.-5 years….n
2.-7 years….y
3.-10 years….n
4.-12 years….n
9.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
if you see or know of and unauthorised and illegal pollution discharge occurring from your vessel at sea, what
should do?
1.-make sure the master is told about it….y
2.-pretend you didnt see it or know about it….n
3.-make a note of when, where and how it occurred, and keep it yourself….n
4.-tell the person responsible to be more careful in future….n
10.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
what is the penalty for a pollution offence in european waters caused by serious negligence?
1.-1-2 years in prison….n
2.-2-5 years in prison….y
3.-5-10 years in prison….n
4.-maximum 15 years in prison….n
11.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
if a vessel causes an illegal pollution discharge, who may now be held accountable for it?
1.-the master….n
2.-the crew member responsible for the action which caused the discharge….n
3.-the ship owner….n
4.-everyone involved in operating the vessel….y
12.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
what might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the oil record book?
1.-entries made in pencil….n
2.-irregular spaces between entries….n
3.-pages tom out….n
4.-all the above….y
13.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
under european pollution laws a seafer can be found guilty of contributing to a pollution incident through
inaction: What does inaction mean?
1.-forgetting to operate an anti-pollution system at the correct time….n
2.-operating an anti-pollution system incorrectly….n
3.-being aware of a polluting discharge but not knowing it was illegal….n
4.-suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it….y
14.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
whath does canada legals principle of reverse onus mean in pollution cases?
1.-an accused seafer is innocent until convicted unanimously by a jury….n
2.-an accused seafer is guilty until proven innoccent….y
3.-an accused seafer is held liable for the costs of cleaning up the pollution….n
4.-an accused seafer is not responsible for pollution if he proves the owners knew the crew were acting
illegaly….n
15.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-satellite surveillance is increasingly being used to sport pollution and identify the vessels causing it….t
2.-chemical fingerprinting techniques can identify the source of pollutants and link them to specific vessels….t
3.-accidental pollution caused by damage to the ship or its equipment does not exempt the master from
liability….f
4.-port state control authorities often carry out concentrated inspection campaigns targeting compliance with
anti-pollution regulations….t
16.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
what is the minimum period for which the details in a vessels oil record book should be kept?
1.-six months….n
2.-one year….n
3.-two years….n
4.-three years….y
17.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.
which of the measures listed are being used in the fight against marine pollution?
1.-surprise inspections….n
2.-monitoring and tracking of suspect vessels….n
3.-extending investigations to an entire fleet….n
4.-encouraging whistleblowers to inform on illegal acts….n
5.-all of the above….y
1103-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
1.-For which vessels greater than 79 feet is submission of a notice of intent (NOI) required in order to obtain
coverage under the VGP?
1.-Large fishing vessels….n
2.-merchant ships under 300 GT, with ballast water capacity of less than 8 cubic metres….n
3.-merchant ships of 300 GT or above, or whose ballast water capacity is 8 cubic metres or more….y
4.-all vessels, regardless of weight or ballast water capacity….n
2.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
true or false?
1.-the purpose of the VGP is to enable better control of pollution in US waters….t
3.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
true or false.
1.-annual inspections should be carried out in dry dock….f
4.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
VGP applies in water.
1.-up to 1 nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
2.-up to 3 nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….y
3.-up to 12 nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
4.-up to 20 nm from the us coast and US inland waterways….n
5.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
inspections for effluent discharges should be:
1.-every watch, weekly, quarterly and annually….y
2.-only weekly and annually….n
3.-only every watch and annually….n
4.-it is up to the EPA to carry out inspections, not the ship….n
6.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
if a discharge is made that could endanger health or the environment, what should you do?
1.-report is to the US coast guard within 7 days….n
2.-report it to the EPA within 24 hours….y
3.-report it to the EPA within 7 days….n
4.-report it to the company within 24 hours, and they will contact the US coast guard or EPA on the vessels
behalf….n
7.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
when should simple corrective actions such as housekeeping be carried out?
1.-immediately….y
2.-no longer than 2 weeks….n
3.-no longer than 3 months…n
4.-before the vessel is re-launched from dry dock….n
8.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
we should changes requiring new parts or equipment to be installed without dry docking be carried out?
1.-immediately….n
2.-within 2 weeks….n
3.-within 3 months….y
4.-within 6 months….n
9.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
all records must be kept on board for:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y
10.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
the penalty for knowingly making a false statement is:
1.-a fine of $5,000…n
2.-a fine of $10,000 and up to 2 years in prison….n
3.-a fine of $50,000 per day of violation and up to 3 years in prison….y
4.-a fine of $100,000 per day violation and up to 5 years in prison….n
11.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
under MARPOL annex I, the maximum permitted concentration of oil in any oily discharges is:
1.-<1 ppm….n
2.-<5 ppm….n
3.-<50 ppm….n
4.-<15 ppm….y
12.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
which vessels may discharge untreated oily bilge water?
1.-any vessel….N
2.-no vessel….N
3.-vessels under 400 GT….Y
4.-Vessels under 400 GT….N
13.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
If the vessel is on an ocean going voyage, it can only discharge ballast water in VGP, controlled waters if the
ballast waters has been exchanged in waters more than.
1.-3 nm from shore….n
2.-12 nm from shore….n
3.-100 nm from shore….n
4.-200 nm from shore….y
14.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
true or false?
1.-no vessel may discharge boiler blowdown within 1nm of federally protected waters under any
circumstances….f
15.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
true or false?
1.-vessels over 400 GT with graywater storage capacity should discharge when more than 1nm from shore
and while underway….t
16.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
true or false?
1.-if major hull cleaning is required in port, it should take place in dry dock….t
17.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
to minimise chain locker effluent, the anchor chain should be thoroughly washed down:
1.-after every hauling up….y
2.-once a week….n
3.-once a month….n
4.-before a entering port….n
18.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
firemain system are included in the VGP because their water may contain.
1.-metal and chemicals….y
2.-bacteria and nutrients….n
3.-oil and grease….n
4.-solvents….n
19.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
in seawater cooling systems, the filters should be:
1.-cleaned regularly while in port….N
2.-cleaned regularly when more than 50nm from shore….Y
3.-replaced once a month….N
4.-maintained as usual. seawater cooling systems are not regulated by the VGP….N
20.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.
Fouling organisms removed from the seawater piping system should ideally be discharged when the vessel is:
1.-more than 1nm from shore….n
2.-more than 3nm from shore….n
3.-more than 12nm from shore….n
4.-more than 50nm from shore….y
IN what way are Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC´s) bad for the environment?




they cause acid rain
they pollute seawater
they create ground level smog
they are corrosive and flammable when they react with oxygen
2.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
who is responsible for ensuring that a ship is equipped with a means of collecting VOCs before it enters a port
or terminal where VOC controls are implemented?
1.-the designated person ashore….n
2.-the chief officer….n
3.-the master….n
4.-the owner….y
3.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
the entire pipeline network in the vapour collection system must:
1.-be marked with the word VAPOUR….n
2.-Be electrically bonded to the hull and electrically continuous….y
3.-consist of flexible hosing….n
4.-have a drain off at its highest point….n
With regard to tanker cargo operations, what is the colour scheme for marking the vapour control
manifold?




yellow with red bands
black with red bands
yellow with black bands.
red with black bands
5.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
the cylindrical safety stud on the manifold flange must be set:
1.-at the 6 o clock position….n
2.-at the 12 o clock position…y
3.-so that it is not contact with flange face….n
4.-paralle to the flange face...n
Under MARPOL annex VI the vapour flow capacity of each PV valve must be at least:




25% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
75% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
125% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
175% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
the lower low pressure alarms in inerted vessels should be set at not less than:




100 mm WG
150 MM WG
200 MM WG
250 MM WG
10.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Countries and terminals can demand that only tankers fitted with vapour collection systems may operate in
VOC control areas….t
12.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
true or false?
1.-tanks should always be opened for sampling when loading is 90% complete….f
at what point during loading should you take a break to check cargo, monitoring and alarm systems?




when the tank is around 20cm full
when the tank is around 2 m full
when the ullage space in the tank is 20 cm
when the ullage space in the tank is 2 m
19.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.
after loading non interned cargoes must be allowed to settle for how long before they are opened for sampling?
1.-5 minutes….n
2.-15 minutes….n
3.-30 minutes….y
4.-it is not necessary to wait….n
1119-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
1.-What is the tier II NOx limit where the engine speed is less than 130 rpm?
1.-17.0….n
2.-9.8….n
3.-14.4….y
4.-3.4….n
2.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
what is the minimum allowed combustion chamber gas outlet temperature for the incinerator?
1.-550°c….n
2.-850°c….y
3.-750°c….n
4.-650°c….n
3.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
true or false?
1.-vapour emission recovery regulations apply to tankers trading in all ports and terminals….f
4.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
true or false?
1.-the incineration of PCBS is never allowed under annex VI….T
5.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
TRUE OR FALSE.
1.-When taking the fuel oil sample for MARPOL, care should be taken not to shake the primary sample
quantity before filling the retained sample container….f
6.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
on or after 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….y
4.-4.5% m/m….n
7.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
on or after 1/7/2010, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used inside an ECA is:
1.-1.00% m/m….y
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-2.0% m/m….n
4.-2.5% m/m….n
8.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
the sample of fuel oil required by annex VI should be not less than.
1.-400 ml….y
2.-300 ml….n
3.-200 ml….n
4.-100 ml….n
9.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
from the time the fuel oil is delivered, the fuel oil sample should be retained under the ships control for:
1.-at least 6 months….n
2.-at least 12 months….y
3.-at least 18 months….n
4.-at least 24 months….n
10.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
which atmospheric pollutant is released when crude oils or petroleum products are transported, loaded and
unloaded on ships?
1.-halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs…y.
4.-NOx….n
5.-H25….n
6.-SOx….n
11.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
which of the substances listed may be incinerated on board, as long as the ship is not in a port, harbour or
estuary?
1.-sewage sludge and sludge oil generated during normal shipboard operation….y
2.-waste, containing traces of heavy metas such as mercury and cadmium….n
3.-refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds….n
4.-MARPOL annex I,II or III residues and any associated contaminated packaging….n
5.-exhaust gas cleaning system residues….n
Whose responsibility is it to ensure that before a ship enters a port or terminal where VOC controls are
being implemented, it is equipped with a means of collecting VOCs so that they can be returned to
shoreside facilities.?



the owners
the masters
the administrations
4.-nobodys. the ship is not required to be equipped with a means of collecting VOCs….n
13.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
true or false?
1.-annex VI applies to all merchant ship types, however large or small, except where specifically exempted….t
14.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
true or false
1.- in order to obtain an EIAPPC, a re-survey is not needed for engines wuhic have already been issued with
statements of compliance with the NOx technical code….t
15.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
for ships of 400 GT and above, the bunker delivery note must be kept on board for at least:
1.-1 year….n
2.-3 years….y
3.-5 years….n
4.-7 years….n
16.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
tier III NOx limits apply to engines installed on ships on or after.
1.-1 january 2000….n
2.-1 january 2005….n
3.-1 january 2011….n
4.-1 january 2016….y
17.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
until 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….n
4.-4.5% m/m….y
18.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
under MARPOL annex VI, there must be valid certification for ships built on or after which date?
1.-19 may 2000….n
2.-19 may 2002….n
3.-19 may 2003….n
4.-19 may 2005….y
19.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
refrigerant and fire-fighting systems using hydro-chlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) may be installed untill:
1.-19 may 2010….n
2.-19 may 2012….n
3.-1 january 2016….n
4.-1 january 2020….y
20.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
which of the substances listed is not controlled by MARPOL annex VI?
1.-Halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs….n
4.-NOx….n
5.-H25….y
6.-SOx….n
1122.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
1.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
is the following statement about bunkering true or false?
1.-cleaning materials should be ready to deal with any accidental spills….t
2.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
Since 1 july 2010, what has been the maximum permitted sulphur content of fuel oils in an emission control
AREA (ECA) according to MARPOL annex VI?
1.-0.5%....N
2.-1.0%...Y
3.-1.5%....N
4.-4.5%....N
3.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
improving the fuel efficiency of the vessels may require:
1.-use of weather routing….n
2.-just in time arrival….n
3.-improved hull maintenance….n
4.-optimum trim….n
5.-all of the above….y
4.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
the term segregated ballast menas:
1.-a ballast system completely separated form the fuel oil system….n
2.-a ballast system completely separeted from the cargo oil system….n
3.-a ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil system….y
4.-none of the above….n
5.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
sewage which has not been comminuted or disinfected can only be discharged when the ship is more than:
1.-3 nautical miles from shore….n
2.-12 nautical miles from shore….y
3.-4 nautical miles from shore….n
4.50 nautical miles from shore….n
6.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
which of those listed is not A SPECIAL AREA designated under the MARPOL 73/78 ANNEX 1?
1.-the mediterranean sea are….n
2.-the baltic sea….n
3.-the red sea area….n
4.-the caribbean sea area….y
5.-the black sea area….n
7.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
true or false?
1.-the ulllage should be checked once the transfer has been completed….f
8.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
the disposal of plastics at sea is:
1.-allowed anywhere outside the designated special area….n
2.-allowed as long as they have passed through a comminutor….n
3.-allowed as long as the ship is no less than 12 nautical miles from the coas….n
4.-strickly prohibited everywhere….y
9.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
all oily water discharge must be monitored to ensure that the oil content is not greater than the permitted limit.
this is:
1.-10 parts per million….n
2.-15 parts per million….y
3.-25 parts per million….n
4.-50 parts per million….n
10.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
true or false?
1.-once transfer begins all the hoses and connections should be checked to ensure they are tight under
pressure….t
11.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
MARPOL annex VI specific that the Bunker delivery note ( BDN ) should be kept avilable for inspection for:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y
12.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
true or false?
1.-during fuel transfer the deck scuppers should be plugged….t
13.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
MARPOL ANNEX VI limits the emissions into the atmosphere from ships of:
1.-nitrogen oxides….y
2.-methyl bromide….n
3.-carbon dioxide….n
4.-ozone….n
THE garbage record book must be open for inspection at all times and kept, after entry of the last
record, for a minimum of:




6 months
1 year
2 years
5 years
17.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
MARPOL annex V affects:
1.-all ships (unless expressly provided otherwise)....y
2.-ships of 150 GT and above….n
3.-ships of 500 GT and above….n
4.-ships carrying 12 or more passengers….n
18.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
outside special areas, how many nautical miles from the nearest land can oil or oily mixtures be discharged
from an oil tanker?
1.-15….n
2.-35….n
3.-50….y
4.-75….n
19.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
the SEEMP is:
1.- a plan for monitoring environmental effectiveness on board….n
2.-a system for monitorin improvements in energy consumption….n
3.-a ship specific plan for mnaging the ships energy efficiency….y
20.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
true or false?
1.-vessels smaller than 400 GT can discharge oil or oily mixture into the sea in the antartic area….f
21.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
which marpol annex deals with garbage and waste disposal from ships?
1.-I….N
2.-IV….N
3.-V….Y
4.-VI….N
22.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
According to HELMEPA, how many years does it take for a tin can to disintegrate in the sea?
1.-1 month….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-10 years….n
4.-100 years….y
3.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
which of these bellefs about a no-blame reporting system are justified?
1.-a no blame system that workers tend to get careless….n
2.-a no-blame system encourage the reporting of all incidents and nears misses without fear of
recrimination….y
3.-a blame culture is better as it forces everyone to take responsibility and obtain better risk managements….n
4.-the no-blame system helps to ensure safe running of equipments….n
4.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
what is the definition given for the word RISK?
1.-IT describes what would happen in case of the sudden operational failure of a vital piece of equipment on
board ship….n
2.-it is a combination of two factors-the probability of something happening and the consequence if it does….y
3.-an unintended event involving death or injury, and/or damage to the ship, other property, or the
environment….n
4.-the outcome of an accident….n
6.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
which of the questions below would not be appropiate?
1.-what do i particulary worry about as a manager or director?
2.-are there situations which i feel the need to manage myself because of fears that something migh go
wrong?
3.-are there activities which seem to create an above average number of problems, accidents, incidetns and so
on?
4.-how should i distribute the class survey schedule to the fleet?......y
7.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
which answer is the best
1.-to identify, assess and manage risks so as to reduce the chances of an incident….y
2.-to provide crucial feedback as to equipment reliability….n
3.-to identify errors managements….n
4.-to identify sub standard components of deck and engine machinery….n
8.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
what is the meaning of hazard
1.-the sequence of events leading to a hazardous situation or accident….n
2.-the consequence of an accident….n
3.-the means of controlling risk….n
4.-a potential to threaten human life, health, property or the environment….y
13.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
Systematic risk assessment involves sixs steps,
IDENTIFY ALL HAZARDS
ASSESS RISKS
EXPLORE CONTROL OPTIONS
WEIGH UP COSTS AND BENEFITS
SELECT AND IMPLEMENT
MONITOR AND RE-ASSES
15.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.
true or false?
1.-a collision involving a high speed ferry could have very serious consequences….t
2.-the fact that it may become more difficult to find well qualified officers in the future should not really affects
our business….f
3.-risks depend on circumstances so risk assessment must always be a dynamic process….t
4.-effective risk assessment can improve financial performance….t
1105 – Safe Mooring Practice (Edition 4) Test
* The first duty of a responsible officer in charge of mooring is to:
make sure there are enough crew members in the mooring party
ensure the right ropes have been selected for the mooring configuration
make sure the crew have been properly briefed
assess the risks involved in any given circumstances at the mooring station
* Ideally, what is the breaking load a carpenter stopper should have when used on a wire rope?
At least half that of the rope
The same as the rope
Twice that of the rope
Three times that of the rope
* Once the tug line is made fast, the ship’s speed should be controlled:
by the tug Master .
by the ship’s Master.
by the officer controlling the mooring party.
in consultation with the Pilot and the tug Master.
* When considering a general mooring pattern for a ship, how should breast lines be run?
As perpendicular to the ship’s centre line as far forward and aft as possible.
As perpendicular to the ship’s centre line and as close to midships as possible.
At as acute an angle as possible.
As close to the break of the forecastle as possible.
* How are winch pipelines best protected from damage by ice?
Apply grease to them
Drain all fluid out of them when not in use
Keep them covered up
Run a blowtorch along them every 6 hours
* Synthetic fibre ropes have a lower frictional hold against the bitts. How many turns on the leading bitt
are required before the figures of eight are formed?
1
4
2
3
* What is the best way to prevent mooring lines from freezing solid in bad weather?
Keep them stored below deck until they are needed.
Keep them well greased up.
Clear the ice from them daily using blowtorches and wire brushes.
Coat them with anti-freeze solution six hours before mooring operations begin.
* When tending lines alongside a berth, the most important general point to consider is to:
keep a note of any missing rat guards.
keep all lines correctly tensioned, avoid any slack lines.
make sure all lines are the same length.
ensure the officer of the watch is informed of anything unusual.
* What does MBM stand for?
Multiple Buoy Maintenance
Multiple Buoy Mooring
Minimum Berth Maintenance
Maximum Buoy Mooring
* What does SPM stand for?
Safe Port Mooring
Ship Purpose Mooring
Single Purchase Mooring
Single Point Mooring
* The effectiveness of the restraint provided by the mooring system may be reduced if:
the lines are too short.
the lines are too along.
the lines are at a very steep angle.
any of the above applies.
* In relation to tugs, what does girting mean?
A vessel capsized by its towline
Making a formal complaint of bad seamanship
A tug being forced backwards by its tow
A towline parting
* Who has the ultimate responsibility for giving orders regarding a towline attached to a ship?
The tug Master
The ship’s Master
The pilot
The vessel’s deck officer
* What is the usual order of engaging mooring lines?
Spring lines first, then breast lines, then head lines and stern lines
Head and stern lines first, then spring lines, then breast lines
Spring lines first, then head and stern lines, then breast lines
Head line first, then breast lines and spring lines together, then the stern line
As agreed between the Pilot and ship’s Master
* When unmooring a ship, who decides in which order the lines are to be let go?
The officer in charge of the mooring party
The Harbourmaster
The person in charge of the linesmen ashore
The Master in consultation with the Pilot
* When considering a ship’s mooring pattern, spring lines should be run:
as far apart as possible.
as close together as possible.
parallel to the ship’s longitudinal centre line.
perpendicular to the ship’s centre line.
* When considering a ship’s mooring pattern, in general, lines in the same service should be:
the same size and material.
of mixed materials.
of mixed size and material.
of any size and material.
* What is the greatest risk when mooring?
Cold weather making operations difficult
A tug’s lines breaking
A line parting due to overloading and snapping back
Shore fittings giving way
974 – Shipshape: A guide to Good Housekeeping – On Deck
* Are the statements about good housekeeping procedures True or False?
Used rags or pieces of cloth should not be stored in the paint locker because they may spontaneously ignite.
TRUE
Fire extinguishers should not be touched and do not need maintenance. FALSE
At sea, all loose items, ropes and wires on deck must be properly secured. TRUE
A certain amount of rust scale is acceptable and removal should only be undertaken at yearly intervals. FALSE
* Wich of the statements about drip trays is correct?
Drip trays at the manifold should be emptied of water regularly.
Drip trays at the manifold should be left covered so that they do not fill with water.
Drip trays should have a little oil in them as a protective lining.
Water must be left in the drip trays at the manifold so that they do not dry out and crack.
* The bilge system in the cargo holds should be tested by:
the Safety Officer while in port.
blowing through the system with compressed air.
filling the bilge wells with water and pumping them dry.
the manufacturer.
* During bunkering, scuppers should be:
plugged.
not plugged.
It does not matter, as long as there is a warning notice placed nearby.
sectioned off.
* When wet, fibre ropes should be:
stored in a box near a heat source.
wound on to a reel.
dried using a heater.
dried naturally by flaking them out on deck.
* Before storing, mooring wires should be:
well lubricated with fresh water.
greased.
left out and not stored, as they will decay in an enclosed space.
stored as they are.
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentence about Good Housekeeping.
Good Housekeeping should be seen as a work culture that encourages a strong sense of teamwork, where
everyone, regardless of rank, has responsibility and an important part to play in the running of the ship-seeing
the work not as a chore but as an integral part of good seamanship.
* Oil residues should be cleared up with:
soap and water.
the appropiate solvent.
a dry rag.
paraffin.
* Are the statements about painting procedures True or False?
You should take care not to paint over labels or lubrication nipples. TRUE
After the work is completed, you can put the brushes in open baths of thinners in the paint store as long as the
entilation is switched on. FALSE
When returned to the paint store, all cans and containers should be tightly closed. TRUE
* Who is primarily responsible for Good Housekeeping on board ship?
The master
The Safety Officer
The Chief Enginner
Everyone on board
* Which part of a winch, susceptible to salt water corrosion and stress, would cause serious
consequences if it failed during operation?
The control panel
The foundation plate
The side plates
976 – Shipshape: A Guide to Good Housekeeping – Accomodation and Galley
* Are the statements about good galley procedures True or False?
Meat and fish should be kept in the same cold store. FALSE
Floors should be cleaned at the end of every meal service and at the end of the day. TRUE
All food waste and packaging should be disposed of immediately in the nearest bin to hand. FALSE
Food in the cold stores must be used in the correct date order. TRUE
* Who is primarily responsible for Good Housekeeping on board ship?
The master
The Safety Officer
The Chief Engineer
Everyone on board
* Are the statements about Good Housekeeping procedures True or False?
Clothes should be left to dry over heaters. FALSE
Bullheads should be cleaned using a hose and water. FALSE
Regular maintenances of power points is necessary to avoid faulty wiring and bad earthing. TRUE
* Which Annex of MARPOL is concerned with waste and garbage?
Annex II
Annex VI
Annex IV
Annex V
* Why should the screens and fine mesh covers around ventilation apertures be inspected and cleaned?
To reduce the risk of fire.
To reduce the risk of static electricity.
To reduce the risk of a blockage.
To comply with ISPS regulations.
* Are the statements about Good Housekeeping in the gallery True or False?
Grease build up on the extractor filters is a potential fire hazard. TRUE
The gallery will not normally be an area that Port State Control inspectors bother to check. FALSE
Insecticides should never be used in galley areas. FALSE
* Whose responsibility is it to make sure taps and showers are properly turned off and notleft dripping?
The steward’s
The maintenance engineer’s
Everyone’s
It does not matter as all water recycles through the system
* Empty aerosol canisters should be disposed of by:
careful incineration.
being bagged up separately and taken ashore to an appropiate facility.
squashing them and putting them in with the cardboard waste.
placing them in the plastics bin.
929 – Crew Resource Management – Engine Room
* The potential for latent failures can be reduced by the proper application of workplace procedures
aimed at identifying risks and possible safety issues. Which of the activities listed is NOT relevant in this
context.
Risk assessment
Using ‘Permit to Work’ systems
Agreeing times of meal breaks
Preparing daily work plans
Toolbox talks
* Good planning means thinking ahead. Everyon should have a clear picture of what is likely to happen
during the shift. Select the correct words from the list to complete the sentences.
Ther should be no surprises and no secrets! Effective engine room resource management depends on sharing
information. ‘What if’ questions are important so that there are alternative scenarios in mind if circumstances or
priorities change during the planned sequence of work.
* The Reference describes the process of learning from experience to avoid repeating mistakes. Place
the steps from the list in the correct order.
1 the experience itself
2 reflection
3 generalisation
4 planning
* The reference suggests there are three barriers which can often make developing an effective engine
room team harder. These are:
Age, rank an culture.
Age, rank and certification.
Culture, rank and certification.
Culture, certification and age.
* The ‘traffic light’ approach is a system for dealing with material changes in circumstances. How many
changes are required for the light to change from green to amber?
1
2
3
* Select the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about managing hazardous situations.
To manage the situation requires controls over the hazards and defences for the targets. When the controls, or
the defences, or both fail we have an event – the target is damaged or, in the case of a near miss, threatened
by the hazard.
* Are the statements about work situations True or False?
You should follow the daily work plan regardless of the situation evolves. FALSE
Unwanted visitors or phone calls can distract you from the task in hand and start a chain of events leading to an
incident. TRUE
Contradictory readings from instrumetation are quite common and are not a cause for concern. FALSE
You should not ignore ‘gut feeling’ about a situation even if you are not sure what may be wrong. TRUE
Active failures are often due to a human error. TRUE
* To understand the potential for incidents on board you need to identify possible hazards and targets.
Which of the following are hazards and which are targets?
electricity Hazards
caustic substances Hazards
equipment Targets
other crew members Targets
noisy environments Hazards
equipment manuals Targets
very hot surfaces Hazards
* Are the statements about good communication in a team True or False?
You should not question the decisions of senior colleagues. FALSE
You should only provide information when it is asked for. FALSE
You should feel comfortable asking for help when you need it. TRUE
You should ask questions if there is something you don’t understand. TRUE
* Place the stages from the list in the correct order to show the build up that can lead to an event.
Latent failure  Preconditions  Active failure  Failed defences/controls  Event
948 – Target Tracking Devices (ARPA Update)
* Performance standards state that radar tracking devices must identify a vessel’s relative motion trend
within:
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
* What are the three required display range scales for ARPAs?
6, 12 and 24 nm
12, 18 and 36 nm
3, 6 and 12 nm
* The new IMO performance standards stipulate that historical information should be available in the
form of symbols that show at least:
2 equally time-spaced positions over the past 4 minutes.
4 equally time-spaced positions over the past 8 minutes.
10 equally time-spaced positions over the past 20 minutes.
* Are these statements about navigation True or False?
The prediction for CPA is based on the past history of tracked targets. TRUE
ECDIS is recognised by IMO as an aid for collision avoidance. FALSE
Ground stabilised True vectors are ideal for navigating around fixed objects. TRUE
Sea stabilisation shows own ship and all targets referenced to the sea, using input from satellite navigation
systems. FALSE
Manual acquisition is recommended for restricted coastal waters or in bad weather conditions. TRUE
* Which of the following pieces of information is not provided by ARPAs on tracked targets?
CPA
TCPA
bearing
vessel length
range
True track
speed
* The IMO requires there to be a trial manoeuvre facility included in all target tracking devices on:
ships over 500 GT.
ships over 10,000 GT.
no ships: it is just an optional extra.
* How many targets should radars fitted on ships over 10,000 GT be able to track simultaneously?
10
20
40
50
* AIS uses:
VHF frequencies and GNSS.
Radar and VHF frequencies.
Radar and GNSS.
* All new radar displays must be capable of displaying AIS targets from:
1 July 2002.
1 July 2005.
31 July 22007.
1 July 2008.
* Vessels capable of up to 70 knots must be able to handle craft with relative speeds of up to:
100 knots.
140 knots.
160 knots.
180 knots.
* Are these statements about the operation of target tracking technologies True or False?
In a guard zone, the arc and depth are pre-set by the manufacturer. FALSE
Due allowance should be made for the fact that CPAs can be out by more than 0.5 nm. TRUE
It is advisable to check whether the previous watch keeper has has altered the settings and displays. TRUE
If the speed through water input is incorrect, the True vector calculations will self-adjust. FALSE
Calculating the closest safe passing distance is dependent on the length of the vessels. TRUE
* After a rapid manoeuvre, the radar picture may not be accurate for up to:
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
737 – Making the ISM Code Work for You
* What is the meaning of the word “observation” as used in the ISM Code?
It is a formal report made by the safety officer during the monthly onboard safety meeting.
It is the ship’s position line as calculated by the navigatior at noon.
It is the master’s report to the Designated Person.
It is a statement of fact made during a safety management audit and substantiaded by objective evidence.
* The following benefits of a Safety Management System (SMS) were claimed in the video. Are the
statement listed True or False?
ISM provides a framework by which your SMS can not only operate, but also evolve, through input from everyone
involved, including all members of a crew. TRUE
The SMS can easily be tailored to specific company and shipboard needs and practices. TRUE
Inevitably the SMS will be a burden to a well-run ship. FALSE
The SMS will be no more complex or burdensome than you need it to be. TRUE
* What are the language requirements of the ISM Code?
Knowledge of the English language with emphasis on maritime terms.
Procedures written in a working language or languages understood by the crew.
Compulsory language lessons for all crewmembers.
A language requirement for crew members is not mentioned in the ISM Code.
* An Interim Safety Management Certificate (SMC) may be issued to new ships on delivery, and when a
company takes responsibility for the management of a ship which is new to the company. For what
period of time is such an Interim Management Certificate (SMC) valid?
One year.
Three months.
Six months.
One month.
* What is the minimum number of manuals required to complete a Safety Management System?
One safety management manual.
None are required.
As many volumes as needed to ensure that the requirements are met.
One manual is required for each operational process.
* Are the following statements about non-conformities True or False?
Full reporting with follow-up action reduces the number of incidents. TRUE
Non-conformity reporting creates troubles for the crew. FALSE
It encourages a no-blame culture where appropiate correction or training is likely to follow an identified error.
TRUE
* What is the purpose of appointing a Designated Person(s)?
To provide a link between the highest level of management ashore and those on board.
To write and maintain the Safety Management System.
To establish the person responsible for any non-conformity with the Safety Management System.
To motivate the crew in the observation of the company’s policies.
* What would a typical Safety Management System consist of?
An extensive number of procedures manuals explaining every detail of all work activities onboard ship and in the
office.
Clear procedures to ensure safety and enviromental protection is planned, organised, executed and checked in
accordance with legislative and company requirements.
A safety procedures manual as required in the form of a SOLAS training Manual.
A combination of the OPA90, the SOPEP and other training manuals.
* What is the advantage of fostering a “no-blame” culture?
It guarantees that he number of accidents will be reduced and in some cases eliminated altogether.
With a no-blame culture accidents and dangerous occurences will be swept under the carpet.
A “no-blame” culture will encourage the reporting of non-conformities which can help improve the safety
management system.
In a no-blame culture it is not necessary to report near misses.
* Complete the statements describing common factors in a successful approach to ISM Code
implementation by placing the correct words from the boxes in the sentences:
Senior management within the company must fully and enthusiastically support the code.
Foster a proactive attitude, and get people thinking about prevention.
Shore personnel must be as involved as those on board ship.
The company must foster a no-blame culture.
Non-conformities are treated as opportunities for improvement of the Safety Management System.
Don`t look at auditors with an “us and them” attitude, they are there to help you improve the system.
* Are the following marine standards mandatory or voluntary?
ISM Code Mandatory
STCW 95
Mandatory
ISO 9000
Voluntary
ISO 14000 Voluntary
* Complete the statements describing some of the points covered in the video by placing the correct
word from one of the boxes below into the sentences:
The ISM Code is a key element in accident prevention.
Common factors that can contribute to a system not doing what was intended include failure to get staff involved.
It is important to foster a no-blame culture.
Auditors can be helpful sources of information.
The safety management System should be a dynamic system.
An effective reporting system is one where reports are kept factual.
* The video states that the Safety Management System (SMS) needs to be a dynamic system. Why is this
True?
A dynamic system allows for adjustments and corrections when the ship’s operational and/or crew needs and
circumstances change.
In a dynamic system procedures remain fixed so that all concerned know what to expect and what is required.
A dynamic system encourages legislative changes.
A dynamic system avoids the need for check lists and reports.
* Complete the statement describing a major non-conformity by placing the correct words from the boxes
in the sentence:
A major non-conformity means an identifiable deviation which poses a serious threat to the safety of personnel
or the ship or a serious risk to the environment which requires immediate corrective action and includes the lack
of effective and systematic implementation of a requirement of the ISM Code.
* Complete the “Functional requirements for a Safety Management System” by placing the correct words
from the boxes in the sentences.
Functional requirements for a Safety Management System (SMS) must include:
A safety and environmental protection policy.
Instructions and procedures to ensure safe operation of ships and protection of the environment in compliance
with relevant international and flag State legislation.
Defined levels of authority and lines of communication between, and amongst, shore and shipboard personnel.
Procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with provisions of the Code.
Procedures to prepare for and respond to emergency situations.
Procedures for internal audits and management reviews.
* What is “non-conformity”?
A “non-conformity” describes the Safety Management System.
A “non-conformity” is a report criticising the excessive use of forms and paperwork.
A “non-conformity” describes the non-fulfilment of charter party requirements.
A “non-conformity” is an observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-fulfilment of a specified
requirement.
* Which one of the two statements given below is correct?
The ISM Code can only exist by the interaction of other parts of legislation and organisations.
The ISM Code must be implemented independently of other legislative or company requirements.
* The Code requires that safeguards are established against all identified risks. How would you go about
adentifying the risks associated with the operation of your ship?
Carry out a form of risk assessment.
Ask the safety officer for his/her views.
Rely on instinct and past experience.
Let the marine superintendent decide.
* The people interviewed in the video warned against some of the problems that can arise when
implementing the Safety Management System. Complete the statements describing what to guard
against, by placing the correct words from the boxes in the sentences.
Lack of clear individual responsibility for implementation.
Failure to involve staff.
Lack of appropriate training for key people.
Lack of commitment and/or direction.
Introduction of too many manuals and excessive paperwork.
* What procedures should be in place to deal with new personnel and personnel transferred to new
assignments related to safety and protection of the environment on board your ship?
They should have at least five years experience in the job before being assigned safety related duties as defined
in the STCW convention.
Safety related and environmental protection related duties must only be given to qualified watch keeping officers.
They must be given proper familiarisation with their duties.
They must be in possession of a valid first aid certificate.
738 – Wind, Waves and Storms Part 1 – Understanding Weather
* In the northern hemisphere, which direction will the wind normally be from just before a cold front
arrives?
SW
NW
SE
SE
* What is the biggest cause of high waves forming?
Depth of sea
Distance from nearest land
Wind
Latitude
* You observe a strong breeze of 25 knots accompanied by large waves with foam crests and some
spray. What Force on the Beaufort scale would this be rated at?
2
4
5
6
* What is the minimum sea water temperature necessary for a hurricane to develop?
7º
17º
26º
37º
ID 23246 Which of these is NOT a meteorological classification of an air mass?
Tropical maritime
Polar continental
Tropical continental
Equatorial maritime
* Tropical maritime air is usually:
cold, dry ans stable
cold, wet and stable
warm, dry and stable
warm, moist and unstable
* In which direction do jet streams normally travel?
West to East
East to West
North to South
South to North
* At roughly what latitude does the warm air, that has risen from above the equator, start to start to
descend forming a belt of high pressure circulation?
15º
25º
30º
45º
* The breaking of long waves can be triggered by their meeting the Continental Shelf. How deep is the
Continental Shelf?
100 metres
200 metres
250 metres
400 metres
* What distance must visibility be reduced to before water vapour is classed as fog?
500 m
1000 m
1500 m
2 km
* Artic air is usually:
cold and dry
cold and wet
temperate and wet
freezing and sharp
* In which direction does the Coriolis force deflect winds in the southern hemisphere?
To the left
To the right
Clockwise
Anticlockwise
* Buys Ballot’s Law says that if seafarer faces the wind in the southern hemisphere then the area of low
pressure will be:
Directly ahead
Directly behind
To the left
To the right
* A depression is formed when:
polar continental air meets polar sea air
warm, damp air meets cold, dry air
any two air masses meet
two masses of tropical continental air meet
* Use the labels to correctly identify the fronts on the map.
* What is the most importan way of using air pressure measurements to predict bad weather is coming
?
Noticing when the pressure reading hits 1000 mb
Noticing a steady, rapid fall in air pressure
Noticing a steady rise in air pressure
Noticing the air pressure level hasn`t changed by more than 1 mb in 24 hours
* What is a growler?
A Canadian term for a hurricane
An instrument for measuring sound dictance in fog
An unexpected large wave
A small iceberg
* During which month do most tropical storms form in the northern hemisphere?
May
August
September
December
* What is normally the air pressure at sea level?
13 mb
103 mb
1013 mb
1310 mb
928 – Anchoring Safely
* What is the standard length for a shackle of cable?
20 metres
25 metres
27.5 metres
28.5 metres
* Most windlasses are currently designed to cope with a vertical lift of the anchor and cable through a
maximum water depth of:
60 metres
82 metres
90 metres
110 metres
* Drag the names from the list to indicate the appropriate parts on the diagram.
* Roughly how many times stronger than the holding power of the brake is that of the bow stopper?
1.15
2.0
1.25
1.5
* As the ship nears the anchorage, the anchoring plan will need to be amended to incorporate:
local weather and sea conditions.
other ships in the anchorage.
local navigation warnings and regulations.
advice from pilot or VTS.
all of the above.
* The U-turn method of anchoring makes use of the fact that the force required to move the ship in a
straight line is much greater than that needed to turn the vessel, by applying a force at right angles to
the stern. Roughly what is this factor?
1.5
2
2.5
3
* Are the statements about windlass operation True or False?
Slipping of the brake can generate heat which will cause the brake to fade. TRUE
The windlass brake is designed to arrest the motion of the ship. FALSE
On larger vessels the brake should always be manned by two people. TRUE
To avoid the parts seizing, brake use should ideally be practised at least once a month for each windlass. TRUE
* Are the statements about windlass operation True or False?
Excess loads can lead to metal fatigue. TRUE
The walking out of cable, out of the vertical, is well within the capability of the windlass. FALSE
The windlass must be checked repeatedly at every anchorage. TRUE
Cable should be paid out using the windlass motor. FALSE
* Drag the appropriate words from the list to complete the sentences about anchoring.
As the ship approaches the anchorage the cables stopper is removed and the brake is…released.
Safe anchoring demands precision…timing and accurate observation from all involved.
When walking back with the gear engaged, it is important to match the…sternway with the speed at which the
cable is paid out.
* What is the ‘as new’ lifting power of the anchor windlass specified in Class Rules for a ship of
150,000dwt?
10.6 tonnes force
32 tonnes force
38 tonnes force
480 tonnes force
* What is the anchor usually made of?
Mild steel
Cast iron
Stainless steel
Forged bronze
* Are the statements about anchor watch and security True or False?
If the ship moves sideways it could be a sign that the anchor is dragging. TRUE
Once the ship is securely anchored the signals can be taken down. FALSE
The Master should be informed of any changes that could affect the vessel. TRUE
It is important to check that any craft approaching or people trying to board are legitimate visitors with appropriate
identification. TRUE
* What is the number of the Colreg Rule that applies to anchored vessels?
20
28
30
32
1151 – Hydrodynamics and Interaction
* Is the following statement about interaction True or False?
The effects of interaction significantly raise the risk of collision in confined waters. TRUE
* Is the following statement about Bernoulli’s effect True or False?
If the speed triples, Bernoulli’s effect increases by a factor of nine. TRUE
* Is the following statement about overtaking True or False?
Overtaking another vessel from astern should be planned to maximise the passing distance. TRUE
* Is the following statement about navigation True or False?
When a vessel is navigating ahead in a straight path, the water flow around the hull is practically symmetrical.
TRUE
* Which of the actions listed is NOT recommended for frothy wash?
Reducing engine revolutions
Sound emergency stations
Reduce speed
Change propeller pitch
* Which of these aspects of pressure zones around a moving vessel is NOT true?
In confined and shallow waters, sub-surface fields become critical.
The high pressure field at the stern breaks up before it is fully formed.
A sudden speed reduction eliminates the chance of directional control problems.
All pressure zones shrink as the ship decelerates.
* Where can a tug get a ‘free ride’?
The ‘Dead Spot’
The ‘Silent Spot’
The ‘Free Spot’
The ‘Sweet Spot’
* In which order should these statements be placed to illustrate Bernoulli’s effect?
4 Any two unfixed objects will be drawn closer by a low pressure zone.
1 Water forced to flow through a narrow channel will acelerate as it enters the constriction and slow down as it
exits.
3 As a result, at the point of greatest constriction a low pressure zone is generated.
2 At the point of greatest constriction the water flow is fatest and the pressure is reduced.
* Which of the items listed is NOT a factor in ship squat?
Angle to bank
Speed
Vessel sitting lower
Change of trim
* In bank suction, where is the low pressure zone most noticeable?
The quarter
The stern
Amidships
The bow
* How do you recognise flocculation of bottom mud?
Excessive aeration
Changes in engine sound
Unusual readings on echo sounder
Stern wave foamy in shallow water
* Is the following statement about Bernoulli’s effect True or False?
If the speed doubles, Bernoulli’s effect increases by a factor of eight. FALSE
* When starting the ‘Texas Chicken’ manoeuvre, why does each vessel make a slight alteration to
starboard?
It alters ship squat.
It allows for greater control of speed.
It creates rising pressure.
It disrupts the pressure field symmetry around both vessels, allowing their bow pressure fields to mutually reject,
so preventing a collision.
* How far away can a Very Large Crude Carrier affect the handling of another ship in open water?
Three miles
Half miles
Ten miles
Five miles
* Is the following statement about overtaking True or False?
The overtaken vessel may slow down as it is affected by the pressure wave from the passing ship. FALSE
* Hydrodynamics is the study of what?
The compression of fluids
Fluids in transition
The relationship between different kind of fluids
Fluids in motion
* Is the following statement about interaction True or False?
A vessel’s relative speed and distance has no real impact on interaction. FALSE
* Is the following statement about navigation True or False?
When navigation occurs close to a bank, the high pressure water pushing the vessel away from the bank is
known as bank suction. FALSE
1158 – Safe Handling and Use of Hazardous Stores and Paints On Board
* A workplace assessment may be valid:
for 6 months.
for 12 months.
for the duration of the job only.
Indefinitely.
* Is the following statement about paints and solvents True or False?
There is no risk of toxic inhalation when painting outdoors. FALSE
* Is the following statement about safety procedures True or False?
It is advisable to project the skin from chemicals by moisturising as often as possible and using suitable pre-work
barrier creams. TRUE
* Where should the officer in charge look for the product’s unique hazards identification?
In the company’s Safety Management System.
Ask the Chief Engineer.
On the product can or drum.
In the MSDS.
* Is the following statement about safety procedures True or False?
Water should always be used if there is a fire. FALSE
* Is the following statement about safety procedures True or False?
Static electricity can only accumulate in electrical equipment. FALSE
* Is the following statement about safety procedures True or False?
The officer in charge of the job should find out about the sea state and the ship’s course for the period of work.
TRUE
* Is the following statement about safety procedures True or False?
The workplace user instructions should be handed out to people who will be working with the products. TRUE
* Who is responsible for making sure that the completed work is recorded in the Planned Maintenance
System?
The standby person.
The officer in charge.
The safety officer.
The Chief Engineer.
* What is the control measure for the risk of a static electrical charge?
Earthing all the equipment.
Isolating all the machinery.
Putting up warning signs.
Continuous ventilation.
* Is the following statement about paints and solvents True or False?
To prevent the buil-up of explosive concentrations of solvent vapour, ventilation is required. TRUE
* Is the following statement about safety procedures True or False?
Spillages identified on the MSDS as marine pollutants should be collected with absorbent material and then
burnt. FALSE
* What is the first thing the standby person should do if they become aware that someone is unconscious
in an enclosed space?
Find the nearest person to assist.
Notify the officer in charge.
Assemble the fire fighting equipment.
Enter the space to lend assistance.
* What type of glove tends to be best for working with chemical products?
Leather
Kevlar
Fabric
Rubber/plastic/PVC
* Who should supervise a job in an enclosed space?
The standby person.
The officer in charge.
The safety officer.
The Chief Engineer.
* Which of the conditions listed is NOT a health risk from chemicals in paints, adhesives, solvents or
detergents/cleaners?
Cancer
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
Frostbite
Nausea
Asthma
Skin conditions
* How should ventilation be used to control the risks when painting in an enclosed space?
Ventilation before the job starts.
Ventilation before and during the job.
Ventilation before, during and after the job.
Ventilation is not a control measure for painting in an enclosed space.
* Is the following statement about safety procedures True or False?
After finishing the job, you should shower as soon as possible, and change all your clothing. TRUE
* Is the following statement about paints and solvents True or False?
Most solvent-thinned paints and paint solvents are volatile and extremely dangerous when their vapours are
exposed to open flames, sparks or very high temperatures. TRUE
* Why is it important for paint cans and solvents to be securely stored when in the paint store?
Because a dangerous interaction could be caused if different products should come into contact.
Because they could cause a dangerous imbalance of weight.
Because they could create an obstruction.
They do not need to be securely stored.
1129 – Coping with Stowaways (Edition 2)
* How does the FAL Convention define a stowaway?
Anyone who is on board without the permission of the Master or owner, but has not paid for their passage.
Anyone who hides on board without the permission of the Master or owner, and who Is still on board after the
ship has left port.
Anyone who is on board after the ship has left port, but does not have the correct documents, such as a passport,
visa, or health certificates.
Anyone who hides on board without the permission of the Master or owner, and intends to remain on board after
the ship has left port.
* Who has overall responsibility for preventing stowaways getting on board when a ship is in port?
The harbour authorities
The agent
The ship’s Master and crew
The owners
* When is the best time to begin to prevent stotaways getting on board?
Before the ship arrives at a high-risk port.
While the ship is in a high-risk port.
Just before the ship sails from a high-risk port.
Before the ship arrives at a low-risk port.
* If stotaways are found on board while the ship is in port, who should the Master inform?
The company Security officer (CSO)
The Ship’s agent
The P&I Club representative
The Flag state
All the above
* If stowaways are found while the ship is still in port, what is the Master’s best course of action?
Sail on schedule, even if the stowaways are still on board.
Refuse to sail until the port authorities take the stowaways off.
Consult with the Company Security Officer and the ship’s owners or managers about whether to sail or not.
Negotiate with the stowaways to persuade them to leave.
* From whom should you seek information about stowaway risks at a particular port?
The P&I Club
The local agent
Your CSO
The port authority
All the above
* If stowaways are found on board after the ship has left port, who should the Master inform first?
All the above
The company’s agent at the last port of call
The Company Security Officer (CSO)
The P&I Club
* It is safest for stowaways to be searched by:
the Master and another officer.
two crew members, one to search and the other to observe.
a crew member wearing protective clothing.
a single crew member using a hand-held metal detector.
* It is important to take possession of any papers or documents a atowaway is carrying because:
the costs of repatriation can then be charged to the stowaway.
relatives must be informed of the stowaway’s location.
the ship’s flag state will then be able to issue a passport to the atowaway.
identifying the stowaway makes it easier for them to be disembarked.
* While stowaways are on board ship they are entitled to:
secure locked accommodation and an interview with the Master.
secure locked accommodation and an interview with the Master.
Food and water, reasonable accommodation, a lifejacket, and instruction in safety procedures.
the same food and accommodation as a crew member.
* Who pays all the costs of keeping stowaways and returning them to their country of origin?
The immigration authorities at the port of disembarkation
The ship’s owners or managers
The ship’s owners or managers
The government of the stowaways’ country of origin
* Stowaways should never, ever, be allowed to:
work.
leave their locked accommodation.
walk on deck.
eat hot food.
* At what point should a stowaway be told they will be repatriated?
As soon as they are discovered
As late in the process as possible
Never
When being interviewed to establish their identity
* When a ship docks with stowaways on board, who decides whether they can disembark?
The ship’s Master
The Company Security Officer (CSO)
The P&I correspondent
The port immigration authority
* When a ship docks with stowaways on board, who decides whether they can disembark?
The United Nations
The Nautical Institute
Lloyd’s Register
The International Maritime Organization
1182 – Piracy & Armed Robbery (Edition 3)
* What es the IRTC?
A corridor in the Gulf of Aden with strategically positioned naval and military support.
An office in Dubai to which the ship should report when entering the HRA.
An EU NAVFOR centre that provides 24 hour manned monitoring of vessels transiting the Gulf of Aden.
A set of guidelines that bring together lessons learned by the international shipping industry about safe transiting
of the HRA.
* Is the following statement about citadels True or False?
A citadel is a space with good ballistic protection, no access through an external hatch or door and from which
the ship can be controlled. TRUE
* Is the following statement about citadels True or False?
If a citadel or a team of armed guards is used, it is not necessary to implement the other protective measures.
FALSE
* Ideally, at what point should the risk assessment for transiting the pirate zone take place?
1 hour before entering the pirate zone
At the point of charter or fixing of the voyage
After registering with MSC-HOA
A special pirate zone-related risk assessment is not necessary
* When engaging in evasive manoeuvres, the aim is to:
keep the stiff in the bow positive pressure zone.
keep the skiff in the aft positive pressure zone.
keep the skiff in the negative pressure zone.
suck the skiff into the bow.
* Is this statement about security procedures True or False?
When assesing the risks for transiting a pirate zone, you need to analyse the background factors that could
shape the situation including visibility, sea state and traffic patterns. TRUE
* Which of those listed is NOT a service offered by unarmed guards?
Auditing the ship for BMP
Advising on ship hardening
Providing specialist equipment and training for crew
Firing warning shots into the air with dummy rifles
Analysing security intelligence
* What is MSC-HOA?
A corridor in the Gulf of Aden with strategically positioned naval military support.
An office in Dubai to which the ship should report when entering the HRA.
An EU NAVFOR centre that provides 24 hour manned monitoring of vessels transiting the Gulf of Aden.
A set of guidelines that bring together lessons learned by the international shipping industry about safe transiting
of the HRA.
* Is this statement about security procedures True or False?
Companies must ensure that a UKMTO Vessel Position Reporting Form – Initial Report has been submitted to
MSC-HOA before the ship enters the HRA as defined in BMP. FALSE
* What is UKMTO?
A corridor in the Gulf of Aden with strategically positioned naval and military support.
An office in Dubai to which the ship should report when entering the HRA.
An EU NAVFOR centre that provides 24 hour manned monitoring of vessels transiting the Gulf of Aden.
A set of guidelines that bring together lessons learned by the international shipping industry about safe transiting
of the HRA.
* When armed guards have been engaged, who has the over-riding authority on board?
The Guard Team Leader
The CSO
The Master
The OOW
* Is the following statement about security measures True or False?
The best positions for CCTV are to cover the poop deck, the rear of the bridge and the Safe Muster Point or
citadel. TRUE
* Which of those listed is NOT a fundamental requirement of BMP?
Use CCTV
Implement ship protection measures
Register at MSC-HOA
Report to UKMTO
* When did Somali pirates begin attacking international ships?
In the early 1960s
In the early 1990s
In the early 2000s
In 2008
* A safe Muster Point is:
a safe area low in the ship that offers the maximum physical protection.
a safe area on deck.
a safe area on the bridge.
another term for ‘citadel’.
* Most pirate attacks take place:
in the Bay of Bengal.
off the coast of South America.
In the South China Sea.
off the coasts of West and East Africa.
* Is the following atatement about security measures True or False?
If suspicious activity is apotted, the Master must raise the alarm and report immediately to UKMTO/IMB and the
shipping company. TRUE
* Is the following statement about security measures True or False?
A piracy drill should be held as soon as the ship is inside a pirate zone. FALSE
* At what point should you secure the citadel, if you have one?
When the crew are inside, waiting for the bridge team to arrive
When the piracy alarm sounds
When everyone, including the armed guards, is inside
When the crew and bridge team are inside, but not the armed guards
* Is this statement about security procedures True or False?
If using razor wire, this should be loosely attached so that you can take it off quickly after use. FALSE
* What form of lighting should the ship leave on at night while transiting a pirate zone?
No lights at all
All available lighting
Searchlights only
Navigation lights only
675 – Fire Fighting at Sea Part 3: Command and Control at the incident
* Complete the following entences.
The stability of the ship is principally the responsibility of the bridge team.
Limiting the amount of water used helps maintain stability.
Damping down should be continued until all signs of heating have ceased.
After a fire has been extinguished, a 24 hour fire watch should be kept on the area.
* Are the following statements True or False?
Regular fire drills must be held. They must be taken seriously and must include everyone on board. TRUE
Some drills should cover training in the use and maintenance of equipment. TRUE
When holding drills take the opportunity to test communications. TRUE
After each drill, hold a review with everyone to discuss how succesful it was and how it could be improved. TRUE
* On mustering, the leader of each party must first of all:
report to the bridge.
appoint an assistant.
take a roll call.
determine the incident site.
* Complete the following sentences about Emergency Parties.
On ships with only one emergency party, the Chief Officer will usually take charge.
Selection should be done on the basis of experience, physical condition, age, specialist knowledge.
The parties should be kept together as units.
Each unit has specific duties & people should not deviate from them unless
Having formed the parties, the next task is to ensure crews are fully trained & know their role & responsibilities,
mustering arrangements & the location of equipment.
* Complete the following sentences on the use of Breathing Apparatus.
Remember that if a fire is contained or damped down, the amount of smoke will initially increase.
If Breathing Apparatus is used, at least two fire fighters must work together.
The amount of air breathed differs from person to person, and according to the exertion.
When selecting a BA team, at least one member of the team should be familiar with the area.
* All communications should follow standard procedures. In the examples given below, which item does
NOT belong?
Identify the transmitting station.
Keep the communication as brief as possible.
Use standard phrases at dictation speed.
Do not interrupt the speaker.
Shout out as loudly as you can to overcome background noise.
* What is a good way to describe a ship when fighting a fire on board?
Potentially a six-sided box with four sides and a top and bottom through which fire can spread.
A floating hazard where the possibility of explosion must be considered.
A vessel divided by fire-proof bulkheads in such a way that fire will be contained to distinct and pre-determined
fire zones.
An independent unit where outside assistance can never be provided.
* Is it good prectice to send one man into a smoke filled area wearing the Breathing Apparatus (BA) while
a second person remains outside the area on stand-by?
It is a rule that when only two BA sets are available on board, one man entry is essential with the second man
on stand-by.
It is preferable that BA should be used in teams of not less than two fire fighters working together.
Never send two persons together into an area in case an explosion injures both persons.
There are no preferred methods of working with BA sets.
* The first task of command and control is to provide the three C’s of naval strategy. These three
processes must be established quickly. Which process does NOT belong?
Communication
Co-ordination
Chaos
Control
* When the BA team has withdrawn, what action should be taken by the team leader?
Instruct the BA wearers to change the bottles, then relax until called again if necessary.
Check the equipment personally and ensure that it is safe for future use.
Thoroughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the bridge.
Make a note, act as you think best, and keep information to yourself as others, such as the bridge team, must
not be overloaded with information.
* Can you leave the control of the BA set to the wearer alone?
Yes, the wearer is best placed to know what is happening under given conditions and control must be left to
them.
All that is needed is for the wearer to be trained and understand how to read the gauge.
There should be a person assigned to check donning, testing procedure, life-line tending and elapsed time.
Such controls are not practical during actual emergency situations, but are helpful during training sessions.
* What is the first duty of an emergency party’s group leader?
Waste no time and tackle the emergency. For instance in case of fire, extinguish it, then report to the bridge.
To muster his/her group at the pre-arranged muster station and check that all are safe, and to report.
Proceed straight to the problem site and await the arrival of his/her emergency party.
Check the emergency equipment under his/her control.
* The video showed the activities of the Engine Room Party, the First Aid Party, and the
attack(Emergency) Party. Based on what you saw, complete the following sentences.
The officer in charge of the Attack Party makes an immediate assessment of the situation and commences
appropriate initial activities, keeping in regular contact with the bridge.
The initial tasks of the Engine Room Party are to check that all pumps are fully operational & that the emergency
pump and generator are functioning correctly.
The First Aid Party musters at the exit to the hospital where they collect stretchers, blankets first aid kit, & a
resuscitator pack.
The attack Party, or Emergency Party, has the task of directly fighting the fire.
* Complete the following sentences about the Support Party.
The vital task of the support party is to back up the fire fighters by fetching additional equipment.
The support party may also be called upon to stop the fire spreading by undertaking boundary cooling or
boundary starvation, or by removing nearby fuel.
The support party are also responsible for preparing the lifeboats & other life saving appliances, & bringing up
extra water and blankets, VHF radios, SART’s, & the EPIRB.
On hearing the alarm, the support party musters at its designated station, reports to the bridge & awaits
instructions.
* Are the following statement True or False?
If the fire is in the Engine Room, the Second Engineer will automatically take over because intimate knowledge
of the location is essential. TRUE
On ships with only one Emergency Party, the Chief Officer will usually take charge. TRUE
The members of the Emergency Parties must be frequently exchanged to ensure that all crew members become
familiar with all fire fighting duties on board ship. FALSE
969 – The Shipboard Management Role (Edition 2)
* It is advisable to report and analyse hazardous occurences because:
it shows whose fault they were.
It shows that the management team take safety seriously.
it is obligatory.
it identifies potential problems.
* Is this statement about the duties of the Shipboard Management Team True or False?
They are responsible for the safety of visitors to the ship. TRUE
* Is this statement about safety management True or False?
Record-keeping is an important part of the Safety Management System for routine operations. TRUE
* Risk assessment should be applied to:
new equipment only.
new procedures only.
new procedures are equipment only.
any new or existing procedure or equipment.
* Is this statement about the duties of the Shipboard Management Team True or False?
They should welcome positive safety ideas from all quarters. TRUE
* Safety Officers should carry out inspections in each area of the ship that is accessible by crew
members:
at least once a week.
at least once a month.
at least once every 3 months.
there is no recommended frequency for inspections.
* Who is responsible for setting in place an appraisal system to review staff safety awareness and
identify any training needs?
The shore office
The safety officer
The Master
The safety committee
* Is this statement about the duties of the Shipboard Management Team True or False?
They should rely on the safety officer to decide what training is needed. FALSE
* Which of the following actions is not integral to the continuous improvement cycle?
Policy is planned and set.
Management processes are implemented.
Shore office in notified.
The effectiveness of management processes is measured.
Any adjustments are made.
* Is this statement about the duties of the Shipboard Management Team True or False?
They should ensure the display of safety information when and where appropriate. TRUE
* The investigation of accidents is required under:
ISPS (The International Ship and Port Facility Security Code).
the ISM Code (The International Management Code for the Safe Operation of Ships and for Pollution Prevention)
the Load Line Regulations.
the investigation of accidents is not required by any Convention, but is encouraged on a voluntary basis by the
International Maritime Organization.
* What is the most important factor in maintaining a safe shipping operation?
Clear safety manuals
Severe punishment for those who break the rules
Regular audits
Management commitment
* The most vital aspect of the DPA’s safety management role is to:
carry out risk assessments.
ensure that the ship’s SMS is operating as it should.
publish a policy statement demonstrating company commitment to safety.
approve tasks.
* Is this statement about safety management True or False?
The Shipboard Management Team should not delegate any tasks to junior officers. FALSE
* Safety committee meetings should be attended by:
the person chairing the committee, plus representative from different operational areas, ranks and nationalities,
and anyone else who would like to come.
heads of department only.
the Master and heads of department only.
the regular committee members only.
945 – Pilot on Board! – Working Together
* When should a Master intervene during pilotage to take back Conduct of Navigation from the Pilot?
When the Master believes an accident imminent but can be avoided if he gives the correct orders.
When the Pilot does not accept the suggestions of the Master.
When the Master believes the Pilot’s actions will put the vessel behind schedule.
When the Master disagrees with the Pilot’s explanation for what he is doing.
* What words from the Master to the Pilot formally mark the point when the vessel’s navigation becomes
the responsibility of the Pilot?
The ship is yours, Pilot
You have Conduct of Navigation, Pilot
Over to you, Pilot
Captain’s off the bridge
* Who certificates and licenses a Pilot?
The International Maritime Organization
Individual Flag States
Local Competent Pilotage Authorities
The International Maritime Association
* Who should meet the Pilot at the embarkation point?
The Master
The officer of the Watch
Any deck officer
A deckhand who speaks English
* Groundings or collisions while a Pilot is on the bridge are most likely to occur because:
the Pilot made a wrong decision.
the Bridge Team acted without the knowledge or approval of the Pilot.
communications between the Pilot and Bridge Team were poor.
the Master was not been on the bridge at the time of the accident.
* Which of the factors listed should be considered by the Master and Pilot in any risk assessment of the
pilotage?
The availability of tugs
The likely traffic conditions
The vessel’s manoeuvring characteristics
All the above
* Which of those listed is NOT a recognised type of Pilot?
Reef passage Pilot
Company choice Pilot
Night passage Pilot
Estuarial Pilot
* Is the following statement about good teamwork on the bridge True or False?
Members will ask questions when they don’t understand something. TRUE
* Is the following statement about good teamwork on the bridge True or False?
Members will offer each other assistance if they think it is needed. TRUE
* For which of the items listed does it remain the Master’s responsibility to give orders to the crew while
under pilotage?
The vessel’s course
The vessel’s speed
VHF contact with VTS
Mooring party arrangements for docking
* Who can countermand a Pilot’s orders?
The Master
Any one of the bridge Team
Nobody
The Master and the Chief Engineer together
* What is a VDR?
Video digital recorder
Voyage data recorder
Voyage damage record
Vector display radar
* Which of these items does NOT usually feature in the Master-Pilot Exchange?
The cargo manifest
The Master berth-to-berth plan
The Pilot’s pilotage plan
The Pilot Card
* Which of the items of information listed would a Pilot need to know before taking over Conduct of
Navigation?
The vessel`s last port of call
Its cargo
How long each member of the Bridge Team has been with the vessel
Any defects or problems with the vessel’s steering or propulsion systems
* Who specifies the standards required of local Pilots?
The International Maritime Organization
Individual Flag States
Local Competent Pilotage Authorities
The International Maritime Pilots Association
* Which of the items listed must be ready at the Pilot’s embarkation point?
Lifeline and lifebuoy
Signal lamp
Protective overalls
Ship’s safety instructions
* Is the following statement about good teamwork on the bridge True or False?
Members will never question the Master’s orders. FALSE
* As well as his own language, which other basic languages or communication ability is a Pilot expected
to have?
English and the IMO’s Standard Marine Communications Phrases
English, Spanish and the IMO’s Standard Marine Communications Phrases
English, Spanish, German and the IMO’s Standard Marine Communications Phrases
The IMO’s Standard Marine Communications Phrases
* What information should the Pilot be given first when they reach the bridge?
The ship’s Passage Plan
The Pilot Card
The manoeuvring Booklet
The ship’s position, heading and speed
* Who is in command of a vessel when under pilotage?
The Pilot
The Master
Both the Pilot and Master together
Whoever is senior officer on the bridge
* From which side of a vessel do Pilots normally prefer to board?
Port
Starboard
Lee
Windward
* Who is in command of navigation when under pilotage?
Whoever is senior officer on the bridge
The Master
Both the Pilot and Master together
The Pilot
946 – Safe Gangway & Ladder Operations
* The pilot ladder should not be longer than:
9 metres
12 metres
15 metres
20 metres
* Spreaders should be not more than:
2 steps apart.
4 steps apart.
6 steps apart.
8 steps apart.
* If it is not possible to repair or replace a defective part, what should you do?
Paint it red as a warning that it is unsafe.
Attach a notice stating that the device must not be used and the reason why.
Verbally inform all relevant personnel that it is defective.
* Are the statement about pilot ladders and pilot boarding True or False?
It is the pilot’s duty to board regardless, even if he is not happy with boarding arrangements. FALSE
Aluminium is likely to corrode less when in direct contact with mild steel. FALSE
Pilot ladders are made of lightweight aluminium so that they can easily be lifted by crew members. FALSE
* Are the statements about gangways and accommodation ladders True or False?
Accommodation ladders are strong enough to withstand any number of people using them at once. FALSE
While in port, it is the port authority’s responsibility to ensure that gangways and accommodation ladders are
safely rigged. FALSE
Assessing the risks involved is essential, when any accommodation ladder, gangway or pilot ladder is about to
be operated. TRUE
* What should the pilot ladder be illuminated by?
The ship’s lights only.
A light attached to the ladder itself.
A light positioned forward of the ladder.
A light positioned aft of the ladder.
* The bottom platform of the accommodation ladder should be angled to:
10º
20º
not angled at all – completely flat
55º
* How often should accommodation ladder wires be renewed?
At least once every 2 years.
At least once every 4 years.
At least once every 5 years.
Not at all. They are durable and will last for the life of the ship.
* The clear step width between the side ropes should be at least:
40 cm wide.
60 cm wide.
80 cm wide.
* Accommodation ladders should be inclined to an angle of not more than:
35º
55º
45º
65º
* Cruise liners board their passengers by port controlled gangways or ship gangways.
False
True
* In ships with a freeboard of more than 9 metres, the accommodation ladder should be lowered to:
5-7 metres above the water line.
8-10 metres above the water line.
the water line itself.
* It in not necessary to inspect the underside of gangways or accommodation ladder ladders, as they
are protected from corrosion and wear and tear.
True
False
* Handhold stanchions should be attached to the bulwark at around what level?
10 cm above the bulwark top.
100 cm above the bulwark top.
10 cm below the bulwark top.
* Manufacturer’s accommodation ladder equipment manuals are kept:
in the accommodation area.
in box next to the equipment.
on the bridge/Chief officer’s office.
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about risk assessment.
The risks involved in operating and using an accommodation ladder, gangway or pilot ladder must be assessed,
to minimise the likelihood of accidents. Whether at sea or in port, it is good semanship to make sure that the
correct procedures and safety measures have been applied. Risk assessment is an ongoing requirement to
ensure that correct procedures are established and followed.
1142 – Leadership and Team Working Skills – Vessel Resource Management Series Part 1 – An
Introduction to Resource Management
* If teamwork is divided into four main stages – forming, storming, norming and performing, what
qualities does the third stage – norming – require?
An ability to resolve differences
Flexibility and imagination
Confidence
Friendlines and openness
* When it comes to a commitment to safe working practices, what should good leadership concentrate
on?
Technological skills
Delegation
Time spent on safety drills and briefings
Self-reflection
* Is the following statement about resource management principles True or False?
Good communication and effective communication are always the same thing. FALSE
* A powernap should take no longer than:
ten minutes.
fifteen minutes.
twenty minutes.
half an hour.
* Which of the activities listed would NOT be considered part of situational awareness?
Categorising information
Anticipating a future state
Interpreting information
Gathering information
* In Closed Loop Communication you should always:
keep to the facts.
maintain good eye contact.
be clear.
be brief.
do all of the above.
* There are four stages to managing your workload successfully. What is the first stage?
Be organised
Remain calm
Remain alert
Familiarise yourself with the ship and your responsibilities
* The ideal manager is a SMART one. What does the A stand for?
Achievable
Adaptable
Accountable
Avoidable
* Is the following statement about resource management principles True or False?
The greatest resource in resource management is the equipment you use and the colleagues you work with.
FALSE
* Is the following statement about resource management principles True or False?
A virtuous circle is when one stage leads naturally onto the other to become a natural flow. TRUE
* Situational awareness was first developed by which industry
The TV industry
The IT industry
The aviation industry
* Which of these definitions is wrong?
Sensory Memory – holds information for brief periods of time.
Working Memory – holds information about your technical skills.
Long Term Memory – this holds all the information acquired during your life.
1131 – Boarding and Leaving a Vessel at Sea
* What should the personnel transfer area on the launch be protected with?
Lifebuoys
Fenders
Non-slip paint
Stanchions
* What form of communication is preferable between the launch and ship
Hand signals
The spoken word
VHF radio
Flags
* Is the following statement about boarding procedures True or False?
It’s important to keep your body as far away as possible from the ladders as you climb. FALSE
* A combination arrangement is:
a ladder which can be dismantled into several parts.
an accommodation ladder and fall arrestor.
a rope and plarform fitted with stanchions.
a pilot ladder and accommodation ladder.
* What should be the angle of slope for the accommodation ladder?
Less or equal to 45 degrees
Less or equal to 55 degrees
Less or equal to 65 degrees
Lees or equal to 75 degrees
* What should you do once you’ve been in structed to start boarding?
Stand on the bottom of the ladder until the receiving officer instructs you to move.
Climb 5 steps to take you clear of the launch.
Climb 10 steps then look round to check with the deckhand that it’s safe to proceed.
Climb without stopping until you get to the top.
* Is the following statement about boarding procedures True or False?
If the launch that approached has not been in communication with the ship, nobody from it should be allowed to
board. TRUE
* When leaving the ship and arriving at the bottom of the ladder, you should:
turn around so that you’re facing the launch.
move below the level of the launch deck.
step directly on to the deck.
step first on to the railings and then the deck.
* Is the following statement about boarding procedures True or False?
As a passenger to be transferred to the ship, it is your duty to board regardless, even if you are not happy with
boarding arrangements. FALSE
* When should the PFD be worn?
When getting on to and off the launch
Throughout the operation from boarding the launch onwards
When you leave your seat on the launch to go to the personnel transfer area
A PFD is not necessary and could obstruct your passage up the ladder
* How high should the handrails on the after deck be?
Handrails are not required on the after deck
A minimum of 50 cm
A minimum of 75 cm
A minimum of 1 metre
* Which of the protective items listed is not required when boarding a vessel?
Safety harness
Hard hat
PFD
Non-slip footwear with low heels
* The launch must be manned by at least:
1 person.
2 people.
3 people.
5 people.
* What boarding arrangement does the IMO consider safest for boarding personnel at sea, on ships with
a freeboard of 9 metres and above?
The combination arrangement
The accommodation ladder
The transfer basket
The pilot ladder
* Why is climbing a ladder up a ship’s side more risky while the ship is underway than in port?
Because the launch and ship are both moving independently in the water
Because the same safety rules do not apply
Because the ladder is freely swinging around
Because of the lack of supervision
* When you reach the top of the ladder, how should you step across?
You should wait to be lifted on to the deck using the hoist.
You should step backwards on to the deck.
You should make sure you move both feet at once and then both hands.
You should step across moving one hand or foot at a time.
* Which of the items of equipment listed is NOT needed on the launch?
EPIRB
SART
Fire extinguishers
Lifebuoys
Survival craft
Heliograph
Distress signalling flares
* What is the maximum climb up a ship’s side?
5 metres
9 metres
12 metres
18 metres
* Is the following statement about boarding procedures True or False?
The Master of the launch should make the final decision about which side of the ship should be used for boarding.
TRUE
* How many people are allowed on the pilot ladder at one time?
1 launch deckhand, 1 passenger, and 1 receiving ship’s officer
1 launch deckhand and 3 passengers
2 passengers
1 passenger
* Is the following statement about boarding procedures True or False?
The accommodation ladder should lead forward. FALSE
1144 – Leadership and Team Working Skills – Vessel Resource Management Series Part 3 – The voyage
Plan: Executing, Monitoring and Chart Correction
* Is the following statement about executing the voyage plan True or False?
The rules for dealing with traffic in coastal waters are to be found in ColRegs. TRUE
* When making corrections on charts, you should first:
line up the tracing accurately using the reference points.
check you have an up to date list of lights, fog signals and radio signals.
start from the correction in the Notices to Mariners.
work out the clearest way the correction can be put on the chart.
* To avoid relying entirely on ECDIS whilst route monitoring what other options should you consider as
back up?
Maintaining a regular look-out
Keeping a navigation log
Checking the automatic ECDIS log
Ensure target tracking devices are set with an appropriate safe time
All of the above
* Where would you find details of the type of service available in different ports?
The ship’s SOLAS training manual
The Admiralty List of Radio Signals
MARPOL
The charterer’s instructions
* Is the following statement about executing the voyage plan True or False?
Once the ship has set off, it is the principal task of the Watchkeeping Officer to navigate and monitor the ship’s
progress according to the voyage plan with absolutely no deviation from it. FALSE
* What size pen is recommended to correct paper charts to put in new information?
.05nm
.15nm
.25nm
.5nm
* Which of these watchkeeping tasks after departure are carried out purely automatically?
The Echo Sounder
Maintaining awareness of immediate hazards
The ECDIS monitoring route
The Autopilot
* Which of the services listed do VTS operators not provide?
ETA
Simple information
Traffic organisation
Navigational assistance
* Which of those listed is not a recognised message-marker?
Problem
Intention
Warning
Answer
Question
* Is the following statement about executing the voyage plan True or False?
When position fixing, the best way of estimating the next fix is to do it at regular intervals. TRUE
* Now you have finalised the voyage plan and had it approved by the Master, you next need to:
check engine and steering gear.
check radars and target tracking equipment.
prepare the bridge.
inform the deck team and ensure the Watchkeeping Officers have signed it.
* What knock on effect does a delay in departure time have when considering new weather conditions?
Change of tide heights and flow
A different choice of route
Review risk assessment
All the above
1145 – Leadership and Team Working Skills – Vessel Resource Management Series Part 4 – Bridge
Watchkeeping
* When preparing to go on duty as Watchkeeping Officer, there are a number of key tasks. What does
the Reference suggest as the first?
Check the Standing Orders.
Go around the bridge with the officer you are relieving.
Examine the wheelhouse poster.
Find out how to operate the engine when the ship is working UMS.
* Whilst it is always good to get up on the bridge early when going on duty, when is it particularly
important?
At night
During bad weather conditions
When expecting a pilot
All of the above
* Is the following statement about bridge watchkeeping True or False?
Successful watchkeeping only requires the use of two independent electronic aids as a countercheck without
visual positioning. FALSE
* What command is used to complete the formal handover?
‘It’s all yours’
‘I’m finished here’
‘You’re in charge’
‘You now have the watch’
* When dealing with the cultural differences as a Watchkeeping Officer, what quality is most helpful in
building good teamwork?
Inflexibility
Assertiveness
Sensitivity
Detachment
* Which Colregs Rule concerns the keeping of a proper look out?
Rule 8
Rule 5
Rule 6
Rule 7
* If the situation has required the immediate presence of the Master on the bridge what should you do
next as Watchkeeping Officer?
Remain on the bridge to support the Master.
Leave the bridge.
Immediately log the events thus far.
Attempt to contact the other ship.
* Is the following statement about bridge watchkeeping True or False?
The formal handover should always be registered by the Voyage Data Recorder. TRUE
* Under what conditions can the stand-on ship take action to avoid collision in close quarter situations?
If the give-way ship doesn’t respond to VHS.
If the give-way ship has slowed down.
When it becomes apparent that the give way ship is not taking appropriate action.
There are no conditions under which the stand-on ship can take action.
* Is the following statement about bridge watchkeeping True or False?
Once the formal handover has taken place the Watchkeeping Officer has been delegated responsibility within
the limits set out by the Master’s standing orders. TRUE
* As outgoing watchkeeper, what should you do if you think your relief is not fit for duty?
Call the Master
Tell them to take over while you go and find someone who is fit.
Tell them to go and have a rest while you continue.
Tell them to switch to autopilot until ther are feeling better.
* What percentage of insured losses are said to be due to collision, grounding and contact damage as a
result of human error?
50 %
60%
70%
80%
1147 – Leadership and Team Working Skills – Vessel Resource Management Series Part 6: Working with
Pilots
* On receiving the pilot, how far do regulations stipulate the ladder should be on the starboard side
above the water?
2 m.
1.5 m.
1 m.
2.5 m.
* If you need to use the PACE strategy when dealing with the pilot, what does the A stand for?
Asking.
Alerting.
Arguing.
Acting.
* Is the statement about working with pilots True or False?
It is important that during the Master-Pilot exchange a common language is agreed to facilitate ease of
understanding. TRUE
* The bow thruster should always be handled by the Master.
True or False? FALSE
* Whilst approaching the berth, what will maintain the bridge team’s awareness of the ship’s intended
track?
The voyage plan.
The Master.
The Watchkeeping Officer.
Good communication from all on the bridge.
* What happens as soon as the pilot is safely on board?
The pilot is introduced to the Master.
The receiving officer reports a safe arrival to the bridge.
The pilot is given the pilot’s bag.
The ship’s speed is reduced.
* Which of the qualities listed are NOT useful in helping people work well together?
Being respectful and courteous.
Asking questions when you do not understand something.
Not making allowances for cultural differences.
Being patient.
* Which of the areas of expertise listed does a pilot NOT bring to the bridge team?
Relationship with the shore based support.
Greater experience in handling ships and tugs in port.
The voyage plan.
Knowledge of local traffic, tides and hazards to navigation.
* Is the statement about working with pilots True or False?
The Portable Pilot Unit significantly increases the manoeuvrability of larger vessels in confined spaces. TRUE
* Once the pilot has taken over navigation of the ship, you as Watchkeeping Officer should:
ensure the helmsman follows the pilot’s orders.
stop taking plot fixes.
assume the Master will now monitor the pilot.
not question the pilot’s orders.
* is the statement about working with pilots True or False?
Is is not necessary to create a good first impression since this won’t affect the pilot’s ability to do his/her job.
FALSE
1155 – Pilot Transfer Arrangements
* In ships with a freeboard of more than 9 metres, the accommodation ladder should be lowered to a
minimum of:
5 metres above the water line.
8 metres above the water line.
the water line itself.
* Who should meet the pilot at the embarkation point?
The Master
The Officer of the Watch
A responsible officer
A deckhand who speaks English
* Is the following statement about the pilot boarding arrangements True or False?
It is the pilot’s duty to board regardless, even if he is not happy with boarding arrangements. FALSE
* Accommodation ladders should be inclined to an angle of not more than:
35º
55º
45º
65º
* Is the following statement about the pilot ladder True or False?
It’s important to keep the steps properly painted. FALSE
* Spreaders should be not more than:
2 steps apart.
4 steps apart.
6 steps apart.
9 steps apart.
* Is the following statement about the pilot boarding arrangements True or False?
Side doors used for pilot boarding should always open outwards. FALSE
* The clear step width between the side ropes should be at least:
40 cm.
60 cm.
80 cm.
30 cm.
* The pilot ladder must be combined with the ship’s accommodation ladder when the freeboard is greater
than:
5 metres.
8 metres.
10 metres.
9 metres.
* Is the following statement about the pilot ladder True or False?
A pilot ladder should have no shackles, knots or splices. TRUE
* Handhold stanchions should be attached to the bulwark at around what level?
10 cm above the bulwark top
120 cm above the bulwark top
100 cm below the bulwark top
100 cm above the bulwark top
* Which of the items listed must be ready at the pilot’s embarkation point?
Signal lamp
Lifeline and lifebuoy
Protective overalls
Ship’s safety instructions
1149 – Leadership and Team Working Skills – Vessel Resource Management Series Part 8: Five Case
Studies
* Is the statement about teamwork and procedures True or False?
Watch handovers should not take place in the middle of a manoeuvre. TRUE
* Which of the activities listed would NOT be an indication of a good team?
Members asking for clarification if they don’t understand.
Members offering one another support.
Members asking for help when they need it.
Members reluctant to raise an alert if a senior officer appears to be deviating from the intended course.
* Is the statement about teamwork and procedures True or False?
Once the pilot has taken over, the bridge team can relax. FALSE
* Is the statement about teamwork and procedures True or False?
When mistakes have occurred it is important to find who was at fault. FALSE
* Is the statement about teamwork and procedures True or False?
It may be better to check the situation with a pair of binoculars rather than trying to acquire targets on the ARPA.
TRUE
* When it comes to learning from experience what is the final stage?
Reflection.
Planning.
Generalisation.
Training.
* Achieving a safe passage requires:
planning, approval, monitoring and execution.
planning, monitoring, correcting and execution.
appraisal, planning, execution and monitoring.
formulation, appraisal, monitoring and execution.
* What is the advantage of a bridge management style which encourages a “team work” approach where
everyone is aware of what is going on, where everyone contributes, and feels free to speak up if
something is not right?
Mistakes can normally be corrected before they become disasters.
This style saves time and money and places the ship operator in a competitive position in the market place.
Navigation requires an autocratic command structure, The team work approach does not apply to such
conditions.
It allows the Master or Officer in charge of the Watch to relax.
966 – Sewage and Waste Water Treatment
* Very rarely, someone may have to go inside the plant for maintenance. If so:
the Master should be consulted.
head office should give permission.
a proper risk assessment should be undertaken first.
* Which Marpol Annex relates to the sewage system?
II
III
VI
IV
* What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed to discharge untreated
sewage?
3 nautical miles
6 nautical miles
9 nautical miles
12 nautical miles
* Which country, mentioned in the video, insists on chlorination?
Canada
USA
Korea
* Why are domestic cleaners used on shore not suitable for cleaning toilets on board?
They are too expensive
They are not strong enough
They damage the marine environment
They would kill the bacteria on which the plant depends
* Extenden aeration sewage treatment plants make use of:
aerobic bacteria.
anaerobic bacteria.
* Which of the items listed should NOT be put into lavatories on board?
Condoms
Cigarette ends and packets
Female sanitary products
Kitchen towels
All the above
* What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed to discharge comminuted
and disinfected sewage?
3 nautical miles
6 nautical miles
9 nautical miles
12 nautical miles
* Which is the final stage of treatment in an extended aeration plant?
Settling
Chlorination
Aeration
* Why are anaerobic bacteria not desirable in a sewage system?
They are not very efficient.
They can produce toxic or flammable gases.
They are not killed off by the chlorinator.
* MARPOL Annex IV applies to ships below 400 gross tons if they are certified to carry more than:
10 people.
12 people.
15 people.
20 people.
* Are the statement about plant maintenance True or False?
It is important to check and maintain the level of tablets in the chlorinator. TRUE
The integrity of the pipe work should be checked regularly. TRUE
Cabin ventilation is not affected by the sewage plant at all. FALSE
1129 – Coping with Stowaways (Edition 2)
* How does the FAL Convention define a stowaway?
Anyone who is on board without the permission of the Master or owner, but has not paid for their passage.
Anyone who hides on board without the permission of the Master or owner, and who is still on board after the
ship has left port.
Anyone who is on board after the ship has left port, but does not have the correct documents, such as a passport,
visa, or health certificates.
Anyone who hides on board without the permission of the Master or owner, and intends to remain on board after
the ship has left port.
* Who has overall responsibility for preventing stowaways getting on board when a ship is in port?
The harbour authorities
The agent
The ship’s Master and crew
The owners
* When is the best time to begin to prevent stowaways getting on board?
Before the ship arrives at a night-risk port.
While the ship is in a high-risk port.
Just before the ship sails from a high-risk port.
Before the ship arrives at a low-risk port.
* If stowaways are found on board while the ship is in port, who should the Master inform?
The company Security Officer (CSO)
The ship’s agent
The P&I Club representative
The Flag state
All the above
* If stowaways are found while the ship is still in port, what is the Master’s best course of action?
Sail on schedule, even if the stowaways are still on board.
Refuse to sail until the port authorities takes the stowaways off.
Consult with the Company Security Officer and the ship’s owners or managers about whether to sail or not.
Negotiate with the stowaways to persuade them to leave.
* From whom should you seek information about stowaway risks at a particular port?
The P&I Club
The local agent
Your CSO
The port authority
All the above
* If stowaways are found on board after the ship has left port, who should the Master inform first?
All the above
The company’s agent at the last port of call
The Company Security Officer (CSO)
The P&I Club
* It is safest for stowaways to be searched by:
the Master and another officer.
two crew members, one to search and the other to observe.
a crew member wearing protective clothing.
a single crew member using a hand-held metal detector.
* It is important to take possession of any papers or documents a stowaway is carrying because:
the costs of repatriation can then be charged to the stowaway.
relatives must be informed of the stowaway’s location.
the ship’s flag state will then be able to issue a passport to the stowaway.
identifying the stowaway makes it easier for them to be disembarked.
* While stowaways are on board ship they are entitled to:
secure locked accommodation and an interview with the Master.
secure locked accommodation and an interview with the Master.
food and water, reasonable accommodation, a lifejacket, and instruction in safety procedures.
the same food and accommodation as a crew member.
* Who pays all the the costs of keeping stowaways and returning them to their country of origin?
The immigration authorities at the port of disembarkation
The ship’s owners or managers
The ship’s owners or managers
The government of the stowaways’ country of origin
* Stowaways should never, ever, be allowed to:
work.
leave their locked accommodation.
walk on deck.
eat hot food.
* At what point should a stowaway be told they will be repatriated?
As soon as they are discovered
As late in the process as possible
Never
When being interviewed to establish their identity
* When a ship docks with stowaways on board, who decides whether they can disembark?
The ship’s Master
The Company Security Officer (CSO)
The P&I correspondent
The port immigration authority
* When a ship docks with stowaways on board, who decides whether they can disembark?
The United Nations
The Nautical institute
Lloyd’s Register
The international Maritime Organization
747 – Safe Cargo Stowage and Securing
* Are the statements listed True or False?
Cargo should be stowed so as to leave gaps to make crew inspections easier. FALSE
Placing cargo on strips of wood is an excellent way of increasing friction at the point of contact. TRUE
Cargo lashings should be attached to the ship – not to other cargo or lashings. TRUE
It may sometimes be necessary to weld temporary securing points to the ship’s structure. TRUE
* How should lashings be distributed at a cargo unit with single stowage pattern?
Equally to fore and aft.
Equally to all sides.
80% to port and starboard, 20% to fore and aft.
50% to port and starboard, 50% to fire and aft.
* What is the Maximum Securing Load value, (MSL), of a lashing consisting of a wire, turnbuckle and
shackle?
The least MSL figure of all the elements in the lashing, including the deck ring.
The mean of all the MSL values of the elements in the lashing.
The total of the MSL values of the elements in the lashing.
* Are the statement listed True or False?
Acceleration forces on cargo increase the further it is from the centre of the ship. TRUE
As the ship rises on a swell, the cargo effectively becomes lighter. FALSE
When the ship rolls, cargo lashings will be stretched and compressed alternately. TRUE
If the lashings become too loose, an iterm can lose contact with the deck and slide. TRUE
* Complete the sentences about cargo stowage by dragging the correct ending onto each one.
The purpose of the Cargo Securing Manual is to give details on the stowage and securing of all cargoes the ship
is likely to carry.
Well managed cargo must be stowed so as to maintain the stability of the ship.
Side stowage may involve items of varying dimensions and weights.
The stowage plan must be flexible enough to accommodate last minute changes.
During a voyage, the cargo will be subjected to continually changing acceleration forces.
* Leading a wire round a bar of its own diameter or smaller can reduce its breaking load by up to:
25%
40%
50%
60%
* Complete the following sentences about some common problems of cargo stowage.
A pre-arranged stowage plan may show… inadequate distribution of cargo, often not reflecting suitable cargo
handling in subsequent ports.
Heavy cargo units may be offered for shipment without… having suitable lifting and securing points.
Cargo weights and dimensions may… differ considerably from figures given when it was booked.
Cargo may not be… readly available as needed for loading according to the plan.
* The video refers to the carriage of a large cased item. Such items should be lashed:
firmly at the base.
below the centre of gravity.
above the centre of gravity.
* The first priority when preparing a stowage plan is:
the safety of the ship.
to fit as much cargo as possible on board.
to guarantee that the ship can leave port on schedule.
to ensure access ways are not obstructed.
* Which of the stowage patterns listed is NOT a recognised pattern?
Single stowage.
Vertical stowage.
Side stowage.
Cross stowage.
* The vertical lashing angles should not be greater than:
20º
30º
45º
60º
* The diagram shows a load of 80 tonnes with lashings to either side. What should be the MSL of each
lashing?
* Which of the information listed would NOT be included in the Cargo Securing Manual?
All the necessary information regarding the correct loading, stowage and lashing of the cargoes on board the
ship.
Lists of all the lashing equipment which will be carried on the ship.
Details of all the likely cargo types which the ship may carry and how to lash them properly in accordance with
the SOLAS requirements.
The size limitations on individual heavy items.
1101 – Dangerous and Difficult Bulk Cargoes: Best Practice and the IMSBC Code
* A Group A bulk cargo is one that:
can have a chemical reaction leading to a dangerous situation.
does not either liquefy or chemically react.
can liquefy in the moisture content is too high.
could polymerise and form a solid mass.
* A Group B bulk cargo is one that:
can liquefy if the moisture content is too high.
can have a chemical reaction leading to a dangerous situation.
does not either liquefy or chemically react.
has a very low angle of repose.
* The Angle of Repose of a free-flowing bulk cargo in the hold is:
the angle formed by the cone at the top.
the maximum angle allowed between the vertical plane and the slope down from the cone.
the maximum angle allowed between the horizontal plane and the slope up to the cone.
* When ‘shall’ is used in the IMSBC Code (e.g. the temperature shall be taken), it means:
recommended.
mandatory.
optional.
* The TML is:
the average moisture content of the cargo.
the difference between the average moisture content and the maximum allowed for carriage.
the maximum temperature for loading.
the maximum moisture level allowed for carriage.
* The BCSN is:
the name under which a cargo is listed in the IMSBC Code.
the name for the cargo used in the shipper’s documentation.
the name for the cargo as used by the authorities in the port of loading.
* The first link in the Bulk Cargo Chain is:
the inspection of the cargo.
the suitability of the ship for the cargo.
the checking of the documentation provided by the shipper.
the analysis of the cargo samples.
* The suitability of the ship for a particular cargo should be checked:
when the vessel is fixed on charter.
after loading is completed but before the vessel sails.
in extreme and adverse weather conditions.
when the vessel starts loading.
* Which of the procedures listed are required when entering an enclosed space?
Ventilating the space before entry.
Having a system of formal permits approving entry.
Testing the atmosphere before entry.
Having support outside the entry point in communication with those inside.
All the above.
* Which Section of the IMSBC Code contains provisions relating to potential security risks of some bulk
cargoes?
Section 10
Section 11
Section 12
Section 5
* Preparation of detailed documents about the cargo and a declaration as to its acceptability is the
responsibility of:
the Master.
the charterer.
the shipper.
the ship’s agent in the port of loading.
* Is the following statement about the carriage of bulk cargoes True or False?
Some cargoes may need to be carried under inert conditions. TRUE
* Is the following statement about the carriage of bulk cargoes True or False?
Once the cargo has been loaded and the hold sealed, its temperature will not change significantly. FALSE
* Is the following statement about the carriage of bulk cargoes True or False?
Some cargoes may require the hold to be treated with barrier coating to protect against corrosion. TRUE
* Is the following statement about the carriage of bulk cargoes True or False?
Lower density cargoes should be stored in the lowest holds. FALSE
1126 – Bulk Carriers – Handle With Care (Edition 2)
* When restrictions on the carriage of cargoes are imposed, the ship should be permanently marked
with:
a solid square on its side shell aft.
a solid triangle on its side shell at midships.
a hollow triangle on its side shell forward.
a hollow square on its side shell at midships.
* SOLAS Chapter XII Regulation 14 Restrictions from Sailing with Any Hold Empty defines an ‘empty
hold’ as one that is loaded to:
less than 10% of the hold’s maximum allowable cargo weight.
less than 25% of the hold’s maximum allowable cargo weight.
more than 10% of the hold’s maximum allowable cargo weight.
there is no minimum or maximum allowable cargo weight for a hold.
* What is the result of overloading of the holds?
Liquefaction of the cargo
Oxygen depletion
Stress on the hull structure
A build-up of toxic gases
* The angle of repose of a free-flowing bulk cargo in the hold is:
the angle formed by the cone at the top.
the angle between the vertical plane and the slope down from the cone.
the angle between the horizontal plane and the slope up to the cone.
the angle between the vertical plane and the slope up to the cone.
* The TML is:
the maximum moisture level allowed for carriage.
the average moisture content of the cargo.
the difference between the average moisture content and the maximum allowed for carriage.
the difference between the average moisture content and the maximum allowed for carriage.
* ‘Shear force’ is when:
the hold is overloaded.
the hold is overloaded.
the ship bends or twists.
the upward and downward forces are not in balance along the length of the vessel.
* ‘Sagging’ is when:
the weight is concentrated at the ends of the ship, bending its structure.
the weight is concentrated in the middle of the ship, bending its structure.
a hold is overloaded.
liquefaction of the cargo causes it to increase in weight.
* ‘Hogging’ is when:
the weight is concentrated at the ends of the ship, bending its structure.
the weight is concentrated in the middle of the ship, bending its structure.
a hold is overloaded.
liquefaction of the cargo causes it to increase in weight.
* Trimming (of cargo) is:
loading the cargo slowly and at a steady rate.
the partial or total levelling of the cargo.
the partial or total levelling of the cargo.
cleaning the hold of cargo residue after discharge.
* The ship’s hatch covers must be marked with:
a solid equilateral triangle.
the ship’s IMO number.
hold identification numbers that correspond with the loading manual and loading/discharge plan.
hold identification numbers that correspond with the relevant cargo numbers as set out in the IMSBC Code.
* The IMSBC Code relates to:
the carriage of solid bulk cargo.
the handling of grain.
the safety of life at sea.
security on ships longer than 150m.
* The BLU Code relates to:
security on ships longer than 150m.
the carriage of grain.
the safety of life at sea.
the safe loading and unloading of bulk carriers.
* Which of the items listed does not need to be included in the loading plan?
Loading sequences, segregating dangerous cargoes where appropriate
Distance between conveyor belt and the holds
Total time to load
Appropriate loading and unloading rates for solid bulk cargoes
Appropriate loading and unloading rates for solid bulk cargoes
* The loading or discharge plan must be:
agreed and countersigned by the ship and the terminal.
signed by the ship only.
signed by the terminal only
agreed and countersigned by the ship, the terminal and the charterer.
* Homogeneous loading is where cargo is:
stowed in every other hold.
evenly trimmed.
loaded in two or more adjoining holds with neighbouring holds remaining empty.
loaded in every hold.
* Block loading is where cargo is:
stowed in every other hold.
evenly distributed.
loaded in two or more adjoining holds with neighbouring holds remaining empty.
loaded in every hold.
* While loading, what should happen if the loading and deballasting no longer synchronise?
The loading must be speeded up.
The deballasting must be slowed down.
The ship and terminal must hold a meeting to discuss how best to proceed.
The ship and terminal must agree to suspend cargo operations until the ballasting has caught up.
* How should cargoes with an angle of repose greater than 35 degrees be loaded?
Trimmed so that the angle of repose is significantly less than 35 degrees.
Trimmed so that the angle of repose is significantly more than 35 degrees.
Loaded asymmetrically.
Cargoes with an angle of repose greater than 35 degrees should never be loaded.
* Is the following statement True or False?
The terminal representative should advise the Master when unloading has been completed from each hold.
TRUE
* Is the following statement True or False?
For some types of cargo the ship does not require a cargo declaration. FALSE
* Is the following statement True or False?
In the event of loss of hull integrity in way of the cargo holds, bulk carriers should be evacuated as quickly as
possible. TRUE
1139 – Dangerous Goods At Sea Part 1 – IMDG Code (Edition 6)
* Where can you find the Index in the Code?
Volume 2.
Supplement.
In each volume.
Volume 1.
* The IMDG Code may specify stowage location as:
‘on deck only’.
‘under deck only’.
‘packaged only’.
‘packed only’.
* Where in the IMDG Code are tank provisions found?
Part 4.
Part 5.
Part 6.
Part 7.
* Is this statement about the IMDG Code True or False?
Solid bulk cargoes are covered by the IMDG Code. FALSE
* What does the abbreviation MFAG stand for?
Maritime Federation of Associated Government.
Material For Accidents Guide.
Marine Fire Aid Guide.
Medical First Aid Guide.
* Is this statement about the IMDG Code True or False?
How to secure the cargo is covered in the IMDG Code. FALSE
* Who fills in a container packing certificate?
The stevedore company loading the cargo on the vessel.
The person responsible for packing the container.
The shipper.
The Cargo Officer.
* The segregation requirements for packages are found in:
Part 1.
Part 6.
Part 2.
Part 7.
* Is this statement about the IMDG Code True or False?
It is now mandatory for everyone involved in the shipping process to be fully trained in the handling of dangerous
goods. TRUE
* How many digits do UN numbers have?
2.
3.
4.
5.
* How many Classes of Dangerous Goods are there?
Seven.
Nine.
Eight.
Five.
* Which US publication describes the Hazmat training requirements for vessels trading to the US?
Vessel General Permit.
US Coastguard Auxiliary Manual.
Vessel Safety Check Manual.
Code of Federation Regulations 49 CFR.
* Which Class covers Marine Pollutants not otherwise classified?
1.
2.
8.
9.
* Where can you find the Dangerous Goods List (DGL) in the Code?
The supplement.
In each volume.
Volume 2.
Volume 1.
* Where in the Code can an alphabetical list of Proper Shipping Names be found?
The Supplement.
Volume 1.
The Appendices to volume 2.
The Index to Volume 2.
* What does the abbreviation IBC stand for?
International Bulk Cargo.
Intermediate Bulk Container.
Intermodal Bulk Container.
Internal Band Combustion.
* What is a PSN?
Packing Shipment Name.
Port Shipping Network.
Proper Shipping Name.
Pollution Safety Network.
* Hazard placards must be placed:
on all four sides.
on the back and front only.
on any two sides.
on the top and bottom.
* How does the process of stowage and segregation begin?
By consulting the Dangerous Goods List.
By contacting the shipper for information.
By checking the UN number and PSN in the Volume 2 Index.
By looking up the classification system in Volume 1.
* How often is the IMDG Code updated?
No regular period of time.
Every year.
Every two years.
Every five years.
* Where can you find the Ems and MFAG tables in the IMDG Code?
Volume 1.
The Supplement.
Volume 2.
In each volume.
* Who is responsible for checking that the goods are properly stowed, segregated and secured?
The Chief Officer.
The Master.
The Officer in charge of loading.
The Office of the Watch.
* Which part of the IMDG Code deals with security provisions?
Part 1.
Part 2.
Part 5.
Part 6.
* How long must a dangerous goods note (DGN) be kept?
1 month.
3 months.
6 months.
12 months.
* Where in the IMDG Code would you look for reporting procedures?
The Supplement.
The Dangerous Goods List (DGL).
Volume 2.
Volume 1.
1140 – Dangerous Goods At Sea Part 2 – Expecting the Unexpected (Edition 6)
* Is this statement about dealing with Dangerous Goods True or False?
Burns from chemicals should be left for 24 hours before treating. FALSE
* Is this statement about dealing with Dangerous Goods True or False?
The use of water when dealing with a dangerous goods incident can result in the spreading of a split corrosive
substance. TRUE
* What does the abbreviation EmS stand for?
Emergency Procedures.
Emergency Plans.
Emergency Situations.
Emerging States.
* Is this statement about dealing with Dangerous Goods True or False?
The shipper’s declaration should contain all the information necessary to establish the correct handling, stowage
and segregation of the consignment. TRUE
* Where can you find the EmS and MFAG tables in the IMDG Code?
Volume 1.
The Supplement.
Volume 2.
In each volume.
* Organic peroxides are dangerous because they:
are flammable.
may react violently if in contact with water or other substances.
are toxic.
are corrosive.
* Is this statement True or False?
After an incident, equipment should be cleaned, maintained and, where necessary changed. TRUE
* Where can you find the DGL in the Code?
Volume 2.
Supplement.
In each volume.
Volume 1.
* Where can you find the EmS schedule in the Code?
Column 15.
In the Supplement.
Column 4.
Volume 1.
* The flashpoint of a flammable liquid must be included in the dangerous goods declaration if it is below:
30 degrees Celsius.
40 degrees Celsius.
60 degrees Celsius.
100 degrees Celsius.
* The positioning of goods in CTUs is defined as:
packaging.
stowing.
packing.
* What does the abbrevation MFAG stand for?
Maritime Federation of Associated Governments.
Material For Accidents Guide.
Marine Fire Aid Guide.
Medical First Aid Guide.
* Hydrochloric acid and caustic soda are good examples of cargoes which are:
volatile.
toxic.
flammable.
corrosive.
* Is this statement True or False?
Some gases are heavier than air and may enter the accommodation via hatchways or through open doors. TRUE
1141 – Dangerous and Difficult Bulk Cargoes – Minerals and Man – Made Derivatives
* Is the following statement about ammonium nitrate cargoes True or False?
The correct Bulk Cargo Shipping Name (BCSN) is not so important because it is easy to distinguish between the
variants by eye. FALSE
* Is the following statement about coal cargoes True or False?
With coal cargoes, the ship needs the capability of measuring nitrogen and hydrogen. FALSE
* Which of the DRI variants may be ventilated on passage?
DRI (B) and DRI (C)
DRI (A)
All of the DRI variants must be ventilated.
None of the DRI variants must be ventilated.
* Nickel ore ir regarded as potentially more and dangerous than other cargoes in this category because:
it has a higher density.
its typical moisture content is more difficult to determine.
its Transportable Moisture Limit is lower.
it causes more oxygen depletion.
* DRI (B) and (C) must NOT be accepted if their moisture content is:
more than 0.3%
more than 3%.
more than 3.1%
more than 13%.
* Is the following statement about documentation True or False?
The shipper’s documentation for a mineral concentrate cargo must provide accurate figures for moisture content
and TML. TRUE
* Ventilation of a coal cargo should be:
avoided.
at a maximum level throughout the hold.
only on the coal’s surface.
only below the coal’s surface.
* Coal cargoes that have the capacity to self-heat should not be loaded if the cargo’s temperature is
higher than:
55ºC.
65ºC.
75ºC.
the ambient temperature.
* What can happen if ammonium nitrate cargoes UN 1942 or UN 2067 are contaminated with fuel oil?
They can liquefy
They can explode
They can deplete the oxygen in the hold
They can give off toxic dust
* The purpose of the Can Test is to check:
homogeneity.
density.
moisture content.
stability.
* Why is it important for a mineral concentrate cargo to be evenly distributed in the hold?
To avoid build-up of moisture
To reduce the risk of toxic fumes
To make it easier to measure the temperature
To avoid over-stressing of the ship’s structure
* The angle of repose for the safe carriage of all forms of ammonium nitrate cargoes should be:
between 27º and 42º.
between 14º and 27º.
between 41º and 72º.
there is no recommended angle of repose.
* Ammonium nitrate cargoes UN1942 and UN 2067 must not be accepted if the cargo’s temperature is
higher than:
the ambient temperature.
60ºC.
50ºC.
40ºC.
* Dust precaution need to be taken when loading:
DRI (A).
DRI (A) and (B).
DRI (B) and DRI (C).
All three types.
* On passage with a mineral concentrate cargo, hatch covers are:
regularly opened to inspect the cargo.
regularly opened to vent gases built up in the hold.
left open throughout the voyage.
Left closed throughout the voyage.
* Which hazardous gas can DRI (B) and (C) produce?
Hydrogen sulphide
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Methane
* Which of the risks listed does not apply to coal cargoes?
Production of methane
Oxidation
Production of hydrogen sulphide
Self-heating
Reaction with water
* Is the following statement about ammonium nitrate cargoes True or False?
Ammonium nitrate based fertilisers are hygroscopic. TRUE
* If combustion is detected in a coal cargo, it can usually be contained by:
using large amounts of water.
using the CO2 system.
using foam.
sealing the hold.
* DRI must NOT be accepted for loading if its temperature is:
higher than 55ºC.
higher than 65ºC.
higher than 75ºC.
higher than the ambient temperature.
687 – Working Aloft On Container Ships
* Are the statements about the proper maintenance of ladders True or False?
Ladders with missing rungs or witch cracked or otherwise damaged stiles should not be used. TRUE
When ladders are not in use they should always be stored upright. FALSE
When ladders are not in use they should be kept safely in a dry ventilated space away from heat sources. TRUE
All portable ladders should be checked regularly by a competent person and a record of the inspection kept.
TRUE
* Which of the statements does NOT belong in the list? A permit to Work should set out:
normal working hours.
the location and details of the work to be done.
the results of any preliminary test undertaken.
the measures taken to make the job safe.
the safeguards that need to be taken during the operation.
the period of its validity (which should not exceed 24 hours) and any time limits applicable to the work it
authorises.
* Which of the checks listed should you make when you are required to rig lights when working aloft?
Does this lighting rig have to be intrinsically safe?
Does the lamp have protection from shedding glass fragments on to persons working or traversing below?
Does the lamp need to be of a low voltage type?
How can I get the light and any tools up to the working position?
All the above.
* When supervising work aloft in ice and rough weather you should:
Assess the risks involved to decide whether it is safe enough for a person to ascend to the desired working
position.
Be aware that in a well organised ship, no extra protection is required.
Get the work done quickly.
* True or False? Supervisors in charge of lashing operations must:
ensure that all unsecured lashing material is left in place. FALSE
ensure that proper cargo gear is used for handling of overheight cargo. TRUE
arrange for a container working platform for difficult lashing operations when required. TRUE
make sure that they climb onto the hatch coaming to look into the hatch. FALSE
* Which of these general rules about using portable ladders is NOT correct?
Where necessary, and for heights greater than 2 metres above base level, personnel must use a safety hamess
with lifeline secured above the work position.
When portable ladders cannot be properly secured, they should be steadied by a second person.
The cargo manifest.
When portable extending ladders are in use, there should be sufficient overlap between the extensions.
Personnel negotiating a ladder should use both hands and not attempt to carry tools or equipment in their hands.
To make staging, planks can be supported on rungs of ladders.
* When supervising work aloft in ice and rough weather you should:
Assess the risks involved to decide whether it is safe enough for a person to ascend to the desired working
position.
Be aware that in a well organised ship, no extra protection is required.
Get the work done quickly.
* When dealing with electric cables in damp conditions:
A rubber mat should not be used.
Rubber electrical gloves and rubber shoes should not be worn.
Circuits to be worked on must be properly isolated and locked off before work starts.
* Are the statements concerning general rules for good housekeeping on top of containers True or
False?
The most important thing is to get the job done quickly. FALSE
Heavy objects, particularly discarded twistlocks, must be cleared from the tops of containers. TRUE
Leave spare items handy in case you need them later. FALSE
All container doors must be properly secured. TRUE
* When considering the effects of fatigue, which of the points listed is NOT relevant?
Has the seafarer been properly rested (under STCW requirements if applicable)?
If the work is to be lengthy, have adequate breaks been provided for when the work permits is drawn up?
Have the number of breaks taken the environmental conditions into consideration?
Carefully administered stimulants (e.g. coffee) overcome most of the effects of fatigue.
* Which of the statements about safety when working aloft is NOT correct?
Beware of open access covers and other uncovered openings.
Do not work on top of walkways where hatch lids are not in place.
Try to do several tasks at once, to save time.
Use proper fall protection.
Make sure that your work area is free of obstructions.
Always wear a hard hat with a fastened chin strap.
* What is the purpose of a Permit to Work?
It makes sure that the particular job to be performed will be safe.
It permits anyone who carries it to perform the duties outlined in the Permit.
It is a guide to a set procedure which, if followed, will make the job as safe as it can be.
It is a notification to the officer on charge that the work concerned can be completed.
* Which of the items of personal protective equipment listed is NOT normally needed when working aloft
on container ships?
Fall protection system.
Safety harness.
Ear protectors.
Good industrial footwear.
Safety helmets with chin straps.
High visibility clothing.
698 – Ballast Water Management
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about ballast water exchange.
Exchanging ballast water at sea can affect the trim and draft. The engine intakes may come out of the water. It
can set up stresses In the hull leading to structural failure and could cause a loss of stability. Even in calm
weather, you must carry out this procedure with extreme caution.
* In order to replace approximately 95% of ballast water in a tank using the flow-through method of
exchange, the amount of water pumped through the tank must be:
1.5 x the tank’s volume.
2 x the tank’s volume.
3 x the tank’s volume.
4 x the tank’s volume.
* The IMO guidelines state that every ship that carries ballast water must have a ballast water
management plan.
True
False
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the possible consequences of
failing to comply with the regulations in force.
Failure to comply may lead to penalties and loss of revenue for the shipping company. The vessel may be
required to retain her ballast and load less cargo. The ship may not be allowed to dock or may be forced to go
out to sea and exchange her ballast water. There could be the risk of a heavy fine or even imprisonment.
* What minimum distance does ‘far from shore’ mean for ships entering North American Great Lakes
Ports or visiting ports further up the Hudson River than the George Washington Bridge?
100 miles
200 miles
300 miles
150 miles
* Part four of the Ballast Water Reporting form is a detailed history of the ballast water. Which of the
items of information listed would NOT be required?
The date
The types of organism in the water
The port
The water temperature at the time of the uptake
* The IMO has adopted a set of guidelines for the management of ballast water. At present, these are:
mandatory.
voluntary.
* The current, recommended method of ballast water management is:
isolation.
treatment.
exchange.
* Which of the items listed is NOT included in the section of the IMO Guidelines dealing with ships’
operational procedures?
Precautionary practices, such as timely removal of ballast sediment
Port State considerations
Training and education
Ballast water management options
* Are the statement about ballast water True or False?
Marine organisms carried in ballast water can damage the ship. FALSE
Many countries have already introduced quarantine requirements for ballast water management. TRUE
Ballast water can carry disease from one part of the world to another. TRUE
Organisms carried in ballast water which survive on discharge can multiply and cause serious environmental
problems. TRUE
* In the Black Sea, the Comb Jelly became a major contributor to the rapid decline in the catch of which
particular fish?
Salmon
Anchovy
Sturgeon
Sardine
* The IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting form. Which of the items of
information listed does this form contain?
Vessel information
Voyage information
Ballast water management information (numbers of tanks discharged)
All the above
* Which of the factors listed is NOT relevant for port State authorities when implementing their ballast
water management programmes and assessing risks?
Highly disparate conditions between uptake and discharge ports.
Ballast water age.
The type of vessel concerned.
Knowledge of the presence of target organisms.
* Are the statements about treatment methods True or False?
The use of clean, treated fresh water for ballast solves the potential problems with ballast water. TRUE
The problems with mechanical treatment of ballast water are expense and maintenance of the filters. TRUE
Heating the water or bombarding it with ultra-violet light or ultra-sound will kill everything in the ballast water.
FALSE
* Which of the actions listed does NOT form part of the duties of the designated ballast water
management officer?
Ensuring the exchange conforms to the Plan.
Preparing the ballast water declaration form prior to entering port.
Maintaining the ballast water log.
Deciding whether sea conditions allow exchange to be undertaken safely.
* Are the statements about ballast water exchange True or False?
Ballast water exchange at sea can have a serious effect on the ship’s structural integrity. TRUE
Sequential exchange of ballast water at sea must be carried out by emptying pairs of tanks at a time to maintain
the ship’s trim and stability. TRUE
Correctly carried out, ballast water exchange at sea is a complete solution to the problem. FALSE
The Master decides precisely how exchange at sea should be carried out. FALSE
736 – Lifeboat On-Load Release Mechanisms (Edition 2)
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the Hook Release Handle.
While the lifeboat is away from the ship, the Hook Release Handle must be moved forward again, towards the
closed position, as far as it will go.The locating pin in the handle is then directly above the slots in the side plates.
* Are these statement about the “cam-type” system True or False?
A lever on the cam is connected by a push-pull type cable to the Main Control Unit inside the lifeboat. TRUE
At the Main Control Unit, the cables from each hook are attached to quadrants which are controlled by the vertical
spindle. FALSE
* Hoisting should be stopped:
once the lifeboat has cleared the water.
once the lifeboat is 3 metres out of the water.
once the falls are engaged.
only when the lifeboat has been returned to the davits.
* Are these statements about over-riding the hydrostatic interlock True or False?
Over-riding the hydrostatic interlock is achieved by breaking the clear panel and operating the locking lever
manually. TRUE
Over-riding the hydrostatic interlock forms an important part of each Abandon Ship drill. FALSE
* The locking lever is positioned:
behind a clear panel in the Control Unit.
above the Control Unit.
below the Control Unit.
in the bottom of the boat.
* Are these statements about re-locking the hooks True or False?
The safety pin should only be inserted when the helmsman’s handle has dropped down into its slotted ‘locked’
position. TRUE
Whatever the system on your boat, the bow and stern men should inspect and pull on the hooks to check that
they are securely locked and that the cams are correctly positioned before reporting that the hooks are re-locked.
TRUE
* What is the next step after the lifeboat is waterborne?
Operating the Hook Release Handle.
Removing the safety pin.
Putting the engine into gear.
Checking that the hydrostatic interlock releases the interlock lever.
* To operate the Control Handle, you must:
release the hooks.
turn it anti-clockwise.
remove the safety pin or pins.
raise the locking lever clear of the quadrants.
* The purpose of the hydrostatic interlock is to:
release the hooks.
protect the push-pull cable.
guard against water entering into the mechanism.
guard against premature release.
* What is the most important thing to know about your davit system?
The braking system
The hoisting method
The safe recovery load permitted
The indicator system
* What is the final stage in the drill?
To return the craft to the davits in the stowed position.
To leave the craft.
To remove any build up of grease in the working parts.
To re-prepare the boat and davit for emergency use.
* Are these statements about the checks and preparations to be carried out before a drill True or False?
The safety pins should be removed from the operating unit. FALSE
The hooks should be fully locked behind their cam arrangements. TRUE
You should ensure that the drain plug is screwed down. TRUE
* Are these statements about the “open-topped cone” system True or False?
A vertical spindle extends up through the hook housing, with its hook tail conical in shape. FALSE
Moving a lever inside the boat rotates the spindle of both hooks simultaneously. TRUE
* Is this statement about re-setting True or False?
Any resistance felt during re-setting should always be questioned and the reason established at once. TRUE
* What is the next step after embarking the crew in the lifeboat?
Opening the hatches to allow air to circulate.
Starting the engine.
Checking seat belts are fastened.
Pulling the lowering control wire.
* Why do most lifeboat accidents occur, according to a recent survey?
Because the helmsman wraps the control wire round his hands.
Because crew members are not wearing their seat belts.
Because the release gear has not been properly re-set.
Because the hydrostatic lever is not overridden.
* International regulations state that every crew member must take part in at least one Abandon Ship
drill:
every week.
every month.
every voyage.
at the company’s discretion.
792 – Prevention & Reaction to Marine Oil Spills – Under Marpol
* Who should be responsible for dealing with the press and media?
The P&I Club representative
The ship’s Master
The first officer
A responsible individual in the shore office
* Above what size are ships, other than oil tankers, required to have a SOPEP?
150 GT
250 GT
400 GT
500 GT
* Are the statement listed True or False?
Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties. FALSE
The majority of spills are less than seven tonnes. TRUE
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no special precautions need to be
taken before starting. FALSE
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required when ballasting
through the cargo system.
Check that the COW system has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been drained of oil.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is started.
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.
The transfer must start at a low flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be carefully monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring arrangements.
Pipework and air vents must be continually checked for oil leaks.
Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
* The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:
having a collision.
running aground.
catching fire.
* Are the statements listed True or False?
In a real grounding, the master would instruct the engine room to stop the engine. TRUE
Depending on the circumstances, in a genuine emergency, oil could get in through seawater intakes. TRUE
Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or probable discharge of oil.
TRUE
Notification og the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or probable discharge of oil.
FALSE
* Drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of preparing for bunkering.
The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition.
All scuppers must be plugged.
Portable pumps must be readily available.
The piping system must be correctly lined up.
* In the event of a spill, where would the Master find the list of contacts who must be notified.
In the P&A Manual
In the SOPEP
In the Safety Management System
* What do the initials SOPEP stand for?
Shipboard Oil Prevention Emergency Plan
Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan
Shipboard Oil Pollution Energy Plan
Shipboard Oil Prevention Escape Plan
793 – Prevention & Reaction to Marine Oil Spills – Under OPA 90
* OPA 90 applies to:
All oil tankers over 150 GT entering US waters.
All ships flying the US flag.
All ships entering US waters whatever their flag.
All oil and chemical tankers entering US waters whatever their flag.
* How far from the shoreline do US waters extend?
50 nautical miles
120 nautical miles
150 nautical miles
200 nautical miles
* Are the statements liste True or False?
Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties. FALSE
The majority of spills are less than seven tonnes. TRUE
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no special precautions need to be
taken before starting. FALSE
* Drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of preparing for bunkering.
The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition.
All scuppers must be plugged.
Portable pumps must be readily available.
The piping system must be correctly lined up.
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.
The transfer must start at a low flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be carefully monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring arangements.
Pipework and air vents must be continually checked for oil leaks.
Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required when ballasting
through the cargo system.
Check that the COW system has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been opened.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is started.
* The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:
having a collision.
running aground.
catching fire.
* A full scale PREP to test both ship and shore based emergency response capabilities must be carried
out:
once a year.
three times a year.
once every two years.
twice a year.
* Which of these statements about the Qualified individual (QI) is NOT correct?
The QI must speak fluent English
The QI must be a member of the ship’s crew.
The QI has to be based in the USA.
The QI may authorise funds for the clean up.
* Under OPA 90, who must be notified first in the event of an incident?
The Coast Guard captain of the nearest port
The shipping company headquarters
The National Response Centre in Washington D.C.
The Qualified Individual
* Are the statements listed True or False?
In a real emergency, it may be necessary to close air vents to the engine room and to close seawater intakes.
TRUE
The OPA 90 Vessel Response Plan must always be available in English. TRUE
The crew would not normally be mustered until a detailed emergency response had been agreed with the shore
office. FALSE
* Which of the actions listed are the responsibility of the Command Centre?
The coordination and distribution of information concerning the actual and forecast condition of the spill.
The managements of all tactical operations required to execute the company’s general emergency response
plan.
Obtaining manpower, equipment, material, food, protective clothing and other facilities needed to support the
emergency response.
Settling compensation claims.
All of the above.
* Which of the items of information listed is NOT required by the standard form for reporting incidents
to the National Response Centre?
The ship’s position
The type of product
The number of crew on board
The quantity at risk
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about the operation of OPA 90.
The Unified Command provides a top level forum for producing a cohesive plan of action.
All decisions, actions and communications must be logged on the ship.
Unless the Master has serious concerns for safety on board, he will normally follow the advice he receives from
the command centre.
The Coast Guard will take over operations only if they are asked or if they think things are getting out of control.
794 – Prevention & Reaction to Marine Oil Spills – The Seaferer’s Role
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.
The transfer must start at a low flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be carefully monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring arrangements.
Pipework and air vents must be continually checked for oil leaks.
Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
* Are the statement listed True or False?
Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties FALSE
The majority of spills are less than seven tonnes. TRUE
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small so no special precautions need to be taken
before starting. FALSE
* Match the opening words with the closing words to identify some of the key aspects of preparing for
bunkering.
The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition.
All scuppers must be plugged.
Portable pumps must be readily available.
The piping system must be correctly lined up.
* Oil cargoes may pose health hazards and these can be caused through ingestion, skin contact or
inhalation. Which of these posess the greatest risk?
Inhalation
Skin contact
Ingestion
* Are the statements about possible hazards associated with spills True or False?
Frequent or prolonged skin contact with benzene is not a cause concern. FALSE
Inhalation of hydrogen sulphide can be fatal.

TRUE
Your sense of smell can become rapidly de-sensitised, particularly to hydrogen sulphide. TRUE
Most oil cargoes do not require the use of any special protective clothing or equipment. FALSE
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required when ballasting
through the cargo system.
Check that the COW system has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been opened.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is started.
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about weathering of oil.
The lower the viscosity of the oil, the faster it will spread.
Low temperatures will make oil more viscous, and spread more slowly.
The higher the ambient temperature and the greater the wind speed, the more oil will evaporate.
Over 36 to 48 hours, oil can mix with the sea to form a mouse.
* When a spill moves with a tide or current at what percentage of the tide or current speed does it move?
3%
10%
50%
100%
* Use your mouse to complete the following sentence correctly.
Absorbents are substances which soak up oil like a sponge.
Adsorbents are substances where oil sticks to the outside surface.
Synthetic sorbents absorb a lot of oil and don’t absorb water.
Natural products often soak up water as well as oil.
944 – It’s not Worth It! – Maritime Pollution Offences Test
* If a vessel causes an illegal pollution discharge, who may now be held accountable for it?
The Master
The crew member responsible for the action which caused the discharge
The ship owner
Everyone involved in operating the vessel
* Under European pollution laws, a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to a pollution incident
through ‘complicity’. What does ‘complicity’ mean?
Encouraging someone to commit an offence.
Working alongside someone committing an offence.
Suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it.
Failure to understand the proper procedures for operating an anti-pollution system.
* If there is an accidental discharge while on the high seas, does it need to be logged?
Only if it is more than 100 litres.
Only if it is more than three times the prescribed ppm.
Only if it is within 200 miles of land.
Yes, all discharges must be logged.
* Which of the measures listed are being used in the fight against marine pollution?
Surprise inspections
Monitoring and tracking of suspect vessels
Extending investigations to an entire fleet
Encouraging ‘whistleblowers’ to inform on illegal acts
All of the above
* What does Canada’s legal principle of ‘reverse onus’ mean in pollution cases?
An accused seafarer is innocent until convicted unanimously by a jury.
An accused seafarer is guilty until proven innocent.
An accused seafarer is held liable for the costs of cleaning up the pollution.
An accused seafarer is not responsible for pollution if he proves the owners knew the crew were acting illegaly.
* What might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the oily water separator?
The system being very clean and shiny
Elbows in pipelines
Maintenance records which are very well kept and fully up to date
Crewmembers who are very knowledge about how the system operates
* Under European pollution laws a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to a pollution incident
through ‘inaction’. What does ‘inaction’ mean?
Forgetting to operate an anti-pollution system at the correct time.
Operating an anti-pollution system incorrectly.
Being aware of a pollution discharge but not knowing it was illegal.
Suspecting an offence bot doing nothing about it.
* What is the penalty for a pollution offence in European waters caused by serious negligence?
1-2 years in prison
2-5 years in prison
5-10 years in prison
Maximum 15 years in prison
* What is the minimum period for which the details in a vessel’s Oil Record Book should be kept?
Six months
One year
Two years
Three years
* If you see or know of an unauthorised and illegal pollution discharge occuring from your vessel at sea,
what should you do?
Make sure the Master is told about it.
Pretend you didn’t see it or know about it.
Make a note of when, where and how it occurred, and keep it to yourself.
Tell the person responsible to be more careful in future.
* If you are detained by the authorities because your vessel is accused of having caused a pollution
incident, how should you respond to their questioning?
Refuse to tell the investigators anything. Remain completely silent.
Refuse to answer any questions about the pollution incident until you have been advised by either the Master,
the shipowner’s representative or their lawyers.
Cooperate fully and answer all questions truthfully.
Tell them you know nothing whatsoever about the incident, even if you do.
* Why have so many states tightened up their maritime pollution laws?
Ship owners, operators and crews were unaware of the previous, existing laws.
Ship owners, operators and crews felt the existing laws did not cover modern vessels.
Too many ship owners, operators and crews were ignoring the previous, existing laws.
The EU felt that ship owners, operators and crews were confused by existing laws.
* Engineers believe that an oily water separator will become much more liable to failure after:
5 years.
7 years.
10 years.
12 years.
* What might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the Oil Record Book?
Entries made in pencil
Irregular spaces between entries
Pages torn out
All the above
* Which of the shipboard records listed are the authorities NOT likely to inspect if they board a vessel
suspected of causing pollution?
Tank Sounding Log
Cargo Manifest
Garbage Record Book
Oil Record Book
Under MARPOL regulations, what is the maximum oil concentration permitted in oily water that is to be
discharged?




5 ppm
15 ppm
50 ppm
100 ppm
* Are the statements about enforcement of pollution regulations True or False?
Satellite surveillance is increasingly being used to spot pollution and identify the vessel causing it. TRUE
Chemical fingerprinting techniques can identify the source of pollutants and link them to specific vessels. TRUE
Accidental pollution caused by damage to the ship or its equipment does not exempt the Master from liability.
FALSE
Port State Control authorities often carry out Concentrated Inspection Campaigns targeting compliance with antipollution regulations. TRUE
947 – Immersion Suits Training – The Difference Between Life and Death
* When putting your suit on, how should you squeeze the air out?
Put fingers inside face seal, squat down and squeeze suit, remove fingers from face seal, stand up again.
Use the pump provided.
Undo the zip, make a corkscrew twisting motion with your body, then do the zip up again before the air gets back
in.
* During each inspection, the zip should be rubbed on both sides with:
alcohol.
glycerine soap.
the lubricant recommended by the manufacturer.
* Water conducts heat away from the body:
as the same rate as air.
at twice the rate of air.
at more than 20 times the rate of air.
* Are the statements about immersion suits True or False?
It does not matter what size your immersion suit is. FALSE
All types of lifejacket work in combination with all types of immersion suit. FALSE
The face seal is extremely important because it helps to prevent heat loss from the head. TRUE
* If you need to move position once you are in the water, you should:
swim on your front.
swim on your back, using slow, rhythmic strokes.
never attempt to swim in an immersion suit.
* Immersion suits will be most effective when:
you only have your underclothes on.
you are fully dressed.
* You should check your suit’s condition:
once a month.
once every 3 months.
it is up to the Safety Officer to check the condition of immersion suits.
* If a person spends six hours in 0ºC water when wearing an immersion suit, their body temperature
should not drop:
by more than 2ºC.
by more than 5ºC.
at all.
* Cold water shock lasts for around:
30 seconds.
2 minutes.
30 minutes.
* Are the statements about immersion suits True or False?
The suit should be stored in cool, dry place. TRUE
Regulations state that all immersion suits must be stored in cabins. FALSE
You should immediately repair any tears or deterioration you find. FALSE
* Lifejackets should be:
put on underneath the immersion suit.
carried with you until you are in the water or life-saving appliance.
put on over the immersion suit.
* With hypothermia, unconsciousness normally sets in when the body temperature reaches:
35ºC.
30ºC.
26ºC.
* To enter the water safely:
jump as far off the side of the ship as you can.
first attach yourself to other crew members with the buddy line and lower the first person down to the water using
the line.
get as close as possible to the water then step off or use a rope or ladder.
* Which of the tasks listed is not appropriate when checking your suit:
See if there are any tears or deterioration in the material or seams.
Test the retro-reflective tape to find out if it is firmly attached.
Run the zip up and down to see if it works smoothly.
Undo any knots in the toggles.
Blow the whistle to see that it is functioning.
Try the suit out in the shower, or if weather permits, in the sea.
* Death generally occurs when the body temperature reaches:
35ºC.
30ºC.
26ºC.
* The suit’s buddy line is to:
help attach you to the life raft.
act as a reflective string which will be highly visible from the air.
prevent you from drifting away from other crew members.
* Which of the instructions about putting your immersion suit back in its bag is not correct?
Make sure the floor is clean, brushing it if necessary.
Lay it flat on the floor
Do the zip right up
Fold the arms on to the chest
Put it into its bag
* Since 1st July 2006, it has been mandatory for cargo ships and bulk carriers trading outside 20º North
or 20º South to provide immersion suits for:
all rescue boat personnel.
everybody on board.
it is not mandatory, only recommended, to provide them for everyone on board.
On lifeboats to be launched by free fall launching, _________?
Both painters shall be stowed near the bow ready for use
The rocket parachute flare shall?
All of them
Every enclosed lifeboat shall be so constructed that it is?
None of them
Lifebuoy self-activating smoke signals shall continue to emit smoke when fully submerged in water for a period
of at least?
10 seconds
Traje de protección te dejara nadar al menos
At least 25 meters
Which of these vapours will have the lowest Flash point
Diesel
Each foam portable fire extinguisher shall have a capacity of at least
9 litres
Explosimeter MSA
When the BA team has withdrawn from a fire incident, what action should be taken by the team leader?
Check the equipment personally and ensure that it is safe for future use
access doors, air inlets and openings to accommodation spaces, service spaces, control stations and
machinery spaces shall not face
the cargo area
How often would you expect a full inventory to be made of the fire fighting equipment lockers
Every month
Cargo hoses and tank washing hoses shall have electrical continuity over their entire lengths including
couplings and flanges (except shore connections), and shall be earthed for removal of electrostatic charges.
TRUE
What is the meaning of an incident according to MARPOL ?
probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance, or effluents containing such a substance.
When a casualty has a fractured base of the skull they may have
Blood stained fluid leaking from the ear or nose
A sprain is an injury to
Ligament
Under what circumstances a ship may burn fuel oil containing more than 1.5% of Sulphur in Sox Emission
Control Area (SECA)?
If the ship is fitted whit on-board exhaust gas- Sox cleaning systems.
For which vessels greater than 79 feet is submission of Notice Of Intent (NOI) required in order to obtain
coverage under the Vessel General Permit (VGP)
Merchant ships of 300 GT or above, or whose ballast water capacity in 8 cubic meter or more.
Which IMO convention in concerned whit seafarer training
STCW
Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or probable discharge of oil.
TRUE
How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the left side of their chest?
Sitting up and leaning towards the left
Heat exhaustion is aggravated by
Loss of water and electrolytes
the hours of work regulations apply to which members of the crew
all members of the crew
in the event of frostbite, the casualty may complain of
pins and needles
it is ok just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions and ventilations
FALSE
The compressor room a gas carrier has
An exhaust fan
Meetings should be conducted
All of them (record purpose, compile statistics, accountability)
A declaration of security (DoS) may also be completed between two ships
False
If you think a casualty is choking you should first
Open their mouth for check for any blockage
Ask them if they are choking
Torrey canyon is
The name of a ship that ran aground off the uk coast
Cospas-sarsat EPIRB work on
406 MHz
All Vessel General Permit (VGP) records must be kept on board for:
 6 months
 1 year
 2 years
 3 years
Cuanto tiempo tarda en presentarse los sintomas por infeccion de estafilosis
12 a 24 hrs
An azimuthing propeller___________________.

Provides thrust only in the longitudinal direction.



Provides thrust in the vertical direction.
Provides thrust in a fixed direction.
Provides thrust in a direction that can be varied nearly 360 degrees in the horizontal.
Compared to the rest of the deck plating, the stringer plate is___________________.




Of the same thickness.
Slightly thinner
Much thinner
Thicker
The International Convention of the Prevention of Pollution From Ships (MARPOL) 73/78
contains______________.




V Annexes
VI Annexes
VII Annexes
VIII Annexes
Transverse members connecting the side shell stringers port and starboard are known
as______________________.




Forward beams
Stringer beams
Forepeak beams
Panting beams
Independent cargo tanks are basically of ______________________.




Two types. Type A and Type B.
Four types. Type A, type B, type C and type D.
Three types. Type A, type B and type C.
Only one type.
Boiling point is the _____at which a product in liquid state exhibits vapour pressure equal to the
________pressure.




Temperature, atmospheric.
Heat, 5 bar.
Entropy, gauge.
Volume, absolute.
The recommended international maritime organization (IMO) noise level limit (db) in open recreation areas in
the accommodation space is_____.



60
65
75

None of them
The protocol of 1988 on harmonized system of survey and certification (HSSC) entered into force in all the six
annexes of international convention for the prevention of pollution from ships (MARPOL) 73/78 on a single date
and year.


True
False
Cant frames are usually fitted___________.




Amidships
On deckhouse sides
Cruiser sterns
Transom sterns
What, if both are to blame in case of a collision of two vessels, each has to pay what percentage of the other
ship’s repair?




0.25
0.5
0.75
0.1
The duct fitted around a propeller in some in some vessels to improve propeller efficiency is popularly known
as a________________.




Propeller duct
Propeller pipe
Kort nozzle
Propeller tunnel
Slot welds are used in the construction of ___________.




A double plate rudder
A corrugated bulkhead
A hatch cover
A deckhouse
Procedures for port state control (PSC) are not required to be put into force separately for all the chapters of
safety of life at sea (SOLAS) 74, as chapter 1, general provisons, a new regulation about PSC has been
added.


True
False
Marine pollutions from exhaust generated on board are mainly from ____________.




Main diesel plant
Emergency fire pump engines
Auxiliary power plant
Both A & C
A passenger ship safety certificate is valid for a maximum period of _______.




1 year
5 years
Unlimited
2 years
Beam knees are brackets connecting_________________.




The deck girders and deck transverses
The deck beams and deck girders
The deck beams and side frames
The deck longitudinals and deck plating
The lower part of the shell plating at the after end terminates in the _______.




Stern frame
Stern bar
Aft end of shell
Rudder post
Solid floors in the double bottom are _________________.




Watertight
Made of very thick and heavy plates
Boundaries of double bottom tanks
Made of plates which have large lightening holes
Low hydrogen electrodes are specially required for welding___________.




Higher strength steels
Stainless steels
High carbon steels
Aluminium alloys
A partial perforated bulkhead on the centre line in the forepeak is called a ____.




Wash plate
Peak plate
Floor plate
Holed bulkhead
The moulded depth is measured at___________.

The lowest point of the deck at side



Amidships
The forward perpendicular
The after perpendicular
You find that your cadet/trainee is trying to punch holes in a gasket whilst keeping it on the workshop floor. You
should ____________.




Shout at him.
Explain to him the correct procedure
Tell him to hand over the job to someone else
Let him continue
This international maritime organization (IMO) symbol represents “CO2 release nozzles”.


True
False
For an oil fire we should NOT use this type of extinguisher:




Foam
Water
Dry chemical powder (DCP)
CO2
Foam type portable fire extinguishers are best suited for combating fires involving__________.




Solid materials like wood, papers etc.
Electrical cables & equipments
Metallic solids
Flammable liquids
Water fog is an excellent fire extinguishing medium as it ________________-.




Cools the surroundings
Removes oxygen from the atmosphere
Dilutes the flammable mixture
All of them
The life raft shall be marked with the _______________.




Date of manufacture(month and year)
Name of approving authority
Number of persons it is permitted to accommodate
All of them
A portable foam applicator unit shall have a portable tank containing foam containing liquid at
least__________________.


30 litres
25 litres


20 litres
15 litres
The liferafts shall be fitted with water pockets of highly visible colour.


True
False
Each of the separate compartments of the main buoyancy chamber of a life raft shall be inflated through a
________________.




Non return inflation valve on each compartment
Separate inflation point in each compartment
Manual pump
None of them
The life raft shall______________________.




Be capable of being inflated by one person
Be inflated with non toxic gas
Maintain its form when fully loaded
All of them
A portable foam applicator shall be capable of producing effective foam suitable for extinguishing an oil fire, at
the rate of at least ____________________.




1m3/min
1.2m3/min
1.5m3/min
1.8m3/min
Identificar el símbolo organización marítima internacional




Transpondedor de radar
Las embarcaciones de supervivencia de radio portátil
No de ellos
RLS
Which of the following are points to be noted during the inspection of electro-hydraulic steering gear?




Pressure in hydraulic system
Level in replenishing tank
Telemotor system
All of them
Identify the international maritime organization (IMO) symbol:


B class hinged fire door
Compressed air adaptor


Compressed air main line with branch
Main fire line to engine room with branch pipe
Lifebuoy self igniting lights shall be capable of withstanding a drop into the water from the height at which it is
stowed above the water line in the lightest sea going condition or _____ meters whichever is the greater
without impairing its operating cap




15
30
20
25
Life saving appliances shall be constructed _____.




With proper workmanship and materials
So that, where exposed to sunlight, they will be resistant to deterioration
Both A & B
Neither A or B
This international maritime organization (IMO) symbol represents “1 no halon extinguisher”.


True
False
Prior to entering an enclosed space at the athmosphere within is checked by an explosimeter to_________.




Ensure there are no hydrocarbon gasses
Ensure minimum 21% oxygen
Ensure there is no electrostatic charge
None of them
Liferafts shall be provided with_______.




One tin opener
Two tin openers
Three tin openers
No tin opener
When considering burns, what percentage of the body´s surface area is comprised by the neck and face?




27%
9%
18%
None of them
The attachment used to keep the lifeboat secure in the stowed position is called the______________.




Bowsing in tackle
Gripes
Painter
Tricing in pendant
A common bacteria in cases of food poisoning is________________.




Salmonella
Staphylococci
Either of the two
None of them
El apéndice es una parte de la ________________.




Estómago
Cerebro
Riñones
Colon
When checking a casualty’s ABC how long do you allow in order to check their breathing?




5 seconds
10 seconds
15 seconds
1 minute
What should you do once you have checked an ID?




Write their name and details on a piece of paper
Write their name and details in the ship’s log
Write their name an details in the gangway log
Tell them were to go next
A casualty has collapsed in an enclosed space. What should the stand-by person do first?




Carry the casualty to safety
Assess the casualty’s breathing
Stop any major bleeding
Raise the alarm
Cosmopolitan crew management should consider___________.




Group-recognition
Whole-person
Social-rank
Political-insensitivity
It is important that gangway personnel are not distracted and allow unauthorized persons to get on board.


True
False
When checking a casualty’s ABC how long do you allow in order to check their breating?




5 seconds
10 seconds
15 seconds
1 minute
The following is a factor affecting the human element:




Working conditions
Recruitment policy
Level of automation
All of them
How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the left side of their chest?




Sitting up and leaning toward the right
In the recovery position lying on the right
Sitting up and leaning towards the left
In the recovery position lying on the left
In compression, the casualty will have:




Shallow breathing with strong and slow pulse
Shallow breathing with strong and fast pulse
Noisy breathing with strong and slow pulse
Noisy breathing with strong and fast pulse
Cuando se utiliza una linea de vida, la señal: 4 remolcadores por la operadora significa:




¿estás bien?
Peligro, te estoy sacando
Estoy dando mas holgura en la línea
Estoy recogiendo la holgura en la línea
Where will you find requirements for navigational watch ratings under STCW?




Regulation 11/4
Regulation 11/3
Regulation IV/1
Regulation 11/2
Which authority issues the ISM ’document of compliance’?




Flag state authority
Classification society
The P&I club
IMO
Oil tankers of less than 20,000 tonnes dead-weight shall be provided with_____.

A deck foam fire extinguishing system



A fixed deck fire extinguishing system
A fixed deck dry powder fire extinguishing system
A fixed deck water spraying fire extinguishing system
After the flooding due to hull damage has been controlled, which damage repair will be undertaken first?




Damage in cargo holds below the waterline
Damage to bulkheads
Damage to machinery space
Damage at or just above the waterline
The lowest temperature to which a flammable substance must be heated for it to ignite is its_________.




Flash point
Flame point
Ignition point
Boiling point
Cada luz chaleco salvavidas tendrá una intensidad lumínica de _____.




No inferior 0,75 cd
No más de 0,75 cd
No menos de 75 cd
No más de 75 cd
On a cargo ship, the number of fire hoses should in no case be less tan_______.




6
5
4
7
This international maritime organization (IMO) symbol represents “flange in fire line with direction of water flow”


True
False
Cada bote salvavidas estará provisto de un
aprobado por la administración.


certificado de aprobación ,
Cierto
Falso
Lifeboat davit winch wire (fall wire) is to be changed end to end at least every _______.




Year
3 years
30 months
5 years
The equipmets in the life raft be stowed in a container which will float in water for at least ________without
damage to its contents.




30 mins
60 minutes
12 hours
15 minutes
For cargo ships of 6000 gross tonnage and upwards, with two pumps simultaneously delivering water by two
nozzles through any two adjacent fire hydrants, the minimum pressure that should be maintained at all
hydrants is ___________.

0.25 N/mm2
0.27 N/mm2
0.30 N/mm2
0.40 N/mm2



When a ship docks with stowaways on board, who decides whether they can disembark?




The ship’s Master
The company security officer (CSO)
The P&I correspondent
The port immigration authority
If a casualty is bleeding from the mouth, they are advised to_______.




Avoid cold drinks for 12 hours
Avoid hot drinks for 12 hours
Avoid any kind of liquids for 12 hours
All of them
Heat is lost from the body by_________.




Conduction
Convection
Radiation
All of them
The number of persons which a life raft shall be permitted to accommodate shall be equal to the number of
persons having an average mass of _________, all wearing suits and lifejackets.




65 kg
75 kg
70 kg
60 kg
Under what circumstances a ship may burn fuel oil containing more than 1.5% of Sulphur in Sox emission
control area (SECA)?

If the fuel is burnt in an engine of less than 130 kW



If the fuel is burnt in a boiler
If the ship is in harbour
If the ship is fitted with on-board exhaust gas-Sox cleaning systems
Torrey canyon is?

The name of a ship that ran aground off the UK coast
Under what circumstances a ship may burn fuel oil containing more than 1.5% of Sulphur in SOx
emission control area (SECA)?

-If the ship is fitted with on -board exhaust gas-sox cleaning system
What is “non-conformity”?

















A “non-conformity” describes the Safety Management System.
A “non-conformity” is a report criticising the excessive use of forms and paperwork.
A “non-conformity” describes the non-fulfilment of charter party requirements.
A “non-conformity” is an observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-fulfilment of a
specified requirement.
* Which one of the two statements given below is correct?
The ISM Code can only exist by the interaction of other parts of legislation and organisations.
The ISM Code must be implemented independently of other legislative or company requirements.
* The Code requires that safeguards are established against all identified risks. How would you
go about adentifying the risks associated with the operation of your ship?
Carry out a form of risk assessment.
Ask the safety officer for his/her views.
Rely on instinct and past experience.
Let the marine superintendent decide.
Port state control prima facie looks for_________.
A vessel documents including certificates.
The emergency fire pump
The bilge oil separator
The incinerator
What happens if the oily water separator, oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level?

The discharge pump would stop and alarm sounds



A visible alarm
An audible alarm
The discharge is dumped to the bilge
The international convention for the prevention of pollution from ships (MARPOL) Annex V applies to:




All ships
All ships of 400 gross tons or above
All ships certified to carry more than 15 people
All ships of 500 gross tons or above
The recommended international maritime organization (OMI) noise level limit (db) in open recreation
areas in the accommodation spaces is ___.
60
65
75
None of them
Liquefied natural gas (LNGs) can be carried in ____ ships
Fully-refrigerated
Semi-pressursed
Fully-pressurised
Semi-refrigerated
The thermal expansion and contraction, and other types there of of the semi-membrane tank of a gas
carried are accomodated by______.
The flat parts of the membrane
The rounded parts of the membrane
The thicker parts os the membrane
The insulation of the adjacent hull structure
Port state control authorities are guided by____.
Assembly resolution a 787(19)
Assembly resolution a 882(21)
Both of these
Neither of these
It can be seem from flammable range diagram of most hydro carbon gases that the oxygen content if
less than ____ percent makes the mixture non-flammable.
6
5
10
14
International safety management (ISM) code regardless of the date of construction is applicable to
passenger ships including high speed craft not later than____ .
1 st July, 1996
1 st July, 1997
1 st July, 1998
1 st July, 1999
The international convention for the prevention of the pollution fr m ships 1973, as modified by the
protocol of _____ relating there to is known as in short form marpol 73/___.
1976/76
1977/77
1978/78
1979/79
Solid floors are required at very frame space______.
Amidships
In longitudinally framed ships
In ships fitted with ducks keels
In the forward 25 per cent of the ship length
Transverse bulkhead have___.
Vertical stiffeners
Horizontal stiffeners
No stiffeners arrangements
Diagonal stiffeners
Plasma arc cutting involves the use of____.
De-ionised water
Low temperature electrodes
A water jet
An ionised gas
The compartment aT the lower forward extremity of the ship is called _____.
The aft peak
The double bottom
The forepeak
The forecastle
The double bottom may be used to carry_____.
Water ballast
Salid fuel
Hazardous liquids
Liquidfeid gases
The moulded depth is measured at____.
The lowest point of the deck at side
Amid ships
The forward perpendicular
The after perpendicular
Charles law for gas can be expressed in____.




P1V1/T1= P2V2/T2
P1/T1= P2/T2
P1V1=P2V2
V1/T1=V2/T2
Slot welds are used in the construction of_____.
A double plate rudder
A corrugated bulkhead
A hatch cover
A deckhouse
Beam knees are brackets connecting _____.
The deck girders and deck transverse
The deck beams and deck girders
The deck beams and side frames
The deck longitudinal and deck plating
Procedures for port state control (PSC) are not required to be put into force separately for all the
chapters of safety of life at sea ( SOLAS) 74, as chapter 1, general provisions, a new regulations about
PSC has been added.
True
False
The duck fitted around a propeller is some vessels to improve propeller efficiency is popularly known
as a ____.
Propeller duct
Propeller pipe
Kort nozzle
Propeller tunnel
A passenger ship safety certificate is valid for a maximum period of____.
1 year
5 years.
Unlimited
2 years
A port facility security officer (PFSO) is the person designated as responsible for:
All of them
where you find comprehensive guidance on damage control plan
assembly resolution
MEPC circular
MSC circular
SOLAS
Power ventilation of accommodation spaces, service spaces, cargo spaces, control stations and
machinery spaces shall be stopped___
From an easily accessible position outside the space being served
In cargo ships, fire protection and containment by thermal and structural subdivision in
accommodation, service spaces and control stations shall be provided by method_____. In addition,
the construction of internal divisional bulkheads of non-combustible B or C class divisions generally
without the installation of an automatic sprinkler, fire detection and fire alarm system
III C
II C
IC
Neither A, B or C
When CO2 is used as a fixed gas fire extinguishing system in machinery spaces the quantity of CO2
carried shall be sufficient to give a minimum volume of free gas equal to the larger of the following
Either: 40% of the gross volume of the largest machinery spaces excluding the part of the casing that is 40% or
less of the horizontal area of the space concerned; or 35% of the gross volume of the largest machinery space
including the casing
Portable water extinguisher can be used for fires involving
Solid materials like wood, papers, etc.
In machinery spaces containing internal combustion machinery there shall be approved foam type fire
extinguishers each at least_____ capacity or equivalent, sufficient in number to enable foam or its equivalent to
be directed on to any part of the fuel.
30 litre
35 litre
40 litre
45 litre
A casualty in secondary shock feels
Thirsty
Hungry
Both
None of them
Postraumatic stress disorder will always affect seafarers for a long time
True
False
A life raft for use with an approved launching appliance shall when the life raft is loaded with its full
complement of persons and equipment, be capable of withstanding a lateral impact velocity of not less than 3.5
m/seg
True
False
A certificate of approval, endorsed by the administration must be
Carried as part of the lifeboat equipment
Available whit the master
Displayed near the stowage area of the lifeboat
Fitted on the lifeboat
The lower portion of the pump room of oil tanker may be recessed into machinery spaces of category A to
accommodate pumps.
True
False
On a tanker, synthetic ropes should not be used for cargo sampling
True
False
The atmospheric boiling point of propane (C3 H8) is:
 -40.3°C

-41.3°C
➢ -42.3°C

-43.3°C
To get absolute temperatures from Celsius to kelvin add:
 173

290

278
➢ 273
What does DPA stand for?
➢ Designated person Ashore

Dynamic position ashore

Designated position Ashore

None of them
In a single screw ship, the stern frame supports:
➢ Rudder stock

Stern tube

Propeller boss

Bilge keel
Compared to the sheer forward, the sheer aft is:
 More
➢ Less

The same

Sometimes more, sometimes less
A non-destructive test of a welded joint may be carried out by ___________
• A tensile test
• A bend test
• A dye penetrant test
• A charpy V-notch test
Noise is ______
• Recorded according to sound pressure level
• Measured on a logarithmic scale of bel (b)
• Measured in decibel (db)
• All of them
You are on board a wood chip carrier which has completed a loaded passage from Tasmania to Japan.
An electrical officer has been instructed to go on deck to assist with the opening of hatch covers in
order to commence cargo operations. What precautions specific to the operation are you going to
advise?
• Precautions against slippery decks
• To not enter the hold till the chief officer has checked the atmosphere in there and approved in writing.
• That no more than five people should enter the hold at a time
• No precautions are necessary as the deck power is on they can do what they want.
One of the objetives of the Safety Management System (SMS) of International Safety Management (ISM)
Code shall be to _______
• Ensure compliance with mandatory rules and regulations
• Ensure compliance with International Maritime Organization (IMO) resolution A 787 (19) on port state
control
• Ensure compliance of regulations of chapter (X of Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) 74 and all 16 sections
of ISM Code
• Maintain quality system as per objectives of ISO 9000 and 14000
The following are saturated hydro-carbons
•
•
•
•
Methane and Ethane
Methane and Propane
Methane, Ethane , Propane and Butane
Methane, Ethylene, Propylene, Butylene.
The document of compliance is issued to the company by the administration
 The administration
 A recognized organization (RO) of the administration
 Another contracting Government at the request of the flag Administration
 Any of Them
A passenger ship is defined as one capable of carrying more than
• 50 passengers
• 100 passengers
• 12 passengers
• 5 passengers
Deck beams are bracketed to the side frames by
•
•
•
•
Girders
Stringers
Gussets
Beam Kness
In a longitudinally stiffened deck, the deck plating is supported by
• Deck stringers
• Half Beams
• Closely spaced deck longitudinal
• Closely spaced deck beams
The transverse bulkhead nearest the forward end of the ship is the
• Collision Bulkhead
• Aft peak bulkhead
• Forward bulkhead
When capable of carrying cargoes below___________, the type A independent tanks of gas carriers
must have a secondary containment system known as a secondary barrier.b
• 8
• 10
• 15
• 20
The international convention for the prevention of pollution from ships 1973, as modified by the
protocol of relating thereto is known as in short from MARPOL 73/
• 1976/76
• 1977/77
• 1973/ 78
• 1979/79
Instead of inerting with gas, the hold space of type B independent tanks may be filled with dry_____.
Provided inerting can be achieved if the vapour detection system shows cargo leakage.
• oxygen
• compressed air
• air
• compressed oxygen
Compared to the rest of the bottom Shell plating, the keel is:
• Thinner
• Thicker
• Of the same thickness
• Of the same width
Compared to the sheer forward, the sheer aft is
• More
• Less
• The same
• Some times more, sometimes less
Prolonged exposure to noise levels higher than 85 dBs______

Is harmful to the human ear

May cause hearing loss

May be physically painful

All of them
The recommended International Maritime Organisation (IMO) noise level limit (db) in open recreation areas in
the accommodation space is ______
a) 60
b) 65
c) 75
d) None of them
As per section 6 of International Safety Management (ISM) Code i.e. Resources and Personnel the company is
to provide adequate Resources and Personnel one of the component for section 6 is _______
a) To ensure persons involved in Safety Management System (SMS) have under gone a training course in
shore based institute for understanding relevant rules, regulations codes and guidelines
b) To ensure that all personnel involved in Safety Management System (SMS) have adequate
understanding of relevant rules, regulations codes and guidelines
c) To ensure understanding of Regulation, Rules, Codes and Guidelines is given by Master and Chief
Engineer in personnel after training
d) Understanding of relevant rules, regulations codes and guidelines are individual responsibility of
personnel
In a Moller diagram the constant temperature lines between saturated vapour and liquid curves are _______
a) Straight lines parallel to ordinate
b) Straight lines parallel to abscissa
c) Parabolic curves
d) Hyperbolic curves
The Membrane containment system of a Gas Carrier_____
a) Doesn’t require a secondary barrier
b) Requires a secondary barrier
c) Requires a partial secondary barrier
d) None of them
What are the Regulations regarding the carriage of dangerous goods on-board?
a) The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution From Ships (MARPOL) 73/78
b) Chapter XI-2 of Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS)
c) International Association of Classification Societies (IACS) instructions
d) International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code
1.-A reversible adiabtic process of a gas involves constant
a. Temperature
b. Entalphy
c. Entropy
d. Neither, A, B or C
2.-Which protective measure should be taken for noise level above 85 db?
a. Ear protectors should be worn
b. No individual daily exposure for over four hours continuously
c. Total exposure should not exceed eight hours in a day
d. All of them
3.- the gross registered tonnage of a ship is expressed in terms of
a. weight
b. number
c. volume
d. none of them
4.-procedures for port state control (psg) are not required to be put into force separately for all the chapters of
safety of life at sea (SOLAS) 74, as chapter, general provisions, a new regulation about PSC has been added.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
The equation for adiabatic compression is….
 P/T = C
 PV n = C
 PV = C
 PV r = C
7. The tank side (bilge) brackets connect the double bottom structure to….
a. transverse bulkheads
b. longitudinal bulkheads
c. the shell plating and old frames
d. the deck above
8. The quasi propulsive coefficient (qpc) or propulsive coefficient is the ratio of….
a. brake power
b. effective power and brake power
c. effective power and delivered power
d. thrust power and delivered power
9. Slot welds are used in the construction of….
a. a double plate rudder
b. a corrugated bulkhead
c. a hatch cover
d. a deck house
10. If n electric cable passes through a waterlight bulkhead, it is necessary to fit…
a. a waterlight cable gland
c. a stuffing box
a. a waterlight door
b. d. a cable pipe
11. The plates in the collision bulkhead are arranged….
a. in vertical lines with thickness increasing towards the centre line
b. in vertical lines with the plates being of constant thickness
c. in horizontal lines with plates increasing in thickness from top to bottom
d. in horizontal lines with plates of constant thickness
12. If w is the wake fraction, the speed of advance of the propeller divided by the ship speed is equal to…
a. 1-w
b. W
c. 1+w
d. 1/(1+w)
13. You are on board of wood chip carrier which has completed a loaded passage from Tasmania to Japan. An
electrical officer has been instructed to go on deck to assiste with the opening of hatch covers in order to
commence cargo operations. What precautions specific to the operation are you going to advise?
a. precautions against slippery decks
b. to not enter the hold till the chief officer has checked the atmosphere in there and approved in writing
c. that no more than five people should enter the hold at a time
d. no precautions are necessary as the deck power is on, they can do what they want
To participate effectively in your ship’s emergency procedures. You first need to:
A. >Be trained for emergency duties
B. Understand what other emergency parties are doing
C. Be completely familiar with the entire set of personnel. Equipment and duties
D. Become a member of one of the emergency response teams
The power available to propeller after deducting transmission losses is the_______.
A. Delivered power x
B. Shaft power x
C. Thrust power
D. > Effective power
The propeller shafts in a twin screw ship are supports at the after ends of the bossings by______
A. A spectacle frame
B. >Bossing frames
C. Shaft tubes
D. Thrust bearings
The joints between the plates in a strake are_______
A. >Seams
B. Butts
C. Laps
D. Fillets
The region of the ship in the forward 15 per cent of the length to withstand fluctuations in water
pressure due to ship motions in a seaway is called the __________
A. >Strength region
B. Panting region
C. Strong region
D. Racking region
Radiographic tests are frequently used for__________
A. Destructive weld tests
B. > Non-destructive testing of welds
C. Tensile tests
D. Testing radio receivers
Freeboard is the minimum distance between the waterline and________
A. The top pf the deck beams at side
B. >The top of the deck planting at the Centre line
C. The upper side of the deck planting at side
D. The under side of the deck planting at side
If there is a slight oil spill of about 30 ml while bunkering it should be ___________.
 First reported to the master
 First reported to the flag state
 First reported to the chief engineer
 First reported to the harbour authorities
The International Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk
(IGC) Code is applicable to a Gas Carrier, if the keel of which is laid on or ___________.
• Before 1st July 1986
• Before 1st July 1976
• After 1st July 1986
• After 1st July 1976
With regard to tanker operations, what should there be on the vapour line of the discharging vessel?
 A low pressure alarm
 A high pressure alarm
 A pressure vacuum valve
 An oxygen content analyser
On a tanker, where should the detonation arrestor be positioned before loading starts?




Close to the terminal vapor connection
Close to the vessel vapor connection
In the cargo manifold
On the tank access vent
Oil and water separate because of their differences in?
• Viscosity
• Specific gravity
• Temperature
• All the above
Whilst at sea, under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in Special
Areas?
 When proceeding at Full Ahead
 During the hours of darkness
 Only in the case of emergency
 If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out
With regard to incinerators, information relating to the maximum weight and volume per charge which
can be incinerator can be found in:
• The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) annex V
• The type approval certificate
• The Garbage Record Book
• The manufacturer`s manual
Which Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) Annex relates to the carriage
of oil cargoes?
 II
 VI
 I
 IV
Annex II of the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution From Ships (MARPOL) 73/78
has entered into force on ______________.
 2nd October 1983
 6th April 1987
 19th May 2005
 1st January 2007
With regard to tanker cargo operations, when loading a tanker, at what point should you check the
cargo, monitoring and alarm systems?
 When the tank is around 20 cm full
 When the tank is around 2 m full
 When the ullage space in the tank is 20 cm
 when the ullage face in the tank is 2 m
With regard to tanker cargo operations, prior to arrival in port, the cargo tank atmospheres should be
checked to ensure it is inserted and contains?
 At least 8% oxygen
 Less than 8% oxygen
 At least 8% nitrogen
 Less than 8% nitrogen
On a tanker, under the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL)
Annex VI, the vapor flow capacity of each Pressure Vacuum valve must be at least:
 25% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
 75% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
 125% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
 175% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
With reference to tanker cargo operations, loading should commence:
 As quickly as possible
 Extremely slowly throughout
 Starting rapidly and slowing down
 Starting slowly and increasing in stages
Which international convention for the prevention of pollution from ships (MARPOL) annex relates to the
discharge of garbage?

II

VI

V

IV
With reference to the oil record book, what is the minimum gross tonnage for tankers that are required to
maintain an oil record book?


Over 100 gross tons
Over 150 gross tons

Over 400 gross tons

Over 1000 gross tons
With reference to the Oil record book, what is the minimum gross tonnage for ships others than tankers that
are require to maintain an Oil record book?




Over 100 gross tons
Over 150 gross tons
Over 400 gross tons
Over 1000 gross tons
On a Oily water separator, what maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in “Special Areas”?




No oil content is permissible
15ppm
25ppm
50ppm
Which of the following sources is not one that is concern in terms of oily water pollution?




A hose bursting
Condensation from the charge air cooler
Galey waste
A flange leaking during bunkering
When garbage is incinerated you must record:




The date and time
The category of garbage
An estimate of the quantity burned in cubic meters
All the above
On a oily water separator, what is the maximum oil content must at an oily water separator discharge?




1000ppm
500ppm
100ppm
15 ppm
Bulwarks are_____.
Continuously welded to the sheer strake
Continuously welded to the deck plating
Connected at intervals to the deck by stays
Connected to the deck beams
The superstructure at the forward end of the ships is known as the______.




Poop
Bridge
Quarter deck
Forecastle
Most bulk carriers today have_______.




Single sides and double bottoms
Single hulls
Double sides and single bottoms
Double sides and double bottoms
The compartment at the lower forward extremity of ship is called___________.


The aft peak
The double bottom


The forepeak
The forecastle
In times of crisis ship staff are looking for leader.




True
False
Not always true
It depends on the crisis
The vertical webs forming deep stiffeners around hatch opening are called

Hatch coaming
The side shell plating port and starboard and the stem are bracketed together at intervals by

Breasthook
A bulkhead is

A vertical partition subdividing the ship into compartments
The plating at the bottom of the ship on the centre line is called the

Keel
The shell plating contributes to

The longitudinal strength of the ship
The strake adjacent to the keel on each side is known as the

Garboard strake
The effective management of personnel on board the ship

Involves maintaining good relationships with the crew
Which of the impurities listed may prevent the Oily water separator (0WS) or the Oil content monitor
(OCM) from working properly?




Soot
Rust
Paint chippings
All the above
Annex VI of International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution From Ships (MARPOL) 73/78 deals with
the prevention of pollution from ships with respect to




Air
Garbage
Ballast water
oil
If when in port there is an urgent requirement to pump bilge water from the vessel, what would you do?




Pump the bilges over the sides via the oily mter separator.
Lower the bilges only during night time.
Pump the bilges only to a share or barge reception facility.
Pump bilges in a dirty oil tank
Which of the areas listed is not a 'Special Area' for oil pollution as defined in Convention for the
Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) Annex I.




The Red Sea
The Baltic
The black Sea
The Caspian sea
With reference to the Oil Record Book, each completed page must be signed by:




The Master.
The Chief Engineer.
The Officer of the Watch.
The Officer appointed by the Master.
What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book?




To record quantity of fuel onboard.
To record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges.
To record fuel consumption.
To record oily bilge levels.
When discharging oily water bilge water through the oily water separator, what is the maximum
permitted oil concentration?



10 parts per million
15 parts per million
20 parts per million
The outboard deck strake is known as the




Outer strake
Side strake
Deck stringer
Gunwale strake
R-12 is being replaced with other refrigerants – why?




It is expensive
It is liable to destroy ozone layer
It is toxic
It does not have a good refrigerating effect
If a door is to be provided in a watertight bulkhead below the waterline, it must be




A hinged door
A sliding watertight door
A self-closing door
None of them
One of the components of company responsibilities and authority under international safety
management (ISM) code should be




To define and document the responsibility, authority and interrelation of all personal who manage,
perform and verify work to and affecting safety and pollution prevention
That the company appoints a master and finishes his responsibility and authority
To operate the ship affecting safety and environment protection by deputing a master and shore based
designated person and making them responsible
That the company appoints a designated person and finishes with responsibility and authority
Each life jacket shall be of a ________.
 Red colour
 Green colour
 Orange colour
 White colour
Heat is lost from the body by _______.
 Conduction
 Convection
 Radiation
 All of them.
If a casualty is bleeding from the mouth, they are advised to ____.
 Avoid cold drinks for 12 hours.
 Avoid hot drink for 12 hours.
 Avoid any kind of liquids for 12 hours.
 All of them.
Lifeboat davit winch wire (Fill wire) is to be changed end to end at least every ____________.
 Year
 3 years
 30 months.
 5 years
The number of person which a life raft shall be permitted to accommodate shall be equal to the number
of persons having an average mass of _____, all wearing immersion suits and lifejackets.
 65 kg
 75 kg
 70 kg
 60 kg
Cospas – Sarsat EPIRB work on __________.
 9 Ghz
 3 Ghz
 406 Ghz
 2182 Ghz
Each lifeboat is provided with a certificate of approval, approved by the administration.
 True
Lifeboats intended for launching down the side of a ship shall have skates and fenders as necessary to
facilitate launching and prevent damage to the lifeboat.
 True
 False
Torrent Canyon is ___________.
 The name of a canyon.
 The name of a ship that ran aground off the UK coast.
 The same as “Grand Canyon”
 A castle
An incinerator on board is capable of incinerating ___________.
 All materials
 Only oil
 Only solids
 Selected materials
Under what circumstances a ship may burn fuel oil containing more than 1.5% of Sulphur in SOx
Emission Control (SECA)?
 If the fuel is burnt in an engine of less than 130 kW.
 If the fuel burnt in a boiler
 If the ship is in harbour
 If the ship is fitted with on-board exhaust gas SOx cleaning systems.
On a tanker, the lower pressure alarm on inerted vessels should be set at not less than:
 100 mm Water Gauge (WG)
 150 mm Water Gauge (WG)
 200 mm Water Gauge (WG)
 250 mm Water Gauge (WG)
With regard to tanker operations, what could happen if vapour passes over condition?
 it could cause under – pressurization
 it could cause over – pressurization
 it could create a toxic cloud
 it could generate static electricity and increase the risk of an explosion.
How long must an Oil record book be retained on board for inspection?
 1 year
 2 years
 3 years
 5 years
The hours of work regulations apply to which members of the crew?
 Master and watchkeeping Officers
 All members of the crew
 Members of crew engaged specifically in the safety of the vessel
 Crew working only on tankers
Wich IMO convention is concerned with seafarer training?
 SOLAS



MARPOL
STCW
UNCLOS
It is OK to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions and ventilations.
 True
 False
When a casualty has fractured base of skull they may have:
 Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears only.
 Blood stained fluid leaking from the nose only.
 Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
 Blood stained fluid leaking from the mouth only.
How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the left side of their chest?
 Sitting up and leaning toward the right
 In the recovery position tying on the right
 Sitting up and leaning towards the left
 In the recovery position lying on the left
If you think a casualty is choking you should first:
 Ask them if they are choking
 Do 5 back slaps
 Do 5 abdominal thrusts
 Open their mouth to check for any blockage
Each light life jacket will have a light intensity of
 No less than 0.75 cd
 No more than 0.75 cd
 No less than 75 cd
 No more than 75 cd
Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under international Convention for the Prevention of
Pollution from strips (MARPOL) if there is an actual or probable discharge of oil.
 True
 False
If you see a vessel that looks suspicious, you should:
 Proceed as quickly as possible
 Report it immediately to the relevant contact points.
 Change course
 Switch on all deck lights and searchlights
Why is it important to remain vigilant?
 It makes the port secure
 It keeps the crew busy
 It will improve safety performance
 it helps prevent crime
For cargo ships of 6000 gross tonnage and upwards, with two pups simultaneously delivering water by
two nozzles through any two adjacent fire hydrants, the minimum pressure that should be maintained
at all hydrants is _________.




0.25 N/mm
0.27 N/mm
0.30 N/mm
0.40 N/mm
The drills of the crew shall take place within ______ of the ship leaving a port if more than ____ of the
crew have not participated in fire drills on board than particular ship in the previous month.
 48 hrs / 50%
 36 hrs / 35%
 25 hrs / 25%
 13 hrs/ 12%
Lifebuoy self-activating smoke signals shall continue to emit smoke when fully submerged in water for
a period of at least ________.
 10 seconds
 5 seconds
 3 seconds
 6 seconds
In the event of injury to the joint there can be ______.
 Fracture
 Fracture- dislocation
 Dislocation
 All of them
Lifeboat batteries shall be recharged _______________.
 From the ship’s power supply
 With a solar battery changer
 Both A & B
 None for them
Liferafts accommodating _________ persons shall have at least two diametrically opposite entrances.
 More than 20
 More than 10
 More than 8
 Less than 8
Every inflatable life raft shall be provided with ___.
 One repair outfit
 One topping up pump
 One first aid outfit
 All of them
Buoyant lifelines attached to lifebuoys shall have a breaking strength of ______.
 Not less than 5 kN.
 Not more than 5 kN
 Not more than 8 kN
 Not less than 8 kN
In secondary shock, if the casualty is feeling cold, give them ________.
 Alcohol to drink



Cold drinks
A warm tea or coffee
All of them
In the event of frostbite, the casualty may complain of ________.
 Pins and needles
 Rubber and stocking
 Both A & B
 None of them
Identify the international maritime organization (IMO) symbol:
 Open hatches
 Secure hatches
 Open enclosed lifeboat
 Neither A, B or C
A lifejacket shall have buoyancy which is not redeced by ____________ % after 24 hours submersion in
fresh water.
 More than 5
 Less than 5
 More than 10
 Less than 10
The nervous system consist of the ___________
 Brain and spinal cord
 Lungs and taches
 Heart and arteries
 All of them
Each completed page of the oil record book must be signed by:
 The officer of the watch
 The chief engineer
 The master
 The chief officer
The prevention of air pollution includes____.




Exhaust from internal combustion engines
Exhaust from boilers
Exhaust from incinerators
All of them
This type of extinguisher should never be use on an electrical fire:




Co2
water
dry chemical powder (dcp)
sand
The buoyant rescue quoit in a life raft shall be attached to______________ of buoyant line.




Not more than 30 meters
Not than 50 meters
Not less than 50 meters
Not less than 30 meters
The certificate of approval, endorsed by the administration for each lifeboat, must contain____:




Manufacturer’s name and address
The lifeboat model and serial number
Month and year of manufacture
All of them.
An oil tanker delivered before 6th july 1996 means an oil tanker for which the building contract is
placed before




6th july 1991
6th july 1986
6th july 1996
6th July 1993
Which equipment is supplied electricity from an emergency source of electrical power in cargo ships?




Navigation lights
Emergency fire pump
Emergency steering gear
Emergency air compressor
This international Maritime Organisation (OMI) Symbol represents lifebuoy.


TRUE
FALSE
A combustion process in which a flammable material burns with insufficient oxygen to achieve
complete combustion of the materials is known as__________.




Spontaneous combustion
Auto-ignition
Dry distillation
Self-combustion
A portable foam applicator unit shall have a portable tank containing foam liquid at least ________.




30 litres
25 litres
20 litres
15 litres
In cargo ships of 1000 gross tonnage and upwards at least two independently driven fire pumps shall
be provided. In addition __________.




No other pumps are requierd to carry
Two of the general service, bilge and ballast pumps are required to carry out fire pump duty
At least one of the general service, bilge and ballast pumps is required to carry out fire pump duty
At least the sanitary pump is required to carry out fire pump duty
When applying a dressing to a sucking chest wound it should be:




Non stick and sealed with top edge open.
Non stick and sealed with bottom edge open.
Dressing pad secured on all sides.
Dressing pad secured with bottom edge open.
Table "B" of tabular freeboard is applicable to a ship because




The ship does not carry solid cargo
The ship carries liquid cargo
The ship carries NLS cargo
All of them
There have been scientific studies on fatigue published in responsable journals by




US navy
Indian navy
Shipping Corporation of India
None of them
Meetings should be conducted ____________.
 For record purposes.
 To compile statics.
 For accountability.
 All of them.
The compressor room in a gas carrier has _______.
 An exhaust fan
 A supply fan
 Both A&B
 None of them.
What would be the language of a Damage Control Plan?
 English
 One copy for each language undestood
 The common language taught to all of the seafarers
 The language spoken by the majority of the ratings
The safety management certificate (SMS) of a ship should be withdrawn by the administration or at its
request by the contracting government which issued the SMC when_____.




An internal safety audits shows major non-conformity
An annual verification is not requested and not carried out
There is evidence of a major non-conformity with the code
An internal audit has not been carried out at all
The effective management of the ship`s crew implies




The leadership that comes automatically with the rank
Effective leadership
An autocracy
A dictatorship
With regard to tanker operations, who is the responsible for ensuring that a ship is equipped with a
means of collecting Volatile Organ Compounds (VOC)`s before it enters a port or terminal where
Volatile Organ Compounds (VOC) controls are implemented.
 The Designated Person Ashore
 The Chief Officer
 The Master
 The Owner
to immobilise a fracture




tie a bandage over the fracture site
apply a bandage from above the upper joint to the fracture area
apply a bandage from above the upper joint to below the lower joint
all of them
an anti exposure suit shall permit the person wearing it to swin through the water______ and board a
survival craft




at least 10 metres
at least 20 metres
at least 15 metres
at least 25 metres
one of the component of the safety management system (SMS) of international safety management
(ISM) code shall be

To provide safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment
a cofferdam in the double bottom generally consist of

Two watertight floors close to each other
Other than in the machinery spaces of all ships, fire hoses shall have a length at least 10m but no more
than____.

20
Helicopters may develop a very substantial static charge when in flight

True
for a single screw ship moving at a steady speed in calm water, the thrust of the propeller is normally

less than the resistance of the ship
When a propeller starts cavitation, an increase in propeller rpm is likely to _______




Cause a proportionate increase in ship speed.
Cause a negligible increase in ship speed.
Cause a very high increase in ship speed.
Cause a decrease in ship speed.
Hoppers at the two sides top and bottom are found in the cargo holds of ________.




An oil tanker.
A general cargo ship.
A bulk carrier.
A roro ship.
This International Maritime Organization (IMO) symbol represents “remote control for emergency bilge
pump”
• True
• False
In addition to having two fire-fighters outfits on all cargo ships, __ more units need to be provided on
tankers.
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
The maximum draft up to which a ship can be safely loaded is know as __________
• Mean draft between fore and aft drafts
• Gross draft
• Net draft
• Load line draft
The atmospheric boiling point of ammonia nh3

-34.5" C

-30.4” C

-31.4”6

-33.4' C
Flammable is defined as capable of being ignited and expressed by a flammable range Much is the

Percentage volume of gas in air

Percentage volume of gas in oxygen

Percentage weight of gas In air
This International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol
represents lifebuoy with line.

TRUE

FALSE
When you challenge someone how should you treat them?




Aggressively
Politely but firmly
Apologetically
Defensively
Hypothermia in the elderly is dangerous because




They go without adequate food
They do not feel like moving about
They are unable to look after themselves
All of them
A fracture is




Bending, breaking or cracking of bone
Bending, breaking or cracking of muscle
Breaking ,bending or cracking of skin
All of them
solid floors in the double bottom are




watertight
made of very thick and heavy plates
boundaries of double bottom tanks
made of plates which have large lightening holes
security level 2 entails _______




minimum protective measures
additional protective measures
specific protective measures
none of them
the part labeled as '6' shown in the MSA in the picture is




a curshioning air bulb
an aspirator bulb
both of them
none of them
Swelling of the tongue can lead to________




Difficulty in talking
Difficulty in breathing
Both A&B
None of them
When the ship security alert system is activated, it initiates and transmit a ship-to-shore security alert
to:




A company authority designated by the administration
To any other ship
Raise any alarm on board
A nearby port facility
This international maritime organization (imo) symbol represents life raft:


True
false
entry into an enclosed space is to be made with oxygen content is at a minimum of ___.




19.5% by volume
21% by volume
1 PPM
8% by volume
Identify the international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol:




Crowd control station
Not A, C & D
Embarkation station
Muster station
Identify the international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol:



Start air supply
Blow dry
Life raft bellows
This international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represents lower life boat to water.


TRUE
FALSE
This international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represents Lifeboat


TRUE
FALSE
This International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represents “Fire extinguishing system for high
pressure tanks”.


TRUE
FALSE
This international Maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents for “Non return valve”


TRUE
FALSE
This international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represents “10 no´s CO2 fire extinguishers”.


TRUE
FALSE
This International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol repreents “space monitored by Gas detector
(s)”.


TRUE
FALSE
The torch provided in the life raft must be of the water proof type


TRUE
FALSE
An international ship security certificate shall be issued for a specific period, which shall not
exceed_______years.




2
3
4
5
Every lifebuoy shall be fitted with a grabline not less than ________ times the outside diameter of the
body of the buoy in length.




2
3
4
5
On board training and drills for emergency preparedness for fire shall be conducted and periodically
evaluated to_________.




Prevent occurrence of fire
Identify areas where there may be a need of improvement
Ensure that crew are familiar with escape routes
Ensure that crew are familiar with fire pumps, fire lines and hydrants.
The canopy of the life raft shall be provided with means to mount a survival craft radar transponder.


True
False
ID 10664 A damage control Plan is required for which type of ship?




Container ship
Passenger ship
Oil tanker ship
All of them
If there are two persons doing C.P.R the ratio is




01:05
02:15
01:10
All of them
The relationship between current I, and voltage, V, in a circuit is governed by the resistance, R. This is
known as the Ohm´s law which is written as:




I=VR
R=VI
V=IR
R=V/I
All merchant ships Muster Lists are required to be displayed in the




Accommodation spaces
Navigating bridge
Engine room
All of them
The device which shall be fitted to every lifeboat to secure a painter near its bow_____.




Shall be such that the lifeboat does not exhibit unsafe or unstable chatacteristics
Shall be such that the lifeboat does not exhibit unsafe or unstable characteristic when being towed by
the ship making headway at speeds of up to 5 knots in calm water
Both A & B
Neither A & B
How many degrees of burn are there?

3



4
5
None of them
For initial verification for the purpose of issue of Document of Compliance (DOC) the conformity of the
company´s Safety Management System (SMS) as per international Safety Management (ISM) Code,
includig objective evidence demonstrating that the Company´s safety management system has been in
operation for at least ______ and that a safety management system has been in operation on board at
least one ship type operated by the Company for at least ______ months.




Four months / four months
Three months / three months
Two months / two months
One month / one month
Tons in GRT is derived from:




Weight
Number
Volume
None of them
The muster list shall show the duties assigned to different members of the crew, one of them is:




To apply the fixed fire extinguishing system in the engine room
To apply the fixed fire extinguishing system in the cargo holds
The manning of fire parties assigned to deal with fire
The closing of all weather tight doors
frames are used to support the?

side shell
the international ship and port facility Security Code (ISPS) was adopted on 12th Dec 2012, by
resolution ___ of the conference of the contracting Government to the international convention for the
safety of life at sea (safety of life at sea (SOLAS)) 74




1
2
3
4
An EEBD can be used for




Firefighting
Escaping a hazardous atmosphere
Rescuing a casuality from a tanker
Entering Oxygen deficient tanks
hoppers on both upper and lower sides are in the cargo holds of ______.




An oil tanker
A General Cargo Ship
A bulk carrier
A roro ship
What is the primary role of the emergency parties?
• To investigate the damage and move casualties out go danger
• To repair any damage to the pipework
• To gustes the crew in readiness for abandoning ship
• To report the emergency to the shore team
When an emergency situation is first detected, the first step is to:
• Notify the Coastal State
• Sound the alarm
• Search for any missing crew
• Make a detailed plan of action
For which of the following activities is the Senior Officer in charge of the emergency responsible?
• Assigning tasks to each person in the emergency party
• Communicating with the Rescue Coordination Centre
• Keeping the shore office informed of developments
• Notifying the charterer, P&I club and other interested parties
What is the main aim when tackling a container fire?
• To cut a hole in it so that water can be sprayed inside
• To seal it off
• To haul it over the side
• To cool it down and keep it cool
Are the statements about emergencies True or False?
• The least common emergencies reported on container ships are fires and leaks. False
• Loss of refrigeration in a HNS container may lead to fire/explosion risks True
• Under the ISM Code, the ship is require to have an emergency plan. True
• The action plan is another word for the emergency plan False
Are the statements about dealing with emergencies True or False?
• Ships carrying HNS are required by law to have a shipboard pollution emergency plan to deal
specifically with incidents involving these substances. True
• In an emergency, it is recommended not to make any kind of comment to the media. False
• SITREPS are only required for legal reasons. False
• After the emergency has been dealt with, there will be an accident investigation by the flag State. True
What should be done if the full review of the incident points up a procedure that needs changing?
• Permission should be sought from IMO
• The DPA should not be consulted
• It should be Changed in line with recommendations
• It is illegal to change Emergency Response procedures
If extra emergency equipment is needed, what needs to be done?
•
•
•
•
The emergency Response Team will liaise with the shore office to obtain it
An email is sent by the ship to the Coastal State
The Master will request it via the DPA
This is the charterer`s responsibility
If monitoring of the emergency response action indicates that a change is requires, what should be
done?
• The shore office should be consulted
• The operation should be stopped
• The change should be implemented as soon as possible
• The Coastal State should be warned
There are four main dangers faced by evacuees in a survival craft. Which item does not belong in this
list?
• Drowning
• Cold exposure
• Lack of water
• Lack of food
• Inability to sleep
Is the statement about immersion suits True or False?
• Immersion suits should be put on and zipped up before entering an enclosed lifeboat. False
Whats is the recommended way of cooling yourself down in a hot climate when in a liferaft?
• By taking regular dips in the sea
• By using the battery-operated fan provided
• By deflating the liferaft floor
• By paddling the raft to create an air current
How long can a well-nourished person normally survive without water?
• 24 hours
• 3-4 days
• 8-10 days
• 1 month
How much water should be given per day after the first 24 hours?
• No rations are required for the first 5 day
• 1 glass
• 0.5 litre
• 1.5 litres
Look-out watches should be kept:
• 24 hours a day
• During daylight hours
• At night
• At the discretion of the person in change
Which piece of equipment transmits a distress signal with your vessel`s unique serial number?
• SART
• Radar reflector
• GMDSS
• EPIRB
Which piece of equipment communicates with nearby vessel`s radar?
• SART
• Radar reflector
• GMDSS
• EPIRB
Which piece of signalling equipment it used for long range signalling?
• Heliograph
• Smoke canister
• Parachute flare
• Hand flare
What is the heliograph used for?
• To check the outside temperature
• To warm the emergency food rations
• As a first burns dressing
• As a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun
If you have had to enter the water, what is the best course of action?
• Move as much as possible to keep your circulation going
• Take odd your boots or shoes
• Find an object to climb on to
• Keep your front into the wind and waves
Which piece of signalling equipment will help helicopter pilots judge the surface wind speed and
direction?
• Smoke float
• Heliograph
• Parachute flare
• Hand flare
What is the normal method of winching a single uninjured person into a helicopter from a ship?
• A highline
• A lifting stretcher
• A basket
• A rescue hook or strop
What is the minimum number of crew required in the rescue boat?
• 2 people
• 3 people
• 4 people
• 5 people
When launching a rescue boat, what should the ship`s speed be?
• No more than 2 knots
• No more than 5 knots
• No more than 7 knots
• No more than 10 knots
What is the function of the inside watchman on board an inflated raft?
• To prepare food and distribute the water
• To stop people from smoking
• To cheer up the occupants
• To check on injured personnel and on the state of the survival craft
Shock is a state of collapse that may occur after any serious injury. How should victims be treated?
• They should be kept cool, and if conscious placed in an upright position
• They should be kept warm, laid flat and, if conscious, given frequent sips of water - except for those
with stomach injuries
• They should be given a small dose of medicinal brandy, them laid flat and given rest.
• None; wait until rescue services arrive with specialist personnel trained to deal with such a medical
emergency
When would you fire the pyrotechnics after launching the lifeboats and liferafts?
• Once every hour immediately after launching
• When you have sighted the rescue services or other ships/aircraft
• Once every hour during the hours of darkness
• On request from the rescue services
If teamwork is divided into four main stages - forming, storming, norming and performing, what
qualities does the third stage - norming - require?
• An ability to resolve differences
• Flexibility and imagination
• Confidence
• Friendliness and openness
The ideal manager is a SMART one. What does the A stand for?
• Achievable
• Adaptable
• Accountable
• Avoidable
A powernap should take no longer than:
• Ten minutes
• Fifteen minutes
• Twenty minutes
• Half an hour
Is the following statement about resource management principles True or False?
• The greatest resource in resource management is the equipment you use and the colleagues you work
with. False
Is the following statement about resource management principles True or False?
• A virtuous circle is when one stage leads naturally onto the other to become a natural flow. True
When it comes to a commitment to safe working practices, what should good leadership concentrate
on?
• Technological skills
• Delegation
• Time spent on safety drills and briefings
• Self-reflection
Situational awareness was first developed by which industry?
• The TV industry
• The IT industry
• The aviation industry
Is the following statement about resource management principles True or False?
• Good communication and effective communication are always the same thing. False
Which of these definition is wrong?
• Sensory Memory - holds information for brief periods of time
• Working Memory - Holds information about your technical skills
• Long Term Memory - this holds all the information acquired during your life
Which of the activities listed would NOT be considered part of situational awareness?
• Categorising information
• Anticipating a future state
• Interpreting information
• Gathering information
There are four stages to managing your workload successfully. What is the first stage?
• Be organized
• Remain calm
• Remain alert
• Familiarize yourself with the ship and your responsibilities
In Closed Loop Communication you should always:
• Keep to the facts
• Maintain good eye contact
• Be clear
• Be brief
• Do all of the above
-Place the stages from the list in the correct order to show the build up that can lead to an event
Latent failure
preconditions
Active failure
Failed defences / control
eve
Are the statements about work situations true o false?
You sould follow the daily work plan regardless of the way the situation evolves?
(F)
Unwanted visitors or phone calls can distract you from the task in handed start a chain of events leading to an
incident
(T)
Contradictory readings from instrumentations are quite common and are not a cause for concern
( F)
You should not ignored gut feeling about a situation even if you are not sure what may be wonrg
(T)
Active failures are often due to ahuman error
(T)
-the potential for latent failures can be reduced by the proper application of work place procedures aimed at
indentifying risk and possible safety issues.which of this activities listed is not relevant in this context.
1) Risk assentment
2) using permit to work system
3) agreeing times of meal breaks
4) preparing daily work plans
5) toolbox talks
- are the statements about good communication in a team true or false?
You should not question the decition of senior colleages.
(F)
You should only provide information when it is asked for
(F)
You should feel confortable asking for help when they need it
(T)
You should ask questions if there is something you don’t understand
(T)
The reference describes the proccessof learning from experience to avoid repeating mistakes.place the steps
from the list in the correct order
The experience iself
reflection
generalisation
planning
-Select the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about managing hazardous situations
To manage the situations requires control over the hazards and defences for the targets.when the controls or
the defences or both fail we have an event
The taget is damaged or in the case of a near miss threatened by the hazard.
-Goog planning means thinking ahead . everyone should have a clear picture
Of what is likely to happen during the shift. Select the correct words for the list to complete the sentences.
There should be not surprises and not secrets effective engine room resourse mangment depends
On charings informations. What if questionsare important so that there are alternative scenarios in mind if
circunstances or priorities change during during the planned sequence of work.
-To understand the potential of incidents on board you need to indentify possible hazard and targets
Which of the following are hazards and wich are targets?
Electricity H
Causic substances H
Equipment T
Other crew members T
Noisy environment H
Equipment manuals T
Very hot surface H
The traffic lights approach is a system for dealing whit material changes in sircunstances .how many
changes are required for the light to change from green to amber
1
2
3
The reference suggests there are berries wich can often make developing an effective engine room
team harder .these are:
1)Age rank and culture
2)age rank and certification
3)Culture rank and certification
4)Culture certification and age
-if you have to pass through a powered watertight door with a load and your hands aren’t free to
operate each of the control, what you shpuld you do?
Take extra carewhen passing through
Pul the load throughusing a wire or cable
Inform the bridge in then do through
You mustn’t go through unless you ve got an autorised person to operate the door for you
Powered watertight doorsare designed so that they can be opened and closedwhen the ship is listed
to:
10 degrees
15 degrees
20 degrees
25 degrees
-which statement about the bridge control mode of operating a powered watertight door is correct?
1)In brigge control you needto pump the door open manually
2) bridge controlis only for openingthe doors remotely,not for closing them
3)If yougo througha powered watertight door when its under bridge control the door will start to close
inmmediatly when you release the local control from the open position
-When is it permissible to leave an object in the opening of a powered watertight door?
1)If you are an authorized powered watertight door operator
2)at any time except under potentially hazardous conditions
3) at any time except when when the lights are flashing or the alarm sounds
4) never
-what should do if you discover a spill close to a powered watertight door?
1)be extra careful
2)clean it up as soon as practicable
3)report it to the master
4) let it evaporate
What should you do pass through a powered watertight door once the door is fully open?

Whith one hand still on on the nearside controls in the open position ,reach through the doorway with
your other hand to lift the level on the farside control

With one hand stillon the nearside controls in the open positions pass through the door without touching
the lever on the farside controls.

Pass through the door with the door without touching either lever on either side of the door.
-How much power will the emergency hand pump have , in the event of power loss to the powered
watertight doors hydraulic system?
1) Enough for 3 opening and closing movements
2) enough por 5 opening and closing moverments
3)unlimited movement it is manually controlled
4) there is no emergency hand pump
-are the statements about powered watertight doors true or false?
1) Powered watertight doors can also function as fire doors. (T)
2) The numbering on powered watertight doors signifies the amount of pressure they can witshstand in tons
(F)
-how often should bridge control testing of powered watertight doors be carried out ?
1) at least once a week
2)at least once every two weeks
3)at least once a month
4)at least once a year
-The amount of time that powered watertight doors take to close in local controls is regulated as:
➢ 5-10 seconds
➢ 10- 20 seconds
➢ 20- 40 seconds
➢ 40-60 seconds
-What should you do if you need to open a powered watertight door and there is no power?
➢ Use a heavy metal object to force the door open
➢ Consult your supervisor
➢ Use the emergency power supply
➢ Use the emergency hand pump
Which of these circumstances may be described as potentially hazardous ?
➢ When the ship is entering or leaving port
➢ When the ship is securely moored along side
➢ When the ship is deep open water with no other ships around and in calm of wether
-Are the statements about powered watertight door operation true or false?
The alarm on a powered watertight door may be disabled if the door needs be constantly opened and closed
(F)
Under solas powered watertight door may may be kept closed at sea except to allow authorized crew
members (T)
The key to safe use of powered watertight doors is to treat them as if there are always in local controls (F)
-powered watertight doors close with a maximum force of:
1) 100kg
2) 500kg
3)1ton
4) 2tons.
- What action should be taken if a powered watertight door starts closing in front of you?
1)jump through the door quickly before it closes
2)stand clear and use the indicated alternative exit
3) use the lever to operate the powered watertight door as you like
-when may an unahutorised person open and closed powered watertight door?
1) at any time
2) when the doors have been closed for more than one hour
3) Only in a emergency
4) at anchor
-the first correct step for going througha powered watertight is to:
1)sound the alarm
2) hold on to the control and wait for the door to open fully
3)use the control and pass throughas soon as the dooropen 50 centimetres
4) contact the bridge
-what is the first thing that should be done to find out the risk posed by the cargo?
1) the chartere should be contacted
2) the chief officershould inspect the container
3) the ship manual should be consulted
4) the cargo manifest should be consulted
-Which of the items listed does not form part of the ship’s emergency plan?
➢ Up to date compny contacts
➢ Rest hours
➢ Communication methods to be used on board
➢ Procedures for requesting assistance from third parties
-What are the risk from calcium hypoclorito cargo?
1) it can lead to thermal expancion
2) it can realase hydrogen sulphide a toxic gas
3)it can lead to under pressurization of the container
4) it can self-ignite and release oxygen causing the fire to burn continuously
-what is recommended procedure for dealing with a floating HNS?
1)neutralize with it a base
2)use oil spill response and containment tecniques
3)change vessel positions taking windin direction
4)two vessel in less voulnerable area
-below deck a major fire should be fought with:
1)smothering gas
2) calcium hypochlorite
3)injection of co2
4)water spray
1) If tha Engine Room, the secon Engineer Will automatically take over because intimate
knowledge of the location is essential
a) True
b) false
2) On ship with only one emergency party, the chief officer Will usually take charge
a) True
b) False
3) The member of the emergency parties must be frequently Exchanged to ensure that all crew
menbers become familiar whit all fire fighting duties on board ship.
a) True
b) False
The officer in charge of the Attack Party makes an immediate assessmenof the situation and commences
apropriate initial activities, keeping in regular contact whit the bridge.
The initial tasks of the Engine Room Party are to check that all pumps are fully aperational &that the
emergency pumps and generator are functioning correctly.
Tha first Aid Party muster at the exit to the hospital where they collect strechers first aid ki, & a resuscitator
pack.
The attack Party, or Emergency Party, has the task of directly fighting the fire.
The stability of the ship is principally the resposibility of the bridge team.
Limiting the amount of wáter used helps maintain stability.
Daping down should be continued until all sings of heating have ceased.
After a fiere has been extinguished, a 24 hour fire watch should be kept on the área.
What is the SART?
a) A sulvival carft radar transponder.
b) A survival craft radio transmitter.
c) A search and Rescue team on standby for maritime emergencies.
d) A search an Recues training exercise.
At what poing during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a fully enclosed
lifeboat?
➢ Once the bottom plugs have been set.
➢ Once the painter has been passed out of the forward Hatch and secured.
➢ Once everyone is inside.
➢ Once the engine has been started.
Why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboatextremely carefully?
➢ Because the boat is in the wáter and they could get wet.
➢ Because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle.
➢ Beacuse it is extremely weight-sensitive.
➢ Because sudden movements could dislodge it.
What are the gripe?
o
They are special storage spaces onboard the lifeboat to hold food supplies.
o
They secure the lifeboat to the bollards on the main deck.
o
They aid in lowering the boat by using the winch mechanism.
o
They secure the lifeboat to the davits when stowed.
Are the statements abaut lifeboat operations true or false?
All on-load relase systems must have built in safeguards against early reléase.
a. True
b. False
When the boat is at safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released.
a. True
b. False
A freefall lifeboat should be abondoned if the engine does not start.
a. True
b. False
If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long Will the constant Flow of air last?
a. A mínimum of 2 minutes.
b. A minimun of 5 minutes.
c. A minimum of 10 minutes.
d. A mínimum of 20 minutes.
What is teeh purpose of the hydrostatic interlock in the keel?
a. It prevents seawater entering the boat.
b. It indicates the loaded weight of the boat and prevents overloading.
c. It prevents relase of the hooks until such time that the keel of the boat is under water.
d. It supplies cooling wáter to the lifeboat engine.
When launching a fully enclosed lifeboat the FPDs should be removed:
a. Before the boat start to descend.
b. Just before the boat reaches the water.
c. Once the boat is the water.
d. FPDs shuold never be removed.
Oce the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation deck and securely bowsed,
what is the next step in the lauching procedure?
o
The sliphook of the gripes is conected.
o
The sliding beam davits are removed.
o
The boat is lowered to the waterline.
o
The person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepared to board the evacuees.
Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload reléase mechanisms. Which of the actions lited
to avoid this happening does NOT belong on the list?
o
Make yourself fuly aware of the Paint coating required and grase all moving parts.
o
Check the manufacturer´s handbook on proper use of the mechanism.
o
Make yourself fully aware of the correctprodures.
o
Make yourself fully awere of the safety checks.
o
Make yourself fully awere of all othger launching equiment.
A fully enclosed lifeboat´s descent can be stopped at any time by:
o
Pulling on the painter.
o
Signalling to the which operator.
o
Increasing the tensión on the brake control cable.
o
Releasing the tensión on the brake control cable.
The shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:
o
Rigid covers.
o
Folding canopies.
o
A combination of rigid cover and folding canopies.
o
A fibreglass Shell that is operated ellectronically and con up to 80% of the boat.
Which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?
o
Fire-protected lifeboats.
o
Freefall life boats.
o
Partially eclosed lifeboats.
o
Fully enclosed lifeboats.
When getting clear of the stricker ship, what is the recommended procedure?
o
Make sure the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship.
o
Head dow wind of the ship and clear of its bow and sterm.
o
Stay within 100 meter of the ship, on the bow side.
o
Stay within 100 meter of the ship, on the sterm side.
How are throw overboard liferafts inflated?
o
By releasing the senhouse slip.
o
By opening the valise.
o
By using the pump suplied
o
By giving a strng pullo n the painter at its full extent.
Once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the wowsing lines be used
for?
o
To pull the liferaft in tightt to that it can be made fast, ready for bording.
o
To act as safety device when boarding.
o
There are no bowsing line son davint-launched liferafts.
o
Clearing the bording área of obtacles.
Why is it impotant to keep the bowsing line whitin the raft?
o
So that they can be used to tie raft together when the raft is clear.
o
So that they can be used to tie evacuees thogether if the liferaft should sink.
o
So that the davit hook can be raised ready for the next launch.
o
So that they Will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while it is being lowered.
What is the first action in launching a davit-lauched liferaft?
o
Remove the ship´s side rails.
o
Remove the liferaft´s securing straps.
o
Prepared the davit.
o
Chek that launch área is unobstructed.
When launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft shakled out of the canister,
what should you do next?
o
Let it go.
o
Hook it on to the davit.
o
Hook it on to the bowsing line.
o
You should never pull the liferaft shakle oaut of the canister.
What is the first action when bording a thow overboard liferaft?
o
Used the painter to secure the liferaft alongside
o
Rig the ship´s boardingg ladders.
o
Check the liferaftnfor leaks an damage.
o
Prepare the davit.
SOLAS specifies that it must be posible to evacuate a ship winthing:
o
15 minutes.
o
30 minutes.
o
45 minutes.
o
One hour.
Are the statements abaut liferaft operations true or false?
1) The priority after launching the liferaft is to get clear of the ship using ani means posible.
2)
o
True
o
false
the disadvantage tha evacuees may have to enter the water before getting into the liferaft.
o
True
o
false
3) Once a throw averboard liferaft is in the water, you should rig the embarkation Ladder.
o
True
o
False
How many people are normally needed to right at 25 person liferaft?
o
1
o
2
o
3
o
25 person liferafts are too heavy to right.
Which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostactic reléase?
o
All liferafts except the ones stored forward.
o
The ones stored inside the accommodation.
o
All throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic reléase.
o
No throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic reléase.
What should you do if wateer enters the life raft?
o
let out, using the drain plug.
o
Nothing. The raft Will remain buoyant in any case.
o
Bail it out as son as possible, using the valer and/or spange.
o
Contact other liferats in the vicinity for assistance.
Where can you find out detailed information abaut liferaft equiement and operation?
o
From the ship´s safety management system.
o
From the manufactures´websites.
o
From the muster list.
o
From the SOLAS training manual.
When may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
o
When you hear the general emergency signal.
o
When the person in charge of the liferaft gives the order
o
When the master or their deputy give the order.
o
When you judge that it is no longer safe to safe to stay in the ship.
As evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew member sitting at the entrnce should:
o
Check that they have removed all Sharp objets from their pockets.
o
Check that they have brought all the necessary survival equiement.
o
Direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, an so on.
o
Direct the first evacuees to sito n the buoyancy chamber, and then the rest to left and righ.
A sprain is an injury to:
o
Ligament.
o
Muscle.
o
Tendón.
o
Bone.
When a casualty has dislocated shoulder you must:
o
Attempt to arm back in position.
o
Bentthe arm and place it in an elevation sling.
o
Bend the arm and place it in low sling.
o
Tie the arm to the side of side of body.
Which of the injuries listed is best treated using an elevation sling?
o
Fractured collarbone.
o
Fractured upper arm.
o
Dislocated elbow.
o
Fractured lower arm.
How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the left side of their chest?
o
Sitting up and leaning toward the right.
o
In the recovery position lying on the right.
o
Sitting up and leaning towards the left.
o
In the recovery position lying on the left.
When applying a dressing to a sucking chest wound it should be:
o
Non stick and sealed with to top Edge open.
o
Non stick and sealed with bottom Edge open.
o
Dressing pad secured on all sides.
o
Dressing pad secured with bottom Edge open.
A casualty has fallen from a height and appears to be unconscious. What would you do first?
o
Check their breating
o
Check their pulse
o
Place them in the recovery position
o
Leave them and phone for help
When a casuality has a fractured base of skull they may have:
o
Bloo stained fluid leaking from the ears only.
o
Bloo stained fluid leaking from the nose only.
o
Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
o
Blood stained fluid leaking from the mouth only.
A complicated fracture is one where there is:
o
A wound and bone is visible.
o
A wound and the bone is protruding.
o
Excessive bleeding from an open wound.
o
Damage to underlying tissue.
In a concussed casualty you Will find:
o
one pupil slower to ract ti light tan the other
o
one pupil large than the other.
o
Neither of the pupils react to light.
o
Both of the pupil react to light.
Are the statements about working in dark or smoke filled areas True or False?
a)
b)
c)
d)
You should use reference points. True
Try to remain calm. True
Keep in physical contact with a fellow team member. True
Communicate your position clearly to the control centre. True
What is the minimum capacity of air cylinders according to SOLAS?




800 litres.
1000 litres.
200 litres.
1500 litres.
When testing a BA set before use, what is the maximum acceptable pressure drop after the cylinder valve has
been closed?



8 bar per minute.
10 bar per minute.
12 bar per minute.
Which of the factor listed is not likely to affect the amount of time an individual can work with SCBA in a
dangerous environment?




Workload.
Fitness.
Time of day.
Prevailing conditions.
Are the statements about emergency operations True or False?




The entry party should check the door prior to entry. True
The BA team should leave the danger area when their air pressure is down to 80 bar. True
Spare BA sets should be left in their stowage position in the event of an emergency. False
The emergency control centre should be controlled by a senior officer. True
What is the minimum percentage full that a BA set should be used?




70%
75%
80%
85%
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the main components of a BA set.
Most modern BA sets have an air cylinder mounted on a back-plate. The air travels through a cylinder valve
and then through a first stage pressure reducer. Next, there is a high pressure line that takes the air to a
pressure gauge and warning whistle assembly. A low pressure line takes the air to a demand valve which
houses the first breath mechanism and a by-pass valve. The demand valve is attached to a facemask.
Who should check the torches and communications prior to entry?



The officer in charge.
The BA wearer.
The master.
Prior to donning the BA, the by-pass valve should be:


Closed.
Open.
In an emergency or high stress situation, how can a supplementary air flow be obtained for the facemask?



Adjust the demand valve.
Open the bypass valve.
Close the bypass valve.
What is the safe level of oxygen in an atmosphere?




18%
19.5%
21%
22%
Prior to donning the BA, the first breath mechanism should be:


Closed.
Open.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about maintenance of BA sets.
Each time breathing apparatus has been used it must be cleaned and the facemask disinfected. A visual check
should discover any damage that may have occurred. In such cases, this must be reported to an officer and
the BA set taken out of service. Otherwise, clean the set with lanolin soap and use a disinfectant on the
facemask.
How long should a hand held lamp be tested for?




10 seconds.
20 seconds.
30 seconds.
1 minute.
The by-pass valve is closed by turning it fully:


Anti-clockwise.
Clockwise.
What is the typical air consumption per minute for a man wearing a Ba set in an emergency situation
performing heavy work?




20-30 liters.
50-60 litres.
90-100 litres.
10-15 litres.
OPA 90 applies to:




All oil tankers over 150 GT entering US waters.
All ships flying the US flag.
All ships entering US waters whatever their flag.
All oil and chemical tankers entering US waters whatever their flag.
How far from the shoreline do US waters extend?




50 nautical miles.
120 nautical miles.
150 nautical miles.
200 nautical miles.
Are the statements listed True or False?



Most marine oils spills result from oils tankers getting into difficulties. False
The majority of spills are less than seven tonnes. True
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no special precautions need
to be taken before starting. False
Drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects to preparing for bunkering.




The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition.
All scuppers must be plugged.
Portable pumps must be readily available.
The piping system must be correctly lined up.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.





The transfer must start at a low flow rate.
Transfer rate will need to be carefully monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring arrangements.
Pipework and air vents must be continually checked for oil leaks.
Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the checks procedures required when ballasting through the
cargo system.




Check that the COW system has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been opened.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is started.
The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:



Having a collision.
Running aground.
Catching fire.
A full scale PREP to test both ship and shore based emergency response capabilities must be carried out:




One a year.
Three time a year.
Once every two years.
Twice a year.
Which of these statements about the qualified individual (QI) is NOT correct?




The QI must speak fluent English.
The QI must be a member of the ship’s crew.
The QI has to be based in the USA.
The QI may authorize funds for the clean up.
Under OPA 90, who must be notified first in the event of an incident?




The coast guard captain of the nearest port.
The shipping company headquarters.
The national response centre in Washington D. C.
The qualified individual.
Are the statements listed True or False?



In a real emergency, it may be necessary to close air vents to the engine room and to close seawater
intakes. True
The OPA 90 vessel response plan must always be available in English. True
The crew would not normally be mustered until a detailed emergency response had been agreed with
the shore office. False
Which of the actions listed are the responsibility of the command centre?





The coordination and distribution of information concerning the actual and forecast condition of the spill.
The management of all tactical operations required to execute the company’s general emergency
response plan.
Obtaining manpower, equipment, material, food, protective clothing and other facilities needed to
support the emergency response.
Settling compensation claims.
All of the above.
Which of the items of information listed is NOT required by the standard form for reporting incidents to the
Nacional Response Centre?




The ship’s position.
The type of product.
The number of crew on board.
Tue quantity at risk.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about the operation of OPA 90.




The Unified commands provides a top level forum for producing a cohesive plan of action.
All decisions, actions and communications must be logged on the ship.
Unless the master has serious concerns for safety on board, he will normally follow the advice he
receives from the command centre.
The coast guard will take over operations only if they are asked or if they think things are getting out of
control.
Oil cargoes may pose health hazards and these can be caused through ingestion, skin contact or inhalation.
Which of these posess the greatest risk?



Inhalation.
Skin contact.
Ingestion.
Are statements listed True or False?



Most marine oils spills result from oil takers getting into difficulties. False
The majority of spills are less than seven tonnes. True
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small so no special precautions need to
be taken before starting. False
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures requires when ballasting through the
cargo system.




Check that the COW system has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been opened.
Check that the sea valves remain closed until the pump is started.
Use your mouse to complete the following sentence correctly.




Absorbents are substances which soak up oil like a sponge.
Adsorbents are substances where oil sticks to the outside surface.
Synthetic sorbents absorb a lot of oil and don’t absorb water.
Natural products often soak up water as well as oil.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.





The transfer must start at a low flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be carefully monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring arrangements.
Pipework and air vent must be continually checked for oil leaks.
Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about weathering of oil.




The lower the viscosity of the oil, the faster it will spread
Low temperatures will make oil more viscous, and spread more slowly
The higher the ambient temperature and the greater the wind speed the more oil will evaporate
Over 36 to 48 hours, oil can mix with the sea to form a mousse
Are the statements about possible hazards associated with spills True or False?
 Frequent or prolonged skin contract with benzene is not a cause of concern. False
 Inhalation of hydrogen sulphide can be fatal. True
 Your sense of smell can become rapidly de-sensitised, particulary to hydrogen sulphide. True
 Most ail cargoes do not require the use of any special protective clothing or equipment. False
When a spill moves with a tide or current at what percentage of the tide or current speed does it move?
 3%



10%
50%
100%
Match the opening words with the closing words to identify some of the key aspects of preparing for bunkering
 The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition
 All scuppers must be plugged
 Portable pumps must be readily available
 The piping system must be correctly lined up
A casualy with a severe bleed at the right wrist is unconscious. What position would you place them
in?
1. In the recovery position on the right side
2. In the shock position with right arm elevated
3. Laid down flat on the deck
4. In the recovery position on the left side
You are in a safe environment. What is the first action you should take on discovering a casualty?
1. Place the casualty in the recovery position
2. Shout at the casualty as you approach them to provoke a response
3. Feel for a pulse at the neck
4. Ckeck breathing
The immediate treatment for a hot burn is to:
1. Cool the are with wáter
2. Remove charred clothing
3. Apply antiseptic cream
4. Apply sterile dressing
You casualty has an arterial bleed at the wrist. The first aid tratment is to:
1. Apply a wound dressing and sling
2. Put the casualty in the recovery position
3. Apply a tourniquet
4. Press directly on the wound
When checking a casualty´s ABC how long do you allow in order to check their breathing?
1. 5 seconds
2. 10 seconds
3. 15 seconds
4. 1 minute
What is the ratio of ventilations to chest compressions in resuscitation?
a) 2:30
b) 2:15
c) 30:2
d) 15:2
Indirect pressure to stop bleeding should be kept in place for:
a) 10 minutes and relea sed quicly
b) 10 minutes and relea sed slowly
c) 15 minutes and relea sed quickly
d) 15 minutes and relea sed slowly
Arterial blood is:
1. Bright red and gushing
2. Bright red and spurting
3. Dark red and spurting
4. Dark red and gushing
A casualty is placed in the recovery position :
1. When they are in shock
2. To aid breathing
3. To maintain the alrway
4. To make them more comfortable
During resuscitation,the rateo f compression should be:
1. 60 per minute
2. 80 per minute
3. 100 per minute
4. 120 per minute
If you think a casualty is choking you should first:
1. Ask them if they are choking
2. Do 5 back slaps
3. Do 5 abdominal thrusts
4. Open their mounth to ckeck for any blockage
A casualty in shock has:
1. Pale chammy skin and slow pulse
2. Pale dry skin and fast pulse
3. Pale clammy skin and fast pulse
4. Pale dry skin ans slow pulse
the severity of a burn is assessed by:
1. Its depeth and its cause.
2. Its área and its cause
3. Its cause and its complexity
4. Its Depth and its área
The casualty´s pal mis considered to be:
1. 1% of the total body Surface área
2. 10% of the total body Surface área
3. 2% of the total body Surface área
4. 5% of the total body Surface área
A burn should be cooled for a mínimum of:
1. 10 minutes
2. 15 minutes
3. 20 minutes
4. 30 minutes
A casualty is found collapsed in an enclosed space. What should the rescuer do first?
1. Carry the casualty to safety
2. Assess the casualty´s breathing
3. Stop any major bleding
4. Raise the alam
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?
1. Cold bums to the hands may be warmed up by being rubbed.
FALSE
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?
1. It is OK to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions and ventilations
TRUE
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?
1. The casualty may be a danger to the rescuer.
TRUE
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?
1. A shocked casualty who is thirsty may be given a drink of wáter
FALSE
What is often the first sign of hydrogen sulphide (H25) being present in a space?
1. The smell of lemons
2. The smell of petrol
3. The smell of rotten eggs
4. The smell of burning
What enclosed space Hazard is caused by the rusting of metal?
1. Toxic gas poisoning
2. Anaemia
3. Eye irritation
4. Asphyxiation
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?
1.
Enclosed spaces are enclosed on all sides
False
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?
1. The only tasks that require enclosed space entry are cleaning and maintenance
False
What wil happen if you stay in an atmosphere containing less than 6% oxygen for 4 minutes or more?
1. Death
2. Muscle weakness
3. Eye disturbance
4. Nausea and vomiting
What is it prohibited to enter a space that has been inerted?
1. Because it Will cause nausea
2. Because you woll die from lack of oxygen
3. Because there is an explosión Hazard
4. Because it Will irriate your eyes
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?
1.
All enclosed spaces must hace clearly visible signs, indicating that they should not be enteres with out
the proper preparation and procedures
True
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?
1. If you need to rescue someone from an enclosed space which has an atmosphere that has been
identified as dangerous, you must first puto n a BA (breathing apparatus) set.
True
Complete the following sentences about gaseous fuels
The hazards presented by flammable gases are the same as those of the vapour given off
liquids
by low flshpoint
A leaking gas will either disperese upwards or downwards depending on its vapour density
A leaking gas may find a remote source of ignition and carry a flame back to the source of the leak
Gas culinders should be located ouside the machinery space from where the gas will be piped
A mishandled acetylene cylinder may feel hot to the rouch; if so
fine spray and jettisoned
it could explode and should be cooled with a
What, if any, precautions need to be taken before welding in the vicinity of open, but empty, hatches?
1. No special precaution are necessary when welding in the vicinity of empty hatches as long as loading
operations hace not started
2. Screens should be erected to prevent sparks dropping down hatches or ventilators. Dunnage and other
combustible materials should be moved to a safe distance.
3. Issue a “cold work” pemit.
4. Obtain permission from the harbour authorities and company head office.
What are the three elements found in the “FIRE TRIANGLE”?
1. Fuel, wáter and flame
2. Air, flame and heat
3. Fuel, air and heat
4. Fuel, air and flame
Heat Will always travel from hotter áreas to cooler ones, no matter how small the temperature
difference may be. Please match each example of heat transfer with the appropiate definition
Direct heat transfer through a material CONDUCTION
Heated liquids or gases rise, carrying the heat from one área to another CONVECTION
Heat energy transfered by radiating through a space, as in a cooking grill RADIATION
Spontaneous combustión may occur when:
1. A person smokes in bed and the lighted cigarette falls out of his/her hand as they fall asleep.
2. Sparks escaping from the funnel or other engine exhaust, set fire to materials left lying about on deck.
3. Incorrect procedures are followed in the sequence of lighting a boiler
4. Dirty waste, rags, sawdust and other rubbish, especially if contaminated bye oil, are left lying about.
In compression, the casualty will have:
1. Shallow breathing with strong and slow pulse.
2. Shallow breathing with strong and fast pulse
3. Noisy breathing with strong and slow pulse
4. Noisy breathing with strong and fast pulse
A casualty has a chemical splash in the eye, you should:
1. Immerse their head in a basin of warm water
2. Sit them down and open the eye to note ant damage
3. Wash the eye out with the casualty lying down
4. Place and over the eye
A casualty has a wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it out?
1. At least 5 minutes
2. At least 10 minutes
3. At least 15 minutes
4. At least 20 minutes.
A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound. What action would you
take?
1. Place a dry dressing pad firmly over the wound
2. Place a non stick dressing firmly over the wound
3. Place a damp dressing lightly over the wound
4. Place a damp dressing firmly over the wound
If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg the rescuer should:
1. Not release them if trapped for longer than 10 minutes
2. Not release them if trapped for longer than 15 minutes
3. Only release them after 15 minutes
4. Only release after 10 minutes
An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice yu should:
a) Wrap finger in plastic then padding
b) Wash the finger and wrap it in plastic
c) Wrap the finger in padding
d) Wrap the finger in padding and then plastic
A casualty with chest pain should be:
a) Laid down and have their legs elevated.
b) Placed in the recovery positon
c) Sat on a chair
d) Positioned sitting up and supported
If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their:
1. Blood sugar is too low
2. Pulse rate is too slow
3. Temperature is too low
4. Blood pressure is too low
A casualty having an asthma attack will have:
1. Pale skin, normal breathing and fast pulse
2. Red skin, fast breathing and slow pulse
3. Normal skin, normal breathing and past pulse
4. Pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse
A casualty has shallowed cleaning fluid. You should:
1. Give them lots of water to drink
2. Not let them drink anything at all
3. Give them salty water to drink
4. Give them sips of water to drink
Which of the symptoms listed could indicate spinal injury?
1. Pain at the spine or elsewhere
2. Loss of control of movement
3. Loss of bladder control
4. Any of above
In hypothermia the casualty will be:
1. Pale, sweating with a fast pulse.
2. Red, sweating with a fast pulse
3. Pale, with a slow pulse
4. Red with a slow pulse.
On a rescue, a hypothermic casualty is unconscious. You should:
1. Give them hot drinks
2. Wrap them in blankets
3. Put them in a warm bath
4. Get them to walk around
A casualty with heat exhaustion is:
1. Red and breathing slowly
2. Pale and breathing fast
3. Pale and breathing slowly
4. Red and breathing fast
A casualty with heat stroke is:
1. Red with a strong pulse
2. Red with a weak pulse
3. Pale with noisy breathing
4. Pale with shallow breathing
In what way are VOCs bad for the environment?
1. They cause acid rain
2. They pollute sea water
3. They create ground level smog
4. They are corrosive and flammable when they react with oxygen
Who is responsible for ensuring that a ship is equipped with means of collecting VOCs before it enters
a port or terminal where VOC controls are implemented?
1. The designated person ashore
2. The chief officer
3. The master
4. The owner
the entire pipeline network in the vapor collection system must:
1. be marked with the word ‘VAPOUR’
2. be electrically bonded to the hull and electrically continuous
3. consist of flexible hosing
4. have a drain off at its highest point
What is the colour scheme for making the vapour control manifold?
1. Yellow with red bands
2. Black with red bands
3. Yellow with black bands
4. Red with black bands
The cylindrical safety stud on the manifold flange must be set:
1. At the 6 o’clock position
2. At the 12 o’clock position
3. So that it is not in contact with flange face
4. Parallel to the flange face
Under MARPOL annex VI the vapour flow capacity of each PV valve must be at least:
1. 25% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
2. 75% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
3. 125% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
4. 175% of the maximum loading rate of each tank
How many venting systems should there be?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
In the cargo tank pressure release system, over pressure alarms should be set at:
1. A minimum of 68% of the lowest pressure relief valve setting
2. A minimum of 75% of the lowest pressure relief valve setting
3. A minimum of 90% of the lowest pressure relief valve setting
4. A minimum of 125% of the lowest pressure relief valve setting
The lower low pressure alarms in inerted vessels should be set at not less than:
1. 100 mm WG
2. 150 mm WG
3. 200 mm WG
4. 250 mm WG
Is the following statement about vapour emission control true or false?
Countries and terminals can be demand that only tankers fitted with vapor collection system may operate in
VOC control areas
1. True
2. False
Is the following statement about vapour emission control true or false?
The overfill control system must be connected to the cargo gauging system
1. True
2. False
Is the following statement about vapour emission control true or false?
Tanks should always be opened for sampling when loading is 90% complete.
1. True
2. False
What could happen if vapour passes over condensate?
1. It could cause under-pressurisation
2. It could cause over-pressurisation
3. It could create a toxic cloud
4. It could generate static electricity and increase the risk of explosion
Before arrival, you should check that, if tank atmospheres are inerted, they contain:
1. At least 8% oxygen
2. Less than 8% oxygen
3. At least 8% nitrogen
4. Less than 8% nitrogen
Where should the detonation arrestor be positioned before loading starts?
1. Close to the terminal vapour connection
2. Close to the vessel vapour connection
3. In the cargo manifold
4. On the tank access vent
Within what timescale should the US expanded declaration of inspection confirm that alarms have
been tested?
1. The last month
2. The last week
3. The last 24 hours
4. Alarm do not form part of the expanded declaration of inspection
Loading should take place:
1. As quickly as possible
2. Extremely slowly throughout
3. Starting rapidly and slowing down
4. Starting slowly and increasing in stages
at what point during loading should you take a break to check cargo, monitoring and alarm system?
1. When the tank is a round 20 cm full
2. When the tank is a round 2 m full
3. When the ullage space in the tank is 20 cm
4. When the ullage space in the tank is 2 m
After loading, non inerted cargoes must be allowed to settle for how long before they are opened for
sampling
1. 5 minutes
2. 15 minutes
3. 30 minutes
4. It is not necessary to wait
When lightering, what should there be in the vapour line of the discharging vessel?
1. A low pressure alarm
2. A high pressure alarm
3. A PV valve
4. An oxygen content analyser
Are the statements about emergency procedures true or false?
1. The emergency control centre should be set up as far from the emergency situation as possible. false
2. Communication from the BA set wearer to the control centre should be made in English only. false
3. Communications from the BA set wearer to the control centre should be spoken as quickly as possible
to conserve air. False
Which of the items of information listed does not need to be entered on an entry control board
1. Name and rank of wearer
2. Cylinder content at time of entry
3. Time entry
4. Ambient temperature
At what pressure should the warning whistle sound (on a 207 bar set)?
1. 45-50 bar
2. 60-70 bar
3. 30-40 bar
1 .-All communications should follow standard procedures. In the examples given below, which item does not
belong?
a.- identify the transmitting station
b.- keep the communication as brief as possible
c.- use standard phrases at dictation speed
d.- do not interrupt speaker
e.- should out as loudly as you can to overcome background noise
2.-what is the first duty of an emergency party’s group leader?
a.- waste no time and tackle the emergency. For instance in case of fire, the extinguish, then report to the
bridge
b.- to muster his/her group at the pre arranged muster station and check that all are safe, and to report
c.- proceed straight to the problem site and await the arrival of his/her emergency party
d.- check the emergency equipment under his/her control
3.- what is good way to describe a ship when fighting fire on board
a.- potentially a six- sided box with four sides and top and bottom through which fire can spread
b.- a floating hazard where the possibility of explosion must be considered
c.- a vessel divided by fire-proof bulkheads in such a way that fire will be contained to distinct and predetermined fire zones
d.- an independent unit where outside assistance can never be provided
4.-when the BA team has withdrawn, what action should be taken by the team leader?
a.- instruct the BA to change the bottles, then relax until called again if necessary
b.-check the equipment personally and ensure that is safe for future use
c.- toughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the bridge
d.- make a note, act as you think best, and keep information to yourself as others, such as the bridge team,
must not be overloaded with information
5.- is it good practice to send one man into a smoked filled area wearing the breathing apparatus (BA) while a
second person remains outside the area on stand-by?
a.-it is a rule that only two BA sets are available on board, one man entry is issential with the second man on
stand by
b.- it is preferable that BA should used in teams of not less than two fighters working together
c.- never send two persons together into an area in case an explosion injures both persons
d.- there are not preferred methods of working with AB sets
6.- on mustering the leader of each party must first of all
a.- report to the bridge
b.- appoint an assistant
c. take a roll call
d.- determine the incident site
7.-are the following statements true or false
a.- regular fire drills must be held. They must be taken seriously and must include everyone on board
b.- some drills should cover training in the use and maintenance of equipment
c.- when holding drills take the opportunity to test communications
T
T
T
d.- after each drill, hold a review with everyone to discuss how successful it was how it could be
T
improved
8.- the first task of command and control is to provide the three c’s of naval strategy. These three processes
must be established quickly. Which process does not belong
a.- communication
b.- co-ordination
c.- chaos
d.- control
9.- can you leave the control of the BA set to the wearer alone
a.- yes the wearer is best placed to know what is happening under given conditions and control must be left of
them
b.- all that is nedded is for the wearer to be trained and understand how to read the gauge
c.- there should be a person assigned to check donning, testing procedure, life- line tending and elapsed time
d.- such controls are not practical during emergency situations, but are helpful during training sessions
10.-in the list of actions below, which item does not belong, before using a fixed CO2 installation
a.- sound the fire alarm
b.- evacuate the area
3.- take a roll call to make sure no one is left there
c.- open all doors.
d.- shut all vents and accesses
11.- why should a CO2 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?
a.- it will increase the oxygen present in the confined area to a dangerous level
b.- it will not operate effectively in confined areas
c.- it may explode when exposed to heat
d.- it will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available
12.- what are carbonaceous fuels?
a.- all low- flash liquids are referred to as carbonaceous fuels
b.- hydrocarbon product carried on tankers wich were derived from metamorphic rock formations
c.- ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper , cloth :those materials which burn to leave behind
smouldering embers
d.- flammable gases under pressure in pipes, tanks or cylinders which can create a risk of explosion
whentemperature/pressure controls fail.
13.-if you see smoke coming from behind a closed door, what would be fist essential action on your part?
a.-open the door and investigate to see if you can quickly put the ire out with the nearest extinguisher before it
gets out of control. Then raise the alarm and report what you have achieved
b. you should raise the alarm, then wait until the fire party arrives.
c.- feel the heat of the door and handle, brace your shoulder and knee against the door open the door slightly
investigate and close quickly. Then raise the alarm and report clearly what the problem is
d. activate the fixed halon or fixed CO2 installation without delay
14.- dry powder extinguisher suppress a fire by chemically interfering with the process of combustion complete
the following sentence, a dry powder extinguisher act as
a.- a flame inhibitor
b. a cooling agent
c. a smothering agent
d. a means of fuel starvation
15.- what do the word starvation smothering and cooling refer to in relation to fire fighting
a.- they are the words describing various fire detections systems
b. the means to remove one or more of three elements of combustion
c.- the conditions under which a fire may start
d.- the names of fire fighting equipments
16.-if a space is illing with smoke and fumes any personnel not properly equipped with breathing
a.- get out of the spaced without delay, if necessary by crawling on hands and knees
b. raise the alarm look for the nearest fire extinguisher and take immediate fire fighting action
c. search for others who may be in urgent need assistance
d. close all doors and portholes before making an escape from the area
17.- what type of extinguisher is most suitable for dealing with fire involving carbonaceous materials
a. CO2 extinguisher
b. DRY powder extinguisher
c. foam extinguisher
d. water extinguisher
18.-with extinguisher methods are electrically conducting
a. CO2
b. Dry powder
c. water/foam
d. fire blanket
19.what would you consider to be your must be your most important reaction on discovering a fire
a. closing doors and windows to remove the aire supply
b. tackle the fire with the nearest fire extinguisher
c. find the seat of the fire
d. report it by raising the alarm
20.- ideally the adjustable jet/spray nozzle on a hose should be used as
a.- a jet
b. a sprat of arc 30 degrees
c. a spray of arc 60 degrees
d. a spray of arc 90 degrees
21.- what us a hot work permit
a. a permit allowing seafarers to work on deck under direct sunlight’s
b. a permit allowing galley staff to start up the galley equipment
c. a permit allowing engineers to fire the main boiler
d. a permit issued when laid down procedures controlling hot work are in place and obeyed
22.-spontaneous combustion may occur when
a.- a person smokes in bed and the light cigarette falls out of his/her hand as they fall asleep
b.-sparks escaping from the funnel or other engine exhaust, set fire to materials left lying on deck
c.- incorrect procedures are followed in the sequence of lighting a boiler
d.- dirty waste, rags, sawdust other rubbish, specially if contaminated by oil are left lying about
23.- why is the risk of a fire in the engine room potentially so great
a.- because it is hot place
b.- because fuel tanks are located in the engine room spaces
c.- because it contains air, fuel and heat
d.- because ventilator are constantly supplying fresh air
24.- is there a connection between good housekeeping and fire prevention on board ship
a.- no the two are not related
b.yes, good housekeeping is important element in the fire check list on board ship
c.-no, it is not related to a potential heat energy source
d.-rubbish is not a problem as long as it is kept nearly together on board your ship in the marpol containers
provided
25.-what is a basic principle of fire prevention
a.- never to smoke in bed
b. remove one of three components of the triangle
c. keep all spaces well ventilated throughout the vessel
d.- to make an inspection of the vessel on completion of your period on duty
26.- many things can create the heat necessary to create a fire. Of the examples given below, which item does
not belong
a.- painted surfaces
b.- friction
c.- electrical energy
d.- chemical reactions
d.- compressed gases
e. hot surfaces
27.- in fire-fighting, what does the term boundary starvation refer to
a.-closing doors and hat hatches at the boundary of a fire
b.- cooling the area around a fire to stop it spreading
c.- removing the fuel from the boundary of a fire to stop it spreading further
d. mustering fire fighters and materials in the area near the fire
28.- the basic rules of fire fighting are common to all ships. They are contained in the letters making up the
word fire. From the options below which is the odd one out
F stands for:
I stands for:
R stands for:
E stands for:
a.- report it
b.- extinguishing it if is small enough for one portable extinguisher. If not E stands for escape
c.- isolated it
d.- find it
e. first aid
complete the following sentences on the dangers of fire extinguishers
make sure nozzles are clear and discharge hoses in good condition
always check extinguishers carefully for signs of corrosion
many injures have been caused by people unscrewing extinguisher under pressure
if you hear a high pressure hiss, stop unscrewing. Make sure that pressure relief holes are clear
-complete the following sentences about the support party
a.- the vital task on the support party is to back up the fire fighters by fetching additional equipment
the support party mal also be called upon to stop the fire spreading by undertaking cooling or boundary
starvation, or by removing nearby fuel
the support party are also responsible for preparing the lifeboats and other life saving appliances and bringing
up extra and blankets VHF radios, starts and the EPIRB
on hearing the alarm, the support party musters at its designed station reports to the bridge and awaits
instructions
complete the following sentences on the use of breathing apparatus
remember that if a fire is contained or damped down the amount of smoke will initially increase
if breathing apparatus is used at least two fire fighters must work together
the amount of air breathed from person to person and according the exertion
when selecting a BA team at least one member o the team should be familiar with the area
.- some useful terms
The temperature at wich a material produces enough flammable vapour for it to flash if exposed to an ignition
source flashpoint
The temperature at which a material will continue to burn when ignited ignition temperature
The temperature at which a material temperature will spontaneously combust self ignition temperature
The temperature at which a material temperature undergoes a chemical change which results in combustion
auto ignition
.- flammable substances may be considered to fall into the following 4 categories solids, liquid, gases and
metals based on these complete the sentences below
Carbonaceous substances such as wood paper bedding and packing cases are found in many parts of the
ship
Flammable liquids include petroleum spirits, paints and oil paint thinners and kerosene
Liquids which given off flammable vapour include solids that melt to form a liquid such as fats and waxes
Metal such as magnesium and aluminum can easily be ignited and will burn vigorously
.- dirty waste rags sawdust and other rubbish specially if contaminated with oil generate heat spontaneously
which may be sufficient to ignite flammable mixtures
Oil soaked materials should not be stowed in close proximity to oil or paints or on near to steam pipes
Materials in ships stores including linen blankets and similar absorbent materials are also liable to ignite by
spontaneous combustion if damp or contaminated by oil
If oil has soaked into absorbent materials they should be cleaned and dried or destroyed
.- galleys and pantries present particular fire risk
Remote cutoff and stops should be conspicuously marked know to galley staff
Burners or heating plates must be shot off when cooking is finished
Extractors flues and ranges should always be kept clean
Means to smother fat or cooking oil fires such as a fire blanket should be readily available
.- successful fire fighting means removing one or more of the 3 elements fuel, heat , air, as quickly as possible.
Effectively this puts out the fire
Most fires start as small ones
In accommodation areas the most commonly available extinguisher are water extinguishers
In all cases portable fire extinguishing equipment should be operated strictly in accordance with the markers
instruction displayed on the extinguisher body
Extinguisher summary
Powder extinguisher can be used on all types of fire but check the label of a particular extinguisher as there
are different kinds of powder extinguishers
Use foam extinguisher on liquid fires
Use CO2 or dry powder extinguisher on fires involving electricity
NEVER use water extinguisher on liquids or electrical fires
Care of hoses
After use a modern hose must be laid out and drained by walking along it, holding each part at shoulder level
as you walk along
Protect coupling from salt spray with light grease
After using a hose clean off any contaminants with a mild detergent couplings and nozzles in fresh water
before stowing away
Hoses must be maintained and tested and records kept of these activities
Emergency parties
On ships with only one emergency party, the chief officer will usually take charge
Selection should be done on the basis of experience physical condition age specialist knowledge
The parties should be kept together units
Each unit has specific duties and people should not deviated from them unless expressly ordered to do so the
master
Having formed the parties the next task is to ensure crews are fully trained and know their role and
responsabilities mustering arrangements and the location of equipment
,. Fire extinguishers
Water extinguisher are most common they work by cooling, reducing the temperature of the burnig substance
to a point where it can no longer burn
When using a water extinguisher, spray water
Directly onto the fire and move the jet about quickly to break up the water into droplets to get the best cooling
effect
In bulky fires such as cotton waste, break up and spread out the material to dissipate heat and to make sure it
is all wetted
Foam extinguishers work by smothering a fire , starving it of the air it needs
Which of the items listed would not usually be found on the hose marking?




Maximum allowable working pressure
The type of service e.g. or chemical
Month a year of manufacture; manufacturer´s serial number
Minimum temperature recommendations
To participate effectively in your ship´s emergency procedures you first need to:




Be trained for emergency duties.
understand what other energy parties are doing
Be complete familiar with the entire set of personal equipment and duties.
Become a member of one of the energy
Below deck, a major fire must be fought with




smothering gas
calcium hypochlorite
injection of co2
Water spray
Are the statements about dealing with container fire true or false?


after the incident is over, the emergency suit and equipment must be cleaned and stored safely for
future use TRUE
water accumulation from boundary cooling will be unlikely to cause a problem FALSE
When head office become involved they will set up a communications center and will inform




the P&I club
the freight forwarders
the next port agent
all of the above
If fire is found in a container, one of the first control measures is:




to speed up so that the flames and smoke will be dispersed more rapidly
to launch the lifeboats ready for abandoning the ship
to tum the ship so that the wind blow smoke and flames away from the rest of the ship
to contact the shore office for advice
Heat will always travel from hotter areas to cooler ones, no matter how small the temperature different
may be. Please match each example of heat transfer with the appropriate definition



Direct heat transfer through a material. CONDUCTION
Heated liquids or gases rise, carrying the heat from one area to another CONVECTION
Heat energy transferred by radiating through a space assign a cooking grill RADIATION
Many things can create the heat necessary to create a fire. Of the examples given below, witch item
does not belong?






painted surface
friction
electrical energy
Chemical reactions
Compressed gases
Hot surfaces
What would you consider to be you most important reaction on discovering a fire?




Closing doors and windows to remove the air supply
Tacked the fire with the nearest fire extinguisher
find the seat of the fire
report it by raising the alarm
Complete the following sentences about fire extinguishers




Water extinguishes are the most common. They work by COOLING, REDUCIN THE TEMPERATURE
OF THE BURNING SUSBTANCE TO A POINT WHERE IT CAN NO LONGER BURN
When using a water extinguisher, spray water directly onto the fire AND MOVE THE JET ABOUT
QUICKLY TO BREAK UP THE WATER INTO DROPLETS TO GET BEST COOLING EFECTS
In bulky fires such as cotton aster break up end spread out the material to DISSIPATE HEAT AND TO
MAKE SURE IT IS ALL WETTED.
Foam extinguisher by SMOTHERING A FIRE, STARVING IT OF THE AIR IT NEEDS
Why should a co2 extinguisher be use with caution in confined areas?




it will increase the oxygen present in the confided area to a dangerous level
it will not operate effectively in confined areas
it may explode when exposed to heat
It will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available
Dry powder extinguisher a fire by chemically interfering which the process of combustion.
Complete the following sentences;
A dry powder extinguisher acts as




a flame inhibitor
a cooling agent
a smoothing agent
A means of fuel starvitation
STS transfer operations can result in considerable freeboard differences between the two vessels. The
Steeper the orientation of the mooring lines, the LESS effective they will be in resisting HORIZONTAL
loads. Freeboard differences should be kept to a minimum and consideration may be given to
ballasting down the HIGHER ship.
A casualty has fallen from height and appears to be unconscious. What would you do first?

CHECK THEIR BREATHING
In hypothermia the casualty will be

PALE, WITH A SLOW PULSE
On rescue, a hypothermic casualty is unconscious. You should

WRAP THEM IN BLANKETS
It is true or false to state the following?
- 1) Follow the correct procedures when operating watertight doors TRUE.
- 2) Pre-plan escape routes in case of emergency TRUE.
- 3) Ordinary prescription spectacles will afford adequate protection when working in the engine
room FALSE
Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with your mouse
-
Know the location of safety EQUIPMENT IN THE ENGINE ROOM
Use protective clothing TO PROTECT YOURSELF AGAINST CUTS, ABRASIONS, HEAT AND
CHEMICALS.
Wear your hard hat to avoid INJURY FROM KNOCKS OR FALLING OBJECTS
Remove sources of potential fire DANGER BY GOOD HOUSEKEEPING
Clear up spills to avoid SLIPS AND FALLS
No alarm system situated in the engine room should be isolated without the permission of the:

CHIEF ENGINEER
Which strap should be adjusted first after donning a facemask?

CENTRE STRAP
Which of the items of information listed does not need to be entered on an Entry Control Board:

AMBIENT TEMPERATURE
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the main components of a BA
set.
Most modern BA sets have an air cylinder mounted on a BACK-PLATE. The air travels through a
cylinder valve and THEN THROUGH A FIRST stage pressure REDUCER. Next, there is a highpressure line that takes the air to a pressure gauge and warning whistle assembly. A low-pressure line
takes the air to a DEMAND valve which houses the first breath mechanism and a by-pass valve. The
demand valve is attached to a FACEMASK.
The by-pass valve is closed by turning it fully.

CLOCKWISE
Are the statements about working in dark or smoke filled areas True or False?
-
You should use reference points T
Try to remain calm T
Keep in physical contact with a fellow team member T
Communicate your position clearly to the Control Centre T
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about maintenance of BA sets.
Each time breathing apparatus has been used it must be cleaned and the facemask DISINFECTED. A
visual check should discover any DAMAGE that may have occurred. In such cases, this must be
reported to an officer and THE BA of service. Otherwise, clean the set with LANOLIN soap and use a
disinfectant on the facemask.
Are the statements about emergency operations True or False?
- The entry party should check the door prior to entry T
- The BA team should leave the danger area when their air pressure is down to 80 bar T
- Spare BA sets should be left in their stowage position in the event of an emergency F
- The emergency Control Centre should be controlled by a senior officer T
What is the minimum capacity of air cylinders according to SOLAS?

200 LITRES
In an emergency or high stress situation, how can a supplementary air flow be obtained for the
facemask?

OPEN THE BYPASS VALVE
What is the safe level of oxygen in an atmosphere?

21%
When testing a BA set before use, what is the maximum acceptable pressure drop after the cylinder
valve has been closed?

10 BAR PER MINUTE
If, after hearing the fire alarm in the engine room, you cannot see smoke or flames you should

Follow fire emergency procedures.
The fixed installation system can control a fire within a short space of time. Why should the CO2 fixed
installation system be used with caution in confined areas?

As it reduces the amount of oxygen, the engine room has to be evacuated.
To operate the Control Handle, you must:

Remove the safety pin or pins.
What is the next step after embarking the crew in the lifeboat?

Checking seat belts are fastened.
If the rescue boat capsizes, the largest air pocket is likely to be found near the

Bow.
According to IMO regulations, how often should a freefall lifeboat launch take place?

Every six months.
Are the statements about boarding the lifeboat True or False?
T: You need to make sure that your clothing allows for full contact with the seat during the fall.
F: You should keep your hard hat on inside the boat.
F: No lifejackets should ever be worn inside the boat.
T: If the lifeboat is not full then the crew should be distributed evenly through the boat.
After launch, which of these actions should be taken first?

Make sure these are no injuries.
Water conducts heat away from the body:

At more than 20 times the rate of air
If you need to move position once you are in the water, you should:

Swim on you back, rhythmic strokes.
You should check your suit´s condition:

Once a month.
If a person spend six hours in 0°C water when wearing an immersion suit, their body temperature
should not drop:

By more than 2°C.
During each inspection, the zip should be rubbed on both sides with:

The lubricant recommended by the manufacturer.
Once the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation deck and securely bowsed,
what is the next step in the launching procedure?

The person in charge and lifeboat crew enters the boat and prepares to board the evacuees.
Which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?

Freefall lifeboats.
When getting clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended procedure?

Make sure the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship.
At what point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a fully enclosed
lifeboat?

Once everyone is inside.
Why is it important for evacuees to board freefall lifeboat extremely carefully?

Because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a step angle.
Which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release?

All liferafts except the ones stored forward.
What is the first action when boarding a throw overboard liferaft?

Check the liferaft for leaks and damage.
What should you do if water enters the life rafts?

Bail it out as soon as possible, using the baller and/or sponge.
Are the statements about liferaft operations True or False?
T: The priority after the liferaft is to get clear of the ship using any means possible.
F: Marine Evacuation System has the disadvantage that evacuees may have to enter the water before getting
into the liferaft.
F: Once a throw overboard liferaft is in the water, you should ring the embarkation ladder.
As long as there are no obvious faults present, hoses:

Should be retired at an age that is determined in consultation with the hose manufacturer
During cargo transfer operations al access to the accommodation should be kept:

closed
Which stage and Check List requires agreement on the transfer area:

Check List 1
Are the statements about fenders True or False?
F: Primary fenders are used to protect the bow and the stern of each ship if they go out of the position
F: Secondary fenders are positioned alongside the entire body of the ship
T: Likely contact points should be identified on the bow and stem of each ship and fenders positioned
accordingly.
T: It is an advantage for secondary fenders to be light in weight
Which of the statements about mooring procedures is NOT correct?

All mooring lines should be made of the same material.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the possible consequences of
failing to comply with the regulations in force

Failure to comply may lead to penalties and loss of revenue for the shipping company. The vessel may
be required to retain her ballast and load less cargo. The ship may not be allowed to dock or may be
forced to go out to sea and exchange her ballast water. There could be the risk of a heavy fine or even
imprisonment.
The IMO has adopted a set of guidelines for the management of ballast water. At present, these are:

voluntary
The current, recommended method of ballast water management is:

Exchange
Is the statements about engine room watch keeping TRUE or FALSE?
T: You should always check local equipment gauges to ensure that remote gauges are giving you correct
reading
Which of the symptoms listed would NOT normally be one of the physical effects of stress?

Eyesight blurs
When conducing an emergency drill it is generally not necessary to hold a debrief afterwards

False
What is the golden rule when thinking about calling the Master in an emergency?

If you’re thinking about calling the Master , call the Master
Can you name one of the chief qualities of situational leadership?

It works in most environments for most people
Which of the items listed is NOT an essential component of good resource management?

A strong sense of hierarchy
What type of situational leader would allow the team to allocate task and process?

Supporting leader
The procedures for dealing with cargoes classified as Dangerous Goods can be found in:

The MFAG and EMS sections of the IMDG Code supplement
The main objective of boundary cooling is to:

Limit the spread of fire from container to container
Which stage and check list requires agreement on the language to be used during the operation

check list 2
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about risk assessment.
As a minimum, the risk assessment should:
- identify the hazards associated with the operation
- assess the risks according to the probability and significance.
- identify the means by which to control de risks
-state plans for recovery in the event of a loss of control
Which of the items listed is NOT relevant when agreeing information about cargo handling
compatibility

The number of crew on board
Are the statements about mooring lines true or false?
- Ships equipped with steel wire mooring lines should fit soft rope tails to these mooring lines (true)
- Rope tails should have a dry breaking strength up to 15% greater than that of the wires to which they are
attached (false)
- heaving lines and rope messengers should be made of material which can float (true)
- Crew should always be warned before lines are fired. (True)
Which of these statements about underway transfer is correct?

all the above are correct
What should be the minimum length of a rope tails?

11 meters
How frequently during the transfer should the rate be checked and logged

every hour
Are the statements about unmooring procedures true or false?
- The stern lines should usually be let go first (false)
- Communications between mooring gangs need to be established and the method of disengagement agreed
(true)
-after disengaging, neither ship should attempt to stern of fall astern until both ships are well separated (true)
- All cargo manifolds and cargo hoses must be securely blanked (true)
Which of the actions listed may need to be taken, or considered, in the event of any emergency
arising?

all above
Which of these statements about manoeuvring is correct?

no engine movement should be made unless the master of the manoeuvring ship advises it
Which stage and check list requires agreement on the initial cargo transfer rate

check list 4
What should be the maximum interval between the broadcasting of navigational warnings while the
operation is in progress?

4 hours
Are the statements about communications procedures true or false?
- Hand-held radios should be issued on both ships only if there is a language problem between the crews
(false)
- Fixed VHF radios should not usually be used for regular operations (true)
- If communication breakdown occurs during an approach manoeuvre, the manoeuvre should be aborted (true)
The IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting form. Which of the items of
information listed does this form contain?

All the above
The IMO guidelines state that every ship that carries ballast water must have a ballast water
management plan

true
In the black sea, the comb jelly became a major contributor to the rapid decline in the catch of which
particular fish

anchovy
Are the statements about treatment methods true or false?
- The use of clean, treated fresh water for ballast solves the potential problems with ballast water (true)
- The problems with mechanical treatment of ballast water are expense and maintenance of the filters (true)
- heating the water or bombarding it with ultra-violet light or ultra-sound will kill everything in the ballast water
(false)
Which of the items listed is not included in the section of the IMO guidelines dealing with ships
operational procedures.

training and education
Which of the factors listed is NOT relevant for port state authorities when implementing their ballast
water management programmes and assessing risks.

The type of vessel concerned.
Exchanging ballast water at sea can affect the trim and DRAFT. The engine intakes may come out of the
water. It can set up STRESSES in the hull leading to structural FAILURE and could cause a loss of stability.
Even in calm weather, you must carry out this procedure with extreme caution.
For a ship to operate with UMS notation it must be fitted with fully operational fire protection systems
with panels fitted:

in engineers cabins and public areas
Which gas, requiring careful personnel safety precautions, is often found in quite high levels in crude
oil cargo vapours?
1) CO2
2) N2
3) HCl
4) H25
Are the statements concerning safety procedures during cargo operations True or False?
1) A faulty circuit signalled by earth indicator lights should be immediately traced and isolated. True
2) The potential for arcing between the two ships can be eliminated by switching on cathodic protection
systems. False
3) All ship to ship mooring lines should be insulated either by using the natural properties of soft mooring
lines or by attaching a soft rope tail of a suitable length. True
4) Portable cellular telephones can usually be used safely during cargo transfer. False
Are the statements about cargo transfer True or False?
1) Cargo transfer should begin at the agreed slow rate to enable the receiving ship to check that the cargo
pipeline system is correctly set. True
2) A materials safety data sheet should be provided for the receiving vessel giving details of the particular
properties of the cargo. True
3) Careful control of pump speeds will help prevent pressure surges. True
4) All ballast should be discharged overboard to reduce changes in freeboard. False
Are the statements about ship and cargo handling compatibility True or False?
1) Only ships whose bridge wings are wider than the greatest ship’s breadth should be used in STS
transfer operations. False
2) Hose supports on both ships must be strong enough to prevent charging damage to hoses. True
3) Both vessels should have manifold arrangements which comply with OCIMF Recommendations. True
What do the letters MBR stand for?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Maximum bending radius
Maximum ballasting rate
Minimum bending radius
Manifold bore ratio
Are the statements about ballast water exchange True or False?
1) Ballast water exchange at sea can have a serious effect on the ship’s structural integrity. True
2) Sequential exchange of ballast water at sea must be carried out by emptying pairs of tanks at a time to
maintain ship’s trim and stability. True
3) Correctly carried out, ballast water exchange at sea is a complete solution to the problem. False
4) The Master decides precisely how exchange at sea should be carried out. False
On any ship certified for unmanned machinery operation, within any 24 hour period the machinery
spaces must be manned for a minimum of:
1)
2)
3)
4)
4 hours
8 hours
10 hours
12 hours
Before you enter the engine room at the start of your duty period, you should:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Tell the Chief engineer.
Make sure the air conditioning is on.
Activate the dead man’s alarm
Ensure you have your life jacket with you
Before anyone starts work under a permit to work procedures, what is the first, critical step?
1)
2)
3)
4)
The site is prepared in what is called the locked out procedure
A site inspection is made by an independent officer
The permit is placed somewhere in plain view
The crew don the relevant PPE
As duty engineer, what is the first thing you should do when you come on duty?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Activate the dead man’s alarm
Verify that the electrical generation plant and distribution system is running properly.
Complete a round of the engine room before the mooring meeting
Inform the bridge of your intended entry and receive an acknowledgement
Is the statement about resource management True or False?
1) Leadership and management skills are essentially the same. False
What qualities do you need for a really effective drill?
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
Avoiding routine and creating surprise.
Working with others to build teamwork
Taking it seriously
Careful planning
All the above
The main objective of boundary cooling is to:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Limit the spread of fire from container to container
Reduce the amount of smoke generated
Stop the container exploding
Help the firefighting team to stay cool
The extent and possible source of the fire is assessed by
1)
2)
3)
4)
The first officer
The Master
The support team
The emergency team
Are the statements about dealing with a container fire true or false?
1) The cargo involved or stowed in the vicinity must be identified as quickly as possible. True
2) Boundary cooling from above will be required. False
3) The availability of a charging compressor for BA cylinders is vital. True
What is a “hot work” permit?
1)
2)
3)
4)
A permit allowing seafarers to work on deck under direct sunlight
A permit allowing galley staff to start up the galley equipment
A permit allowing engineers to fire up the main boiler
A permit issued when laid down procedures controlling hot work are in place and obeyed
What is the basic principle of fire prevention?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Never to smoke in bed
Remove one spaces well ventilated throughout the vessel
To make an inspection of the vessel on completion of your period on duty\
Keep all spaces well ventilated throughout the vessel
Is there a connection between “good housekeeping” and fire prevention on board ship?
1)
2)
3)
4)
No, the two are not related
Yes, good housekeeping is an important element in the fire prevention check list on board ship
No, it is not related to a potential heat energy source
Rubbish is not problem as long as it is kept neatly on board
Some useful terms…
The temperature at which a material produces enough flammable vapour for it to fish if exposed to an ignition
source. Flashpoint
The temperature at which a material will continue to burn when ignited. Ignition temperature
The temperature at which a material temperature will spontaneously combust, self-ignition temperature
Material temperature undergoes a chemical change which result in combustion auto ignition
/Complete the following sentences
1. Dirty waste, rags, sawdust and other rubbish especially if contaminated whit oil. Generate heat
spontaneously which may be sufficient to ignite flammable mixtures
2. Oil soaked materials should not be stowed in close proximity to oil or paints, or on or near to steam
pipes
3. Materials In ships stores including lines blankets and similar absorbent material are also liable to ignite
by spontaneous combustion if damp or contaminated by oil
4. If oil has soaked into absorbent materials, they should be cleaned and dried, or destroyed
Why is the risk of a fire in the engine room potentially so great?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Because it is a hot place
Because it contains air, fuel and heat
Because it contains air, fuel and heat
Because ventilations are constantly supplying fresh air.
What are the three elements found in the “Fire Triangle”?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Fuel, water and flame
Air, Flame and heat
Fuel, air and heat
Fuel air and flame
Spontaneous combustion may occur when
1.
2.
3.
4.
A person smokes in bed and the lighted cigarette
Sparks escaping from the funnel or other engine exhaust
Incorrect procedures are followed the sequence of lighting a boiler\
A Dirty waste, rags and other rubbish, especially if contaminated by oil, are left lying about.
Witch of the impurities listed may prevent the OWS or the OCM from working properly?

All the above
Why are heating coil used in the bilge holding tank and the separator?

It encourages as much separation as possible before the separator is turned on
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the paragraph on separation
Discharge of oil from the top of the separator and water from the bottom is controlled by solenoidscapacitance probes. The oil is pumped to a waste oil tank while the water which still contains more than 15
ppm of oil, is drawn into a coalescer
How dos the oil content monitor work?

An infra-red lights is passed through the liquid onto a detector
Is the following statement about oil water separation True or False?

False
Is the following statement about the operation of the ows and OCM true or false?

True
Each completed page of the oil record book must be signed by:

The master
Witch MARPOL Annex relates to the carriage of oil cargoes?

I
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or false?
True there should be no blank lines in the record book
Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?
False Bunker transfers do not need to be included in the ORB
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or false?
True the tank description must match those used in the IOPP from A
For how long after the date of the last entry must the oil record book be kept?

3 years
Witch of the areas listed is not a special area for oil pollution as defined in Annex I?

The Caspian Sea
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB true or False
False Mistakes should be erased or blanked out with TIpex
What is the minimum gross tonnage for ships other than tankers that requires an ORB (oil record
book) to be kept?

Over 400 gross tons
What is the maximum permitted oil concentration when discharging oily water through the separator?

15 parts per million
Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?
True during any discharge of oily water overboard the ships speed must be noted and recorded
Blige water with less than 15 ppm oil can be discharged:

Anywhere outside the Antarctic’s Special Area
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or False?
True Entries should always be made in ink
Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?
True when sludge or other oily residues are discharged ashore, a receipt must be obtained
What size tankers are required to keep an oil record book?

Over 150 gross tons
When garbage is incinerated you must record:

All the above
It is safest for stowaways to be searched by:

Two crew members, one to search and the other to observe
It is important to take possession of any papers or documents a stowaway is carrying because:

Identifying the stowaway makes it easier for them to be disembarked
While stowaways are on board ship they are entitled to:

Food and water, reasonable accommodation , a lifejacket and instruction in safety procedures
Who pays all the costs of keeping stowaways and returning them to their country of origin?

The ship´s owners or managers
Stowaways should never, ever, be allowed to:

Work
At what points should a stowaway be told they will be repatriated?

As late in the process as possible
When a ship docks with stowaways on board, who decides whether they can disembark?

The port immigration authority
When a ship dock with stowaways on board, who decides whether they can disembark?

The international maritime organization
What is UKMTO?

An office in Dubai to which the ship should report when entering the HRA
Most pirate attacks take place:

Off the coasts of west and east Africa
Which of those listed is listed is NOT a service offered by unarmed guards?

Firing warming shots into the air with dummy rifles
Is the following statement about citadels true or false?
If a citadel or a team of armed guards is used, it is not necessary to implement the other protective measures
False
What form of lighting should the ship leave on at night while transiting a pirate zone?

Navigation lights only
Is the following statement about security measures true or false?
A piracy drill should be held as soon as the ship is inside a pirate zone.

False
Which of those listed is not a fundamental requirement of BMP?

Use cctv
Is this statement about security procedures true or false?
Companies must ensure that a UKMTO vessel position reporting form-initial has been submitted to MSC-HOA
before the ship enters the HRA as defined in BMP

False
Is this statement about security procedures true or false?
If using razor wire, this should be loosely attached so that you can take it off quickly after use.

False
Is the following statement about security measures true or false?
The best positions for CCTV are to cover the poop deck, the rear of the bridge and the safe muster point or
citadel.

True
At what points should you secure the citadel, if you have one?

When everyone, including the armed guards, is inside
A safe muster point is:

A safe area low in the ship that offers the maximum physical protection.
Is the following statement about citadels true or false?
A citadel is a space with good ballistic protection, no access through an external hatch or door and from which
the ship can be controlled.

True
When did Somali pirates begin attacking international ships?

In the early 1990s
What is MSC-HOA?

An EU NAVFOR centre that provides 24 hour manned monitoring of vessels transiting the Gulf of Aden.
Is the following statement about security measures true or false?
If suspicious activity is spotted, the master must raise the alarm and report immediately to UKMTO/IMB and
the shipping company.

True
Ideally, at what points should the risk assessment for transiting the pirate zone take place?

At the point of charter or fixing of the voyage
Each completed page of the oil record book must be signed by:

The master
Are the statements about incinerator caused by overloading?
1) Incinerator overheating is commonly caused by overloading
TRUE
2) Most waste and garbage has the same calorific value
FALSE
3) If the incinerator chamber is overloaded the contents will go on burning even though the burners have
shut down
TRUE
For how long after the day of the last entry must the oil record book be kept?

3 years
What size tankers are required to keep an oil record book?

over 150 gross tons
Which MARPOL annex relates to the discharge of garbage?

V
Information about the maximum weight and volume per charge recommended for your incinerator can
be found in:

The manufacture’s manual
For how long after the day of the last entry must the garbage record book be kept?

2 years
MARPOL annex V applies to:

All ships
Are the statements about the incineration true or false?
1) Nothing else should be burned at the same time as plastics
2) It is dangerous to try and incinerate aerosol cans
3) Small batteries from touche and the like can be burnt safely
TRUE
TRUE
FALSE
What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed to discharge comminuted
and disinfected sewage?

3 nautical miles
Very rarely, someone may have to go inside the plant for maintenance, if so:

A proper risk assessment should be undertaken first
Which is the final stage of treatment in an extended aeration plan?

Chlorination
Why are anaerobic bacteria not desirable in a sewage system?

They can produce toxic or flammable gases
Extended aeration sewage treatment plants make use of:

Aerobic bacteria
Which of the items listed should not be put into lavatories on board?

All the above
Which MARPOL annex relates to the sewage system?

IV
What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed to discharge untreated
sewage?

12 nautical miles
Which country, mentioned in the video, insists n chlorination?

Korea
Why are domestic cleaners used on shore not suitable for cleaning toilets on board?

They would kill the bacteria on which the plant depends
MARPOL annex IV applies to ships below 400 gross tons if they are certified to carry more tan:

15 people
Are the statements about plant maintenance true or false?
1) It is important to check and maintain the level of the tablets in the chlorinator TRUE
2) The integrity of the pipe work should be checked regularly
TRUE
3) Cabin ventilation is not affected by the sewage plant at all
FALSE
What is the minimum gross tonnage for ships other tan tankers that requires an ORB to be kept?

Over 400 gross tons
Is the following statement about record keeping true or false?
During any discharge of oil water overboard the ship’s speed must be noted and recorded TRUE
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB true or false?
Mistakes should be erased or blanked out with tipex
FALSE
Is the following statement about record keeping true or false?
When sludge or other oily residues are discharged ashore, a receipt must be obtained TRUE
1. A vertical spindle extends up through the hook housing, with its hook tail conical in shape.
a. FALSE
2. Moving a lever inside the boat rotates the spindle of both hooks simultaneously.
a. TRUE
Which legislation specifies all of the characteristics and competencies require by members of rescue
craft crews?




ISM Code
SOLAS
STCW
MARPOL
For Fast Rescue Boats (FRBs), as defined by SOLAS, which of the following is a mandatory
requirement?





A Certificate of Proficiency for the coxswain
Navigation and radio aids, including an EPIRB
A first aid outfit
Immersion suits to be worn by all crew members
All the above
Are these statements about rescue boat operation True or False?
1. When picking up a casualty from the water the final approach should be always be head to wind
a. TRUE
2. When picking up a casualty from the water, they should be brought on board from the weatherside.
a. TRUE
3. If it is necessary to cross the waves when running before the weather, increase power when going up
the wave and reduce it when going down the back.
a. TRUE
4. Searches are best carried out by the rescue boats
a. FALSE.
When positioning the rescue boat for recovery of a casualty to a helicopter, the FRB will be requested
by the helicopter pilot to keep underway with the wind approximately.




30° on the port bow
60° on the port bow
30° on the starboard bow
60° on the starboard bow
Water conducts heat away from the body:

At the same rate as air.


At twice the rate of air.
At more than 20 times the rate of air
The suit’s buddy live is to:



Help attach you to the life raft
Act as a reflective string which will be highly visible from the air.
Prevent you from drifting away from other crew members
Death generally occurs when the body temperature reaches:



35°C
30°C
26°C
Are these statements about lifeboat operations true or false?



All on-load release systems must have built in safeguards against early release.
o TRUE
When the boat is at safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released.
o TRUE
A freefall boat should be abandoned if the engine does not start
a. FALSE
The shelter on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:




Rigid covers
Folding canopies
A combination of rigid covers and folding canopies.
A fiberglass shell that is operated electronically and can cover up to 80% of the boat.
Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanisms. Which of the actions listed
to avoid this happening does NOT belong on the list?





Make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease all moving parts.
Check the manufacturer’s handbook on proper use of the mechanism.
Make yourself fully aware of the correct procedures.
Make yourself fully of the safety check.
Make yourself fully aware of all other launching equipment.
If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long will the constant flow of air last?




A minimum of 2 minutes
A minimum of 5 minutes
A minimum of 10 minutes
A minimum of 20 minutes.
How are throw overboard liferafts inflated?




By releasing the Senhouse slip
By opening the valise.
By using the pump supplied.
By giving a strong pull on the painter at is full extent
Why is it important to keep the bowsing lines within the raft?




So that they can be used to tie the rafts together when the raft is clear.
So that they can be used to tie evacuees together if the liferaft should sink.
So that the davit hook can be raised ready for the next launch.
SO that they will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while it is being lowered.
When launching a davit-launched liferaft and you has pulled the liferaft shackle out of the canister, what should
you do next?




Let it go.
Hook it on to the davit.
Hook it on the bowsing line.
You should never pull the liferaft shackle out of the canister.
How many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?




1
2
3
25 person liferafts are too heavy to right.
Where can you find out detailed information about liferaft equipment and operation?




From the ship’s Safety Management System.
From the manufacturers’ websites.
From the Muster List.
From the SOLAS training manual.
A casualty with a severe bleed at the right wrist is unconscious. What position would you place them
in?




In the recovery position on the right side.
In the shock position with right arm elevated
Laid down flat on the deck.
In the recovery position on the left side.
You are in a safe environment. What is the first action you should take on discovering a casualty?




Place the casualty in the recovery position.
Shout at the casualty as you approach them to provoke a response.
Feel for a pulse at the neck
Check breathing.
The immediate treatment for a hot burn is to:




Cool the area with water
Remove charred clothing
Apply antiseptic cream
Apply a sterile dressing
During resuscitation, the rate of compression should be:


60 per minute.
80 per minute.


100 per minute.
120 per minute.
If you think a casualty is choking you should first:




Ask them if they are choking.
Do 5 back slaps.
Do 5 abdominal thrusts.
Open their mouth to check for any blockage.
A casualty in shock has:




Pale clammy skin and slow pulse.
Pale dry skin and fast pulse.
Pale clammy skin and fast pulse.
Pale dry skin and slow pulse.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the paragraph on coalescer operation.
The droplets of oil in the water are now so small that frictional force on their surfaces prevents them from
rising. To solve this problem the oily water is forced through a filter. The water passes easily, but he oil droplets
coalesce-growing larger in the process. This enables them to separate.
Which of the sources listed is not one that is a concern in terms of oily water pollution?




A hose bursting
A flange leaking during bunkering
Galley wastes
None of the above
Is the following statement about the operation of the OWS and OCM True or False?
Before starting separation, the OCM should be zero tested with clean water True
How does the oil content monitor work?



An infra-red light is passed through the liquid onto a detector.
An ultra-violent spectrophotometer is used.
A colour monitoring strip is dipped in the tank and analysed.
Is the following statement about oily water separation True or False?
Equipment security is not a problem except on passenger ships. FALSE
Oil and water separate because of differences in:




Viscosity
Specific gravity
Temperature
All the above
Why are heating coils used in the bilge holding tank and the separation?



It stops the oil water mixture solidifying
It helps some of the oil to evaporate
It encourages as much separation as possible before the separator is turned on.
For how long after the date of the last entry must be the oil record book be kept?



1 years
2 years
3 years
What is the maximum permitted oil concentration when discharging oily water through the separator?




10 parts per million
15 parts per million
20 parts per million
25 parts per million
Bilge water with less than 15ppm oil can be discharged:




anywhere
anywhere outside the special areas
nowhere at sea
anywhere outside the Antarctic special area
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or False?
Mistakes should be erased or blanked out with Tipex. False
Which MARPOL Annex relates to the carriage of oil cargoes?




II
VI
I
IV
Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?
1) When sludge or other oily residues are discharged ashore, a receipt must be obtained. TRUE
When garbage is incinerated you must record:




The date and time
The category of garbage
an estimate of the quantity in cubic metres
all the a above
For how long after the date of the last entry must the garbage record book be kept?



1 years
2 years
3 years
The bottom platform of the accommodation ladder should be angled to:




10”
20”
Not angled at all – completely flat
55°
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about risk assessment.
The Risk involved in operating and using an accommodation ladder, gangway or pilot ladder must be
assessed, to minimise the likelihood of accidents. Whether at sea or in port, it is good seamanship to make
sure that the correct Procedures and safety measures have been applied. Risk assessment is an ongoing
requirement to ensure that correct procedures are established and followed.
Are these statements about lifting dos and dons False or False?

At the start of the operation, you should lift he load in a smooth continuous movement without stopping.
False

Never allow a load to be lifted over other people. True

You should only lift people in a properly certified personnel basket. True
Who should keep records of lifting equipment?

The chief officer

The safety officer

A responsible crew member

The bosun

Drag the correct word from the list to complete the sentences about the crane and equipment operator.
The operator should check safety devices fitted to lifting Appliances before work starts and at regular intervals
thereafter to ensure that they are working properly. The Controls of lifting appliances should be permanently
and legibly marked with their Function and their operating directions shown by Arrows or other simple means.
What is the recommended minimum number of people to be involved in a lift?

Two People

Three people

Four people

Five people
How often should a lifting appliance or item of loose lifting gear be inspected?

Every year

Every two years

Every three years

Every five years
All Lifting equipment should be maintained

When it needs attention.

When it is broken

Once year

O the manufacturers recommendations.
Which of these statements is correct?

SWL must never be exceeded on any piece of lifting equipment

It is OK as long as you do no exceed the SWL by more than 10%

It is OK as long as you do not exceed the SWL by more than 20%

SWL can be exceeded if the person in charge of the lift gives you the authority to do so.
Which of these is usually he best of method for the signaller to communicate to other crew members
involved in the lifting operation?

Flags

Walkie-talkie

Hand Signals

A clear voice
Each piece of equipment for lifting must have a certificate. How long should that certificate be for?

One year

Two years

Three years

Five years
Who should be in charge of a lifting operation?




The captain
Crane operator
Appointed signaller
Designated team leader
Are these statements about lifting True or False?
1)
2)
3)
4)
When lifting a load, SWL is not affected by angle at which slings are used. FALSE
When carrying out risk assessment for lifting a load, you should check maintenance records TRUE
Everyone involved in a lift should be wearing gloves. TRUE
The first action before carrying out a lift is to check weather and sea conditions. FALSE
Where should lifting appliances and associated equipment be stored?




Near the place last used
In a dedicated central location
Each piece near the place it is likely to be most used
It does not matter as long as it is properly logged
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about typical causes of lifting
accidents.
There might be poor Communication between key Personnel. Someone might have Disabled and end
stopper, or a level switch, perhaps, or another safety Device on the lifting equipment. Or maybe someone
has not checked that the Load Does not exceed the SWL of the gear.
What does SWL stand for?




Short working life
Safe working load
Soft working load
Sequential weight lift
How does the FAL Convention define a stowaway?
1) Anyone who is on board without the permission of the Master or owner, but has not paid for their
passage.
2) anyone who hides on board without the permission of the master or owner, and who is still on board
after the ship has left port
3) Anyone who is on board after the ship has left port, but does not have the correct documents, such as a
passport, visa, or health certificates.
4) Anyone who hides on board without the permission of the master or owner, and intends to remain on
board after the ship has left port.
Who has overall responsibility for preventing stoways getting on board when a ship in port?




The harbor authorities
The agent
The ships master and crew
The owners
When is the best time to begin to prevent stowaways getting on board?




Before the ship arrives at a high-risk port.
While the ship is in a high-risk port
Just before the ship sails from a high-risk port.
Before the ship arrives at a low-risk port
If stowaways are found on board while the ship is in port, who should the maser inform?





The company security officer (CSO)
The ships agent
The P&I club representative
The flag state
All the above
If stowaways are found while the ship is still in port, what is the Masters best course of action?




Sail on schedule, even if the stowaways are still on board
Refuse to sail until the port authorities take the stowaways off.
Consult with the company security officer and the ships owners or managers about whether to sail or
not.
Negotiate with the stowaways to persuade them to leave
From whom should you seek information about stowaway risk at a particular port?





The P&I club
The local agent
Your CSO
The port authority
All the above
If stowaways are found on board after the ship has left port, who should the master inform first?




All the above
The company’s agent at the last port of call
The company security officer
The P&I club
When launching a fully enclosed lifeboat, the FPDs should be removed:

Just before the boat reaches the water
SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within:

30 minutes.
How many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?

1
Your casualty has an arterial bleed at the wrist. The first aid treatment is to:

Press directly on the wound.
When checking a casualty’s ABC how long do you allow in order to check their breathing?

10 seconds.
When a casualty has a fractured base of skull they may have:

Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
A casualty having an asthma attack will have:

Pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse.
A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid. You should:

Give them sips of water to drink.
Which of the symptoms listed could indicate a spinal injury?

Any of the above.
Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with your mouse.
Oily rags are dangerous if left lying about.
Safety helmets should be worm in the engine room when there is a risk of head injury.
Spilled oil should always be cleared up immediately.
Good engine room housekeeping is essential as a precaution against fire in the engine room.
If provided, the lifting handles should be used when a floor plate is removed.
The decision and the suitability of any person to undertake electric arc welding should be taken by:

The senior officer in charge.
SAFETY SIGNS: Match the symbol against the meaning.
Prohibition – Do not…
Warning – Danger.
Mandatory - Must do…
Emergency escape, First aid and safe Condition - The safe way…
Fire equipment – location or use of fire equipment.
Are the statements about preparing for Hot Work on pipe work and valves True or False?
Pipelines and valves, which are involved in Hot Work, should be detached from the system. TRUE.
Any pipelines and valves not involved in the Hot Work can be ignored. FALSE.
Heating coils should be opened, flushed, and inerted prior to Hot Work. TRUE.
The item to be worked on should be cleaned and gas freed to “safe Hot Work standards”. TRUE.
You have to arrange for Hot Work to be undertaken in an enclosed space. Complete the following
sentences.
The enclosed space must be thoroughly ventilated to ensure that the oxygen level reads 21% by volume.
Before entry, the enclosed space must always be tested to ensure there are no flammable gases present
above 1% LFL.
While the Hot Work is in progress ventilation must continue.
Areas adjacent to the enclosed space must be made gas free to Hot Work standards or kept inerted or
filled with water.
All interconnecting pipes to other compartments should be flushed through with water, drained, vented
and insolated from the compartment where Hot Work is to be carried out or inerted if this is not possible.
Are the statements about fire alarm/fire detection systems during Hot Work True or False?
These systems should be shut down before any welding begins. TRUE
When systems are disabled, other crew members must be informed. TRUE
Alarms should not be shut down. After all, what are they for? FALSE
What is the ratio of ventilations to chest compressions in resuscitation?

2:30
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?

A shocked causality who is thirsty may be given a drink of water

It is ok to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions and ventilations
T
F
When applying a dressing to a sucking chest wound it should be:

non-stick and sealed with top edge open

non stick and sealed with bottom edge open

dressing pad secured on all sides

dressing pad secured with bottom edge open
Are the following statements true or false?
1) Chemicals should always be handled with the utmost care
true
2) Manufacturers advice on the correct use of chemicals should always be followed true
3) Domestic chemical cleaning agents are harmless
caused
false
4) Chemicals should not be mixed unless it is know that dangerous chemical reactions will not be
true
Which of those listed is not one of the general safety management objectives of the ism code?

To specific who is competent to undertake hazardous procedures.
Are the statements about the functions of fire watch true or false?
1) They must attend throughout the work with adequate portable fire fighting equipment
true
2) They must keep an eye on any personnel who may enter the area carrying flammable material true
3) They should wait for ten minutes after the hot work is completed so that any smouldering can be detected
and dealt with immediately
false
Special safety precautions are required when carrying out welding or cutting. Match the opening
phrases with an appropriate ending to define some of these safety measures
1) When changing electrodes the electrode holder must be isolated from the supply
2) When gas welding the operator must ensure that back-pressure valves operate correctly
3) When arc welding the operator must ensure no water can reach the area of work
4) When arc welding operation should always insulate themselves from the work and ground by using dry
insulation
5) Ideally gas bottles should be kept isolated on the weather deck with hoses laid to the work
Area.
Prior to donning the BA the first breath mechanism should be:

closed
What is the minimum percentage full that BA set should be used?

80%
Are the statements about emergency procedures true or false?
1) The emergency control centre should be set up as far from the emergency situation as possible false
2) Communications form the BA set wearer to the control centre should be made in English only false
3) Communications from the BA set wearer to the control centre should be spoken as quickly as possible to
conserve air
false
Which of the factors listed is not likely to affect the amount of the time an individual can work with

time of day
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about maintenance of BA sets
Each time breathing apparatus has been used it must be cleaned the facemask disinfected. A visual check
should discovery any damage that may be occurred. In such cases, this must be reported to an officer and the
BA set taken out of service. Otherwise, clean the set with innate soap and use a disinfectant on the facemask
When positioning the rescue boat for recovery of a casualty to a helicopter, the FRB will be requested
by the helicopter pilot to keep underway with the wind approximately:

30° on the port bow
Draw the words from the list to complete the sentences about drills and training exercises
A drill is a recognised procedure carried out within a realistic time frame, with safety being the priority. A
training exercise is a recognised procedure carried out for training, which can be stopped to explain detail.
Safety is the priority.
SOLAS requires that the lifeboat and the launching arrangements should be chequed:

Weekly
Lifejackets should be:

Put on over the immersion suit
Which of the instructions about putting your immersion suit in its bag is not correct?

Fold the arms on to the chest
Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanism. Which of the actions listed
to avoid this happening does not belong on the list?

Make yourself fully aware of the point coating required and grease all moving parts.
What is the first action in launching a davit-launched liferaft?

Remove the ship’s side rails.
As evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew members sitting at the entrance should?

Direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on.
Once the inflation of the davit- launched liferaft is complete, what should the bowsing lines be used
for?

To pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding
When may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?

When the master of their deputy gives the order.
Arterial blood is?

Bright red and spurting
A casualty is placed in the recovery position:

To maintain the airway
The severity of a burn is assessed by:

Its depth and its area.
The casualty´s palm is considered to be:

1% of the total body Surface area.
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?

True
A sprain is an injury to:

Ligament
When a casualty has a dislocated shoulder you must:

Tie the arm to the side of body.
Which of the injuries listed is best treated using an elevation sling?

Dislocated elbow
How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the left side of their chest?

Sitting up and leaning towards the left.
In compression, the casualty will have:

Noisy breathing with strong and slow pulse.
A casualty has a chemical splash in the eye. You should:

Wash the eye out with the casualty lying down.
A casualty has a Wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it out?

At least 15 minutes
A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound. What action would you
take?

Place a damp dressing lightly over the wound.
If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg the rescuer should:

Not release them if trapped for longer than 15 minutes.
What is the process called that can allow one wrong assumption to be made which leads onto another
until a particular view is created?

Error chain
What is the main aim when tackling a container fire?

To cool it dawn and keep it cool
The hazards presented by flammable gases are the same as those of vapour given off- by low fire
A leaking gas will either disperse-upwards or depending on its vapour duality
A leaking gas may find a remote source of ignition and amy- a flame back to the source of the leak
What type of extinguisher is most suitable for dealing with fires involving carbonaceous materials?

Water extinguisher
Are the following statements true or false?
Regular fire drills must be held. They must be taken seriously and must include everyone on board- true
Some drills should cover training in the use and maintenance of equipment-true
When holding drills take the opportunity to test communication-true
After each drill, hold a review with everyone to discuss how successful it was and how it could be improvedtrue
Are the following statements true or false?
If the fire is the engine room the second engineer will automatically take over because intimate knowledge of
the location is essential- true
On ships with only one emergency party, the chief officer will usually take charge-true
The members of the emergency parties must be frequently exchanged to ensure that all crew members
become familiar with all fire fighting duties on board ship- false
Fire prevention and maintenance of fire fighting equipment are the following statements true or false
Always repair and replace leaking gaskets promptly-true
Check the operation of vent closures and fire doors regulary-true
It is hazardous to hold realistic fire drills in the engine room and such drills should not be attempted-false
Machinery spaces contain all the elements needed to start a fire and sustain it. What are these
elements?

Heat, air and fuel
What is the danger associated with thick smoke?

It is easy to lose your bearings and move closer to danger rather than away from it
Machinery space fires typically fall into one of five categories. Which category does not belong in the
list given below?

Propeller shaft bearing overheating
Hoisting should be stopped

Once the lifeboat has cleaned the water
It is statement about re-setting true or false
Any resistance felt during re-setting always be questioned and the reason established once- true
Are these statements about re-locking the hooks true or false?
The safety pin should only be inserted when the helmsmans release handle has dropped dawn into is stopped
locked position-true
Whatever the system on your boat, the bow and Stern man should inspect and pull on the hooks to check that
they are securely locked and that the cams are correctly positioned before reporting that the hooks are relocked-true
What is the most important thing to know about your davit system?

The safe recovery load permitted
Are these statements about the checks and preparations to be carried out before a drill true or false?
The safety pins should be removed from the operating unit-false
The hooks should be fully locked behind their cam arrangements-true
You should ensure that the drain plug is screwed down-true
A fully enclosed lifeboat´s descent can be stopped at any time by:

releasing the tension on the brake control cable
What is a SART?

A survival craft radar transponder
What is the purpose of the hydrostatic interlock in the keel?

It prevents release of the hooks until such time that the keel of the boat is underwater
What are the gripes?

They secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed
Indirect pressure to stop bleeding should be kept in place for:

10 minutes and released slowly
A burn should be cooled for a minimum of:

20 minutes
A casualty is found collapsed in an enclosed space. What should the rescuer do first?

Raise the alarm
Cold burns to the hands may be warmed up by being rubbed.

False
A shocked casualty who is thirty may be given a drink of water

False
A complicated fracture is one where there is:

Damage to underlying tissue
In a concussed casualty you will find:

Both of the pupil react to light
An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice you should:

Wrap the finger in plastic and the padding.
A casualty with chest pain should be:

Positioned sitting up and supported
If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their:

Blood sugar is too low
A casualty with heat stroke is:

Red with a strong pulse
When alone in the engine room you must follow:

The notification procedures.
What must be done when machinery is not to be used?

In all cases, warming notices must be posted at or near the controls
Is true or false to state the following?
1) Remove rings and jewerly so that they don’t become caught in moving machinery TRUE
2) Spontaneous combustion is unlikely to occur in engine room spaces FALSE
3) Use your ear defenders to protect your ears against noise TRUE
Who is responsible for your personal safety in the engine room?

I am responsible for my own safety(others may also rely on you)
Why is it important to read the labels on chemical containers carefully before opening them?

To find out about any hazards from the contents
Normally, welding should only be undertaken when;

A fire watch is standing by.
Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with you mouse.
Damaged or worn tools should not be used
The proper tool of the right size should be used
When not in use, tools should be stowed away
To avoid injury a tool in use should be directed away from the body
The use of gloves. Match each types of glove with the uses suggested.
Rubber, synthetic or PVC gloves best for handling acids, alkalis, solvents.
Leather gloves best for handling Sharp objects.
Heat resistant gloves best for handling hot objects.
To enter the water safely:

Get as close as possible to the water then step off or use a rope or ladder
Are the statements about working in dark or smoke filled areas True or False?




You should use reference points
True
Try to remain calm
True
Keep in physical contact with a fellow team member
Communicate your position clearly to the Control Centre
True
True
In an emergency or high stress situation, how can a supplementary air flow be obtained for the
facemask?



Adjust the demand valve
Open the bypass valve
Close the bypass valve
Are the statements about emergency procedures True or False?



The Emergency Control Centre should be set as far from the emergency situation as possible.
FALSE
Communications from the BA set wearer to the Control Centre should be made in English only.
FALSE
Communications from the BA set wearer to the Control Centre should be spoken as quickly as possible
to conserve air.
FALSE
Who should check the torches and communications prior to entry?



The officer in charge
The BA wearer
The Master
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about maintenance of BA sets.
Each time breathing apparatus has been used it must be cleaned the facemask disinfected. A visual check
should discover any damage that may have occurred. In such cases, this must be reported to an officer and
the BA set taken out of service. Otherwise, clean the set with lanolin soap and use a disinfectant on the
facemask.
Which strap should be adjusted first after donning a facemask?



Side straps
Rear straps
Centre strap.
Prior to donning the BA, the first breath mechanism should be:


Closed.
Open
Is the following statement about working with MEWPs True or False?

All work with MEWPs must be covered by Permit to Work.
What type of tyre is best for use on MEWPs?



It does not matter what type
Pneumatic
Foam filled
TRUE

Radial
After you have rescued a person who has fainted while in a harness, what should you do with them?




Lay them on their front
Raise their knees into a sitting position
Strap them on to a stretcher
Lay them on their back
If the tilt sensor alarm sounds while you are working, you should:




Lower the basket as soon as possible and move the MEWP to a more even position.
Speed up the job so that you finish it quickly.
Contact the manufacturer.
Deactivate the alarm.
Is the following statement about working with MEWPs True or False?

A boom type MEWP should be driven at height.
FALSE
Is the following statement about operating MEWPs True or False?

When getting out of the MEWP for any reason, you should take the key with you.
FALSE
How can you control the risk of accidents involving other people or vehicles in the work area?




The operator should wear high visibility clothing.
Under no circumstances should you work from a MEWP in an area where there are other people or
vehicles.
Outriggers should be used.
The area should be cordoned off.
Is the following statement about safety procedures when working with MEWPs True or False?

When going down a ramp, you should travel in reverse.
TRUE
Is the following statement about operating MEWPs True or False?

After use, the MEWP’s battery should be drained.
FALSE
Is the following statement about MEWPs True or False?

MEWPs may be used for maintenance on overhead wires.
TRUE
In case of power failure, how should you lower the platform?




By using the auxiliary power
By moving another MEWP as close as possible and reaching over from it
By moving a forklift truck as close as possible and reaching over from it
By operating the manual lowering lever at the base
Is the following statement about operating MEWPs True or False?

If a person is crushed against an obstruction at height, the ground rescue person should move the
basket clear of the obstruction by first using the auxiliary power. TRUE
Is the following statement about MEWPs True or False?

It is not advisable to operate a MEWP in high winds.
TRUE
Is the following statement about working with MEWPs True or False?

You should assess the risks in travelling to and from the work area by walking the route.
TRUE
Is the following statement about MEWPs True or False?

A forklift truck is a good alternative for raising people up to do work at height it no MEWP is available.
FALSE
What type of MEWP is NOT advised for use on uneven ground?




Scissor lift
Vertical personnel lift
Cherry picker
Any type will be fine if used with outriggers
Which of the impurities listed may prevent the OWS or the OCM from working properly?

All the above
Why are heating coil used in the bilge holding tank and the separator?

It encourages as much separation as possible before the separator is turned on
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the paragraph on separation
Discharge of oil from the top of the separator and water from the bottom is controlled by solenoidscapacitance probes. The oil is pumped to a waste oil tank while the water which still contains more
than 15 ppm of oil, is drawn into a coalescer
How dos the oil content monitors work?
An infra-red lights is passed through the liquid onto a doctor
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or false?

True There should be no blank lines in the record book
Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?

False Bunker transfers do not need to be included in the ORB
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or false?

True The tank description must match those used in the IOPP from A
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB true or False

False Mistakes should be erased or blanked out with Tipex
Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?

True During any discharge of oily water overboard the ships speed must be noted and recorded
Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?

True When sludge or other oily residues are discharged ashore, a receipt must be obtained
What size tankers are required to keep an oil record book?

Over 150 gross tons
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the paragraph on separator operation.
Discharge of ___oil___ from the ____top___ of the separator and ___water_____ from the ___bottom_____ is
controlled by solenoids-capacitance probes. The oil is pumped to a __waste oil_____ tank, while the water,
which still contains more than 15 ppm of oil, is drawn into a __coalescer_______.
Which of the impurities listed may prevent the OWS or the OCM from working properly?

all the above
If the following statements about oily water separation True or False.
The ship position at the beginning and end of a separation must be entered in the oil record book.

True
If the following statement about the operation of the OWS and OCM True or False?
If the separator develops a fault while in operation, it should be turned off immediately.

True
If the following statement about oily water separation True or False.
Cleaners that contain embitters must be avoided.

True
Is this statement about security procedures True or False?
When assessing the risk for transiting a pirate zone, you need to analyse the background factors that could
shape the situation including visibility, sea state and traffic patterns.

True
When armed guards have been engaged, who has the over-riding authority on board?

The Master.
What is the IRTC?

A corridor in the Gulf of Aden with strategically positioned naval and military support.
When engaging in evasive manoeuvres, the aim is to:

Keep the skiff in the aft positive pressure zone.
The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:

running aground
Drag the cored words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering procedures.





The transfer must start at a low flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be carefully monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring arrangements.
Pipe work and air vents must be continually checked for oil leaks.
Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
Drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of preparing for bunkering.



The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition.
All scuppers must be plugged.
The piping system must be correctly lined up.
Are the statements listed true or false?
1. In real grounding, the master would instruct the engine room to stop the engine. True
2. Depending of the circumstances, in genuine emergency, oil could get in through seawaters intakes.
True
3. Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or probable discharge
of oil. True
4. Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is actual or probable discharge oil.
False
Above what size are ships, other than oil tankers, required to have a SOPPEP?

400 GT
Who should be responsible for dealing with the press and media?

A responsible individual in the shore office.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required when ballasting
through the cargo system.




Check that the COE system has been insolated.
Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been opened.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is started.
Are the statements listed true or false?



Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties. False
The majority of spills are less than seven tones. True
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small a so no special precautions need to
be taken before starting. False
What is often the first sign of hydrogen sulphide (H2S) being present in a space?




The smell of lemons.
The smell of petrol.
The smell of rotten eggs.
The smell of burning.
What enclosed space hazard is caused by the rusting of metal?




Toxic gas poisoning
Anemia.
Eye irritation.
Asphyxiation.
Is the following statement about enclosed spaces True or False?

Enclosed spaces are enclosed on all sides. False
Is the following statement about enclosed spaces True or False?

The only task that required enclosed space entry are cleaning and maintenance. False
What will happen if you stay in an atmosphere containing less than 6% oxygen for 4 minutes or more?




Death.
Muscle weakness.
Eye disturbance.
Nausea and vomiting.
Why is it prohibited to enter a space that has been inerted?




Because it will cause nausea.
Because you will die from lack of oxygen.
Because there is an explosion hazard.
Because it will irritate your eyes.
Is the following statement about enclosed space True or False?

All enclosed space must have clearly visible signs, indicated that they should not be entered without the
proper preparation and procedures. True
Is the following statement about enclosed space True or False?

If you need to rescue someone from an enclosed space which has an atmosphere that has been
identified as dangerous, you must first put on a BA (breathing apparatus) set. True
Galleys and pantries present particular fire risks. Care should be taken in particular:





When using steel utensils.
Whilst boiling large quantities of food.
Prior to the serving of meals.
To avoid overheating or spilling fat or oil.
The statement is not correct – fire is unlikely to break out in the galley.
Are the following statements True or False?




The health of people on board depend on the galley staff doing their job properly. True
Because you carry out a task every day, there is no risk of injury of the galley. False
Temperature control is important in the preparation of microwave packs. True.
You may leave the galley when food is cooking for a prolonged period of time. False.
Complete the following sentences:





Indiscriminate use of water in hosing down and washing equipment in the galley can be very dangerous
particularly around electric installations.
Dry cloths or pot holders and oven gloves should always be used to handle hot pans and dishes.
No one should be directly in front of an oven when the door is opened.
Catering staff should not attempt to repair electric or oil fired ranges or microwaves ovens.
Ranges guard rails should always be used in rough weather.
What precautions, if any, should be taken when water is used to hose down and wash the galley?




No precautions are necessary. Large amounts of water will help in achieving thorough cleaning and
insect/pest control.
Indiscriminate use of water in the galley is dangerous. Power to electrical installations should be
isolated.
As long as one wears appropriate protective clothing, the practice of hosing down with large amounts of
water is correct procedure.
The water should be cold and mixed with disinfectant so that germs will be killed.
Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with your mouse.


Use protective clothing to protect yourself again cuts, abrasions, heat and chemicals.
Clear up spills to avoid slips and falls.


Remove sources of potential fire danger by good housekeeping.
Wear your hard hat to avoid injury from knocks or falling objects.
Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one with your mouse.




The atmosphere is an enclosed space may lack oxygen or contain toxic gases.
Whenever someone enters an enclosed space there should be a back up team standing by.
The permit to work, or entry permit, must be authorised by an appropriate officer.
Before any enclosed space entry is attempted the atmosphere must be checked.
The statements about personal protective equipment True or False.



Use your ear defenders to protect your ears against noise. True
Masks should be used whenever you work near dusty cargoes. True
While working on deck no special footwear is required. False
Who is responsible for your personal safety on board?




I am responsible for my own safety. (Others may also rely on you.)
The master is solely responsible for the safety of persons on board.
The ship’s safety officer is solely responsible for my safety on board.
The superintendent is responsible for my safety.
Are the statements about possible hazards on bulk carriers True or False?
 Opening access hatches could result in the release of flammable vapours. True
 Any work with a naked flame or with welding equipment requires the issuing of a permit to work. True
 Opening and closing the hatch covers is not likely to create any hazards. False
Gas leaks should be investigated by:




The designated team.
Authorised crew members wearing appropriate PPE.
The safety officer.
The master.
If you work alone, you should:




Let someone know where you are going.
Have a permit.
Ask permission from your manager.
Get on with it. It is not necessary to inform your crew members of your every movement.
Are the statements about safety procedures True or False?



Everyone should know the location of hazardous cargo and procedures for dealing with it. True
You should never smoke in cargo spaces under any circumstances. True
When handling refrigerants such as CFCs, you should follow the safety regulations. True
Are the statements about safety procedures True or False?



You should consult the IMDG code for recommended procedures about hazardous cargo. True
Before connecting a temperature controller container to power, you should always ensure that the
power switch is on. False
You should treat all cargo spills hazardous until you know otherwise. True
If you must be on deck in heavy weather, you should




Wear a safety line.
Wear protective goggles.
Make sure someone is with you.
Inform your supervising officer.
When checking the tops of containers for loose items, you should:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Get the driver to carry out the check
Climb up and have a look yourself
Give a stevedore a leg-up so that he can remove any loose item
Use a portable ladder and someone to hold it
Are the statements about access to the ship true or false?
1) There is a constant risk of being struck by containers being handled either on board ship or on the
dockside. (TRUE)
2) On the dockside you can use any route to your ship. (FALSE)
3) Only the cargo handlers are responsible for keeping access routes clear of obstructions. (FALSE)
It is best to work:
1) In teams of 4.
2) On your own.
3) In Paris.
4) It does not matter how many people you work whit, as long as all are properly trained.
If there is a container fire whit hazardous cargo, it should be dealt with by:
1)
2)
3)
4)
All available means and following the advice given in the IMDG code.
Crew members using a fire blanket.
Crew members using a fire extinguisher.
Crew members using the nearest available water supply.
Is this statement about fire prevention true or false?
1) Under certain conditions static electricity can cause sparks. (TRUE)
Is this statement about working practices true or false?
1) Only intrinsically safe equipment should be used on deck and in tanks. (TRUE)
How long can you survive in a toxic hydrocarbon atmosphere?
1)
2)
3)
4)
An hour
30 minutes
2-3 minute
A few seconds
Is this statement about fire prevention true or false?
1)
dropped.
You should be careful when handling metal tool is because they can generate a spark
(TRUE)
If you can smell a cargo vapour, it means that:
1)
2)
3)
4)
This is a normal situation on a tanker.
It is localized and not a problem.
You should carry out your work more quickly.
Something is wrong.
If you are carrying a cargo you are not familiar with, for your own safety you should:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Consult the cargo data sheets.
Consult your senior officer.
Leave the cargo well alone.
Look at the ship’s manual.
Is this statement about fire prevention true or false?
1) It is not your job to prevent visitors smoking in unauthorised places. (FALSE)
If you wish to smoke, you should do so:
1) Only on the cargo deck.
when
2) Only in your cabin.
3) Only in the designated areas.
4) Only in the designated areas and in the open air.
When entering an unoccupied confined space, your permit to work or entry permit must be authorised by:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Yourself.
The Master and the officer in charge
Nobody. You do not need one.
Any member of the engine room personnel.
What is the time limit for hot work?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Only in the designated areas and in the open air
1 hour
2 hours
The time specified in the permit to work.
Is this statement about working practices True or False?
1) Visitors to the ship can use their mobile phones in all areas away from the cargo manifold. (FALSE)
Your main defence against injury is:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Your PPE.
Lifesaving appliances on board.
Keeping to company procedures.
Being very careful.
Is this statement about fire prevention True or False?
1) Apart from by the manifold during cargo transfer, the deck will be a vapour free area. (FALSE)
How should visitors to the ship be processed?
1)
2)
3)
4)
According to procedures laid down in the ship’s manual
According to company procedures
According to ISPS procedures
According to ISM code procedures
If petroleum cargo gets on your skin, you should:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Wash it off immediately.
Find the first aid kid.
Report it to senior officer.
Ignore it- petroleum is harmless.
Are these statements about Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) True of false?
1) PPE is your first line of defence. (FALSE)
2) Most chemical suits protect against the vast majority of all the chemical risks.
(TRUE)
Are these statements about the pre-arrival meeting True or False?
1) The cargo emergency stopping arrangements should form part of the plan. (TRUE)
2) The exact schedule for the transfer of toxic cargoes will be announced.
(FALSE)
Are these statements about chemical hazards True or False?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Caustic soda is a corrosive chemical and can burn human tissue.
(TRUE)
All toxic chemical circulate throughout the body and end up in the liver. (FALSE)
If you breathe carbon dioxide in an enclosed space, you will rapidly become unconscious. (TRUE)
Certain flammable cargoes may emit flammable gases when they come into contact with water.
(TRUE)
Is the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?
1) While topping and completing cargo operations, the officer of the watch should monitor activity on deck
via radio. (FALSE)
Static accumulators are:
1)
2)
3)
4)
Cargoes that can become electrostatically charged.
Cargoes that must not be moved more than absolutely necessary.
Devices that monitor static electricity.
Devices that enable static charges to be built up.
If you are asked to perform a task which you feel is dangerous, what should?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Delegate it to a more experienced fellow crew member.
Trust the person who told you to perform the task and go ahead whit it.
Argue assertively with the person who told you to do it.
Consult your safety officer or other senior officer.
Is the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?
1) Nitrogen is lighter than air and so may remain in the top or tank even when readings elsewhere in the
tank show a good oxygen level. (FALSE)
Is the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?
1) Mechanical ventilation of the space and regular monitoring of oxygen and gas levels must continue
while personnel are inside an enclosed space. (TRUE)
Is the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?
1) Most deaths from fire are caused by asphyxiation and not from direct contact whit flames. (TRUE)
Who is responsible for closing the ventilation and re-circulation the accommodation air whenever any
toxic cargo is transferred?




The engineers
The safety officer
The officer of the watch
All crew members
The most important task of the person supervising the entry is to ensure that:




A fully equipped back-up team is ready to provide assistance if required.
The person entering has a first passed a drug and alcohol test.
The person entering has had sufficient rest.
The weather conditions are suitable for the task in hand.
Is the following statement True or False?

You may have to guard against accidental flooding. (TRUE)
Is the following statement True or False?

Gases used for cargo fumigation do not normally pose a hazard. (FALSE)
When an enclosed space entry is proposed, what is the most important consideration?




That the master should be informed.
That the company head office is consulted before a decision is taken.
That a competent person must consider all the facts and decide how safe the space is.
That the back-up team has been well trained.
Is the following statement True or False?

Inside enclosed spaces you may well encounter physical dangers such as damaged ladders etc.
(TRUE)
Is the following statement True or False?

If breathing apparatus is being used then the wearer will have 10 minutes to leave the space after the
low level alarm has sounded. (FALSE)
When preparing to use breathing apparatus, which of the actions listed in NOT a requirement.




The face mask seal must be checked and adjusted to ensure it is airtight.
It must be checked for high and low pressure
The audible low pressure alarm should be checked
The total length of any air hose should not exceed 36 meters.
Is the following statement True or False?

Once the space has been ventilated and declared safe, ventilation can be switched off. (FALSE)
Before entering an enclosed space, the portable gas detector being used to check the atmosphere
gives an unstable reading. What should you do?



Assume the reading is good enough and proceed whit the entry.
Put the instrument back in the store and try again with another detector.
Replace the sensor, re-calibrate the instrument, and take the readings again
In an emergency, you can enter an enclosed space as long as the oxygen level is:




15%
19%
21%
24%
Is the following statement True or False?

You can normally smell toxic gases before they become dangerous.
(FALSE)
Is the following statement True or False?

Once the atmosphere has been tested and found to be safe, no further testing will be needed.
(FALSE)
Which of the spaces listed does NOT require an enclosed space entry permit?




Chain lockers
Cofferdams
The gallery cold store
Ballast tanks
Is the following statement True or False?

Ruting steelwork can remove oxygen from the atmosphere. ( TRUE)
Is this statement about the use of ear protection True or False?

In spaces where sound levels have been measured as> 85 db (A), wearing hearing protectors is
recommended but not mandatory. (FALSE)
Is this statement about noise and hearings loss True or False?

Hearing loss makes it difficult to hear vowels.
(FALSE)
Long term exposure to loud noise can cause permanent damage to:




The ear drum
The ossicles
The auditory nerve
The cochlea.
What sound frequency is most affected by dangerous noise exposure?



20 Hz
4000 Hz
14000 Hz

20000 Hz
What can be done to cure noise induced hearing loss?




Surgery
Medication
Nothing
Exercises
Seafarers wearing hearing protectors should not be exposed to sound levels of more than:




80 db(A)
90 db (A)
100 db (A)
120 db (A)
Is this statement about noise and hearing loss True or False?

High levels of noise are only an issue in the engine room. (FALSE)
How many times can you wear foam ear plugs before disposing of them?




Once
Twice
For a week
There is no restriction
Is this statement about noise and vibration True or False?

You will not be able to wear ear defenders at the same time as your hard hat, so you should seek an
alternative form of hearing protection. (FALSE)
Is this statement about noise and hearing loss True or False?

A risk assessment for noise should determine the daily or weekly personal noise exposure for workers
at risk.
(TRUE)
Is this statement about the use of ear protection True or False?

Ear plug should be inserted as far into the ear canal as they will go without causing discomfort.
(TRUE)
Is this statement about the use of ear protection True or False?

Protectors should reduce the noise level at the ear to below 70 db.
(FALSE)
Within a 24 hours period, what is the maximum time you should spend in a space requiring the use of
hearing protectors?




2 hours
4 hours
8 hours
12 hours
What is the maximum time a seafarer should stay in space with a sound level that is >115 db(A)?




10 Minutes
30 minutes
1 hour
4 hours
What is the best way to protect against vibration from hand held tools?




Sit down when doing the work
Hold the tool firmly
Use protective gloves
Apply good technique and limit the duration
What is mean by db(A)?




The abbreviation for the noise risk in risk assessment.
A-weighted decibels, adjusted to frequencies heard by the human ear.
The measurement of sound frequency
The comfort rating of hearing protectors
If you should have to wear a hearing aid, what job could you be employed to do on board ship?




Gangway watch
Engineer
Catering
Deck crew
Is this statement about noise and vibration True or False?

Hearing loss, tinnitus, HAVS and whole body vibration are all preventable. (TRUE)
What is the best way to protect against whole body vibration?




Stand with one limb on contact with the source of vibration
Limit the amount of time in the area
Wear safety shoes with foam insoles
Keep your eyes on the horizon
What is the maximum acceptable noise level limit for cabins in ships of >10 000GT, required under the
IMO code on Noise Levels on Board Ships?




55db(A)
65db(A)
75db(A)
85db(A)
In this statement about noise and vibration True or False?

Fingers going white is a symptom of HAVS.
(TRUE)
What dangerous gas may be present during bunkering?




Hydrogen sulphide.
Carbon monoxide.
Ammonia.
Methane.
What is the MARPOL Annex Vl maximum Sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oils used within a
SECA?
•
•
•
•
0.5% m/m
1.5% m/m
2.5% m/m
4.5% m/m
What is the MARPOL Annex Vl maximum Sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oils used outside a
SECA?
•
•
•
•
3% m/m
1.5% m/m
4.5% m/m
5% m/m
How often should oxygen cylinders be checked?
•
•
•
•
Every month.
Every three months.
Every six months.
Every year.
How often should the batteries be changed on battery-powered items of rescue equipment?
•
•
•
•
Every month.
Every three months.
Every six months.
Every year.
Are the statements about rescue operations True or False?
•
•
•
Every year, many people die on board ship as a result of trying to rescue a fellow crew member without
assessing the situation properly first. True
If a casualty shows no signs of circulation, then external chest compression should be started. True
In a rescue attempt from a confined space, the well-being of the casualty should come first. False
How can feelings of claustrophobia be reduced?
•
•
•
•
Rub your eyes hard with your hands.
Have a cigarette.
Urinate.
Close your eyes and take deep, slow breaths.
If there are several injured people in a hold, who should you treat first after having sent for help?
•
•
•
•
Anyone bleeding a lot.
Whoever is in most pain.
Anyone unconscious.
The nearest person.
Which of the items listed are likely to be a hazard in a confined space?
•
•
•
•
Flammables fumes.
Extreme temperatures.
Slippery surfaces.
All the above.
A casualty in a smoke-filled room may suffer brain damage if they lack air for more than:
•
•
•
•
4 minutes.
8 minutes.
10 minutes.
15 minutes.
Are the statements about rescue activities True or False?
•
•
•
An EEBD can be used when you need to enter a tank for a short period. False
Walkie-talkie radios may not work deep below decks. True
Always alert others people to the emergency before trying to help the casualty. True
What is considered to be a confined space.




any compartment the hatch is smaller than 0.5m. (18 inches)
any compartment where you can touch a bulkhead or partition with your arms outstretched
any space where there is poor natural ventilation
any compartment where you cannot stand up straight
Which of these is it good practice to wear whenever you go into a tank.
 a TLD badge
 A lifting harness
 An identity disk
 A lifejacket
If an unconscious casualty is still in danger from hazard, what should you do?




give him first aid and then move him
wait for help to arrive
move him to safety immediately
try to revive him mouth to mouth resuscitation
What is a Neil Robertson




A type of breathing apparatus
a portable winch
a type of stretcher
a special type of bandage for deep wounds
What is the best way to lift an injured person out of a hold.



strapped to a stretcher
strapped to a piece of board
roped up

in a fireman’s lift
If there is a medical problem on board that no one is sure how to treat, what should be done.



check medical guide and make a guess what the best treatment is
keep the person warm and make for the nearest port
radio for medical advice immediately
What is the first thing you should do if you see someone lying unconscious at the bottom of a tank.




go down and check whether they are alive or dead
shout down to them and try to rouse them
go and get help
tie a rope to a stanchion or handrail and throw it down to them
If a casualty has cold skin, feels like being sick, is breathing fast and says he is thirsty, what are these
symptoms of:




Shock
claustrophobia
cramp
smoke inhalation
Which of these spaces listed is not an enclosed space






ballast tank
cargo holds
fuel tank
pump room
paint locker
bridge
What is generally considered to be safe air.




Air containing 5.5% oxygen.
Air containing 16.4% oxygen.
Air containing 20.8% oxygen.
Air containing 28.1% oxygen.
When you are discussing risk assessment and setting priorities, you need to use appropriate questions
to help identify the hazards your company may face. Which of the questions below would NOT be
appropiarte?
a) What do I particularly worry about as a manager or director?
b) Are there situations which I feel the need to manage myself because of fears that something might go
wrong?
c) Are there activities which seem to créate an above average number of problems, accidents, incidents
and so on?
d) How should I distribute the class survey schedule to the fleet?
Are these statements about different risks and risk assessment True or False?
a) A collition involving a high speed ferry could have very serious consequences. True
b) The fact that it may become more difficult to find well qualified officers in the future should not really affect
our business. False
c) Risks depend on circumstances so risk assessment must always be a dynamic process. True
d) Effective risk assessment can improve financial perfomance. True
The importance of risk assessment needs to be made clear by:
a) The ship’s safety officers.
b) The Company safety officer.
c) The senior management.
In most cases implementing the options for managing risk will:
a) Cost little or nothing.
b) Require considerable investment.
In the video, what was stated as the cause of the explosión that affected the challenger launch?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Failure of the task-interactive computer system (TIS).
Poor NASA documentation procedures.
Failure of one of the primary booster o-rings.
Lack of training of the NASA engineers.
Detailed oil discharge procedures in the ship’s manual are a good example of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Engineered safety.
Procedural safety.
Human factor safety.
Inherent safety.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the RISK MATRIX
Systematic
risk
assessment
involves six steps.
Place these in the
correct
ascending
order by dragging
the relavant steps
into
the
boxes,starting with
the first step.
Identify all hazards.
Assess risk.
Explore control options.
Weigh up costs and benefits.
Select and implement.
Monitor and re-assess
When you are discussing risk assessment and setting priorities, you need to use appropiate questions
to help identify the hazards on your ship. Which of the questions below would NOT be appropiate?
a) What do we particularly worry about on this ship?
b) Are there situations which we feel need additional supervisión because of fears that something might go
wrong?
c) Are there activities which seem to créate an above average number of problems, accidents, incidents
and so on?
d) How should we prepare the gangway safety net?
Who should be concerned about risk assessment?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The master.
The safety officer.
Everyone on board needs to be involved and to “own” the process.
The heads of department working together.
The final step we define in the risk assessment process is to monitor and re-assess – to examine how
the decisions work out in practice. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about
this process.
a) Look for problems. What seemed like a good idea may not work out well in practice.
b) Avoid blaming people if they are not implementing your solutions properly. Instead find out why.
c) Check that the solution still works.
Which of these beliefs about a no-blame reporting system are justified?
a)
b)
c)
d)
A no-blame system means that workers tend to get careles.
A no-blame system encourages everyone to make sure that all incidents and near misses are reported.
A blame culture is better as it forces everyone to take responsability and obtain better risk management.
The no-blame system helps to ensure safe running of equipment.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the principles of risk assessment.
a) It is systematic. There is a step by step technique.
b) It is about prevention rather than cure.
c) It encourages awareness of hazards and the risks they pose.
d) We can’t predict and manage every risk we face, selection of the appropiate ones is the trick.
Implementing risk control options requires you to persuade other people to accept them. Place the five
actions needed in the correct order by dragging the relevant actions into the boxes.
Explain what you want to happen.
Explain why.
Ask for reactions.
Check understanding.
Provide an incentive.
The statements about differents risk and risks assessment True or False?
a) A winch brake failure during the lowering of a lifeboat could have very serious consequences. True
b) The fact that a ship is equipped with a left handed propeller is not likely to increase the likelihood of
problems arising while entering port. False
c) Risks depend on circumstances so risk assessment must always be a dynamic process. True
d) Effective risk essessment can give better control over budgets. True
What is the meaning of the word “hazard”?
• The sequence of events leading to a hazardous situation or accident.
• The consequence of an accident.
• The means of controlling risk.
• A potential to threaten human life, health, property or the environment.
Which answer best describes the main purpose of risk assessment?
• To identify, assess and manage risks so as to reduce the chances of an incident
• To provide crucial feedback as to equipment reliability.
• To identify errors of management.
• To identify sub standard components of deck and engine room machinery
The video shows an example of a ship passing through the Straits of Messina . Which of the possible
options for managing the risk was regarded as unacceptable?
• Doubling the watch
• Putting the engine room on standby
• Checking the navigational equipment
• Taking the long route to port
A Permit to Work system is a good example of:
• Engineered safety
• Procedural safety
• Human factor safety
• Inherent safety
Which of those listed is NOT one of the four different types of safety to be remembered when
considering how to manage risk?
• Inherent
• Engineered
• Enhanced
• Procedural
Which of the activities listed would NOT require the issuing of a Permit to Work?
• Hot work
• Entering a cargo tank
• Working aloft
• Collecting food from the cold store
Nitrogen is one of the greatest hazards of enclosed spaces because:
• It has no smell
• It gives no warning symptoms to an affected person.
• A person can lose consciousness very quickly, sometimes in less than 20 seconds.
• Of all of the above
What is the definition given for the word “risk”?
• It describes what would happen incase of the sudden operational failure of a vital place of equipment
on board ship
• It is a combination of two factors - the likelihood of something happening and the consequences if it
does.
• An unintended event involving death or injury, and/or damage to the ship, other property, or the
environment.
• The outcome of an accident.
When entering cargo tanks or other enclosed spaces, what is the required oxygen content for safe
entry?
• 21%
• 19%
• 24%
• 18%
Are the statements about implementing a Permit to Work True or False?
• Only the work specified on the permit should be undertaken. True
• On some jobs it will be difficult to assess how long they need so the Permit should not specify a time
limit. False
• If someone else takes over the job specified in the Permit, the Permit should be reissued in their name.
True
• If unforeseen extra work is required during the work covered by the Permit, this work can be done as
long as an officer is informed afterwards. False
In the first Case Study, what was the specific aromatic hydrocarbon identified as being hazardous in
extremely low concentrations?
• Naphtha
• Methane
• Benzene
• Kerosene
Which of the statements does NOT belong in the list? A Permit to Work should state:
• The qualifications of the crewmember(s) to do the work.
• The precise location and details of the work to be done.
• The measures undertaken to make the job safe.
• The nature and results of any preliminary test.
Which of those listed is NOT one of the six basic principles of risk control?
• Substitution
• Safe working procedures
• Training, instruction and supervision
• Obtaining permission from Head Office
Which of those listed is NOT one of the general safety management objectives of the ISM Code?
• To provide for safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment.
• To specify who is competent to undertake hazardous procedures
• To establish safeguards against all identified risks.
• To continuously improve the safety management skills of personnel ashore and aboard
If you see or suspect an injury to someone in an enclosed space, what should you do first?
• Enter the space to assess the situation more fully
• Raise the alarm
• Increase the ventilation
• Check the instructions on the Permit to Work
Which of the actions listed is not normally defined as Hot Work on board ship?
• Riveting
• Welding
• Electrical work in cargo spaces
• Grinding
• Bunkering
Match the opening phrases with an appropriate ending to complete the sentences about preparing for
Hot Work.
• A key precaution when any Hot Work is done is the presence of the Fire Watch.
• In some ports and repair yards, hot work can only be authorized after consultation with a marine
Chemist.
• The Master should appoint one person to be responsible for supervising the work.
• Before embarking on hot work a thorough risk assessment should be undertaken.
• If possible, hot work should be substituted by Cold Work.
Which of the following agencies outside the vessel must be consulted before Hot Work is authorized?
• The Managers, Operators or Charterers
• The Flag State Authority
• The Classification Society
• The International Maritime Organization
Which of the statements about the timing of Hot Work, is not correct?
• Hot Work must not take place during fueling or bunkering operations.
• Hot Work should not begin unless it can be completed within that shift.
• Hot Work must not take place during cargo or ballast movements.
• Hot Work must not take place during tank cleaning.
Which of the statements does not belong in the list? A Hot Work Permit should set out:
• The time and date of its validity
• The precise location of the work
• The qualifications of the crewmember(s) to do the work
• The precise description of the work (including equipment and materials)
• The preparation work to be undertaken before the job can commence.
Are the statements about preparing for Hot Work on the open deck True or False?
• Cargo and slop tanks within a radius of at least 30 meters around the working area must be cleaned
and inerted. True
• Adjacent ballast tanks and compartments must be inserted os gas free. True
• Adjacent ballast tanks and compartments must be emptied and ventilated. False
When preparing for Hot Work on the open deck any hydrocarbon vapor content must be reduced to
less than:
• 2% by volume
• 4% by volume
• 1% by volume
• 8% by volume
Are the statements about preparing for Hot Work on pipe work and valves True or False?
• Pipelines and valves which are involved in Hot Work should be detached from the system. True
• Any pipelines and valves not involved in the Hot Work can be ignored. False
• Heating coils should be opened, flushed and inerted prior to Hot Work. True
• The item to be worked on should be cleaned and gas freed to “safe Hot Work standard. True
For emergency preparedness under international safety management (ISM) Code the Company should
provide for measures ensuring that the company`s organization can respond at any time to_____ ,
accidents and emergency situation involving the ship.




Risk
Hazards
Harms
Dangers
The sea anchor permanently attached to davit launched liferaft shall be arranged for manual
deployment only.


TRUE
FALSE
Every lifebuoy shall have a mass of not less than 2.5 kgs.


TRUE
FALSE
The painter of a life raft shall not be less than 20 meters


True
False
Every life boat shall consist of food rations totaling_____ for each person the lifeboat is permitted to
accommodate.




1,000 kJ
10,000 kJ
100,000kJ
100 kJ
The painter of a life raft shall not be less than _____




10 meters
15 meters
20 meters
5 meters
Tons as in GRT is derived from:




Weight
Number
Volume
None of them
Life rafts shall be marked in block capitals of the Roman alphabet with




No markings
Safety of life at Sea (SOLAS) A pack
Safety of life at Sea (SOLAS) B pack
Safety of life at Sea (SOLAS) Approved
A poison can enter the body




though the mouth
Through the lungs
by injecting into the skin
all of them





 CM-01-Control Trim, Stability and Stress
What is the "Centre of Pressure?"
(A) It is the point where the total thrust of the pressure could be considered to act.
How do you ensure reliable results from an Inclining Experiment?
(A) Perform test in calm conditions, with slack moorings, with minimum number of personnel, and
minimise free surface effects of liquids.


What is meant by "Synchronism or Resonance?"
(D) This a dangerous condition that occurs when the ship's still water period and the apparent wave
period are equal.

What is a "Prismatic co-efficient?" (D)Volume of Displacement / (midship area x LBP). Also = Cb /
Cm.

What is the purpose of performing an Inclining Experiment or Stability Test?

(D) It is done to find out the "GM" of a vessel, plus the Ship's Lightweight, and VCG & LCG at this
Lightweight.

How is a "Turning Couple" formed? (C) A couple is formed when two equal parallel forces are acting
in opposite directions.


What is the formula to calculate the "Volume of Displacement?"
(B) L by B by d by Cb.


What is a "Pro-metacentre?"
(D) This expresses KM as moving away off the centreline at large angles of heel.


What is the "Wave Period?"
(C) It is the time in seconds between successive wave crests or troughs, passing a fixed point.


What are "Cross Curves of Stability" used for onboard a ship?
(C) Obtaining Statical Stability curves at known Displacements.

What is "dynamical stability?" (D) It is the measure of the work that is done when the vessel is
inclined by external

What is the BM for a box-shaped vessel in terms of breadth and draught? (A) Breadth squared /
12xdraught.


What effect does "Freeboard" have on a vessel's dynamical stability?
(B) As freeboard increases, the range of stability also increases, and this in turn leads to greater
dynamical stability.

What is the minimum allowable value for GM? (C) 0.15m


What does "Permeability" mean?
(A) The relationship between the volume of a compartment and the volume available for water if bilged.

What is "Statical Stability?" (D) It is the ability of a vessel to return to her initial or upright position,
after having been forcibly inclined.


What are "Hydrostatic Curves" used for in ship calculations?
(B) Mainly for trim calculations for predicting end draughts.


If your vessel is tending to "synchronise ", what should you do to alter this condition?
(C) You should try to alter the wave period by altering course and by reducing speed.

How would you increase the GM of a ship, loaded with a timber deck cargo, that has become
"unstable?" (A) By filling the small divided double bottom tanks on the lower side, whilst jettisoning the
deck cargo from the higher side.


What do the intersecting horizontal lines signify in the diagram?
(C)They show the actual angle of trim.


What is the minimum allowable value for GZ?
(B) 0.2m

What formula do you use to determine the "GM" from an Inclining Experiment?

(A) GM = w by distance by length of plumbline divided by W by deflection of the plumbline.


CM-02-Marine Risk Assessment

When you are discussing risk assessment and setting priorities, you need to use appropriate
questions to help identify the hazards your company may face. Which of the questions below
would not be appropriate?
(A) How should I distribute the Class survey schedule to the fleet?
Which of those listed is not one of the four different types of safety to be remembered when
considering how to manage risk?
(A) Enhanced


The importance of risk assessment needs to be made clear by:
(C) The senior management.




What is the definition given for the word "risk"?
(A) It is a combination of two factors - the probability of something happening and the consequences if it
does.
Which answer best describes the main purpose of risk assessment?
(C) To identify, assess and manage risks so as to reduce the chances of an incident.
Which of these beliefs about a no-blame reporting system are justified?
(A) A no-blame system encourages the reporting of all incidents and near misses without fear of
recrimination.
What is the meaning of the word "hazard"?
(B) A potential to threaten human life, health, property or the environment.


Detailed oil discharge procedures in the ship's manual are a good example of:
(C) Procedural safety.








When you are discussing risk assessment and setting priorities, you need to use appropriate
questions to help identify the hazards on your ship. Which of the questions below would not be
appropriate?
(A) How should we prepare the gangway safety net?


A Permit to Work system is a good example of:
(B) Procedural safety.


Who should be concerned about risk assessment?
(C) Everyone on board needs to be involved and to "own" the process






CO-01-Pollution Prevention Requirements
The diagram shows loadline marks. How is the distance between S and T calculated?
(C) One forty-eighth of the summer draft
MARPOL ANNEX IV entered into effect from 27 September 2003 for new ships and will apply to
existing ships on 27 September 2008. It effects…..
(A) New and existing ships of 400 tonnes and above and new and existing ships of less than 400 tonnes
which are certified to carry more than 15 persons.


Ships may only discharge processed bilge water from machinery spaces into the sea if certain
very specific criteria are being met. Which of those listed below is correct?
(B) The ship has in operation equipment as required by Regulation 16(5) of Annex I to MARPOL.
Bunkering procedures on all ships require that the deck officer on watch is informed prior to the
starting of bunkering. This is because ............. .
(B) appropriate precautions have to be taken by the deck department.
.


Which of the following is not a "Special Area" according to MARPOL Regulation 10?
(C) Caribbean Sea area


According to the MEPC, Circular No. 235, issued by the IMO, entitled "Guidelines for systems for
handling oily wastes in machinery spaces of ships", a return line to the bilge or holding tank
is..............
(D) strongly recommended for all ships.


The entries in the Oil Record Book must be............
(D) in the official language of the Flag State and in English or French.





The disposal of all plastics including incinerator ashes from plastic products which may contain
toxic or heavy metal residue, is..........
(B) strictly prohibited.

MARPOL Annex V came into effect from the 1st July 1997, for new ships, and from 1st July1998
for all other vessels. It affects ships........
(C) of 400 tonnes and above.


Cross connections between the fuel and ballast systems are.................. .
(C) totally prohibited.


The Garbage Record Book must be open for inspection at all times and kept for a minimum
of...........
(B) two years.


Which MARPOL ANNEX deals with the Regulations for the Prevention of Air Pollution?
(B) Annex VI


Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require that should personally supervise
all bunkering operations.
(C) a responsible person

Under MARPOL ANNEX VI Regulation 6, after survey, a ship shall be issued with a...



(B) International Air Pollution Prevention Certificate?
In the USA any food waste being put ashore must be delivered in..........
(B) biodegradable sacks.


The term "segregated ballast" means.......
(C) a ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil systems.



Bunkering procedures for all ships require that ..................... communication should be
maintained with the shore/barge staff in charge of the transfer.
(C) continuous

Which MARPOL Annex deals with the Regulations for the Control of Pollution by Noxious Liquid
Substances in Bulk?
(B) Annex II


Which MARPOL ANNEX deals with the Regulations for the Prevention of Pollution by Sewage?
(A) Annex IV

Which Marpol Annex deals with the Regulations for the Prevention of Pollution by Oil?

(C) Annex I


Which of the following pumps is not allowed to have a direct overboard connection to the sea?
(A) Sludge Pump


Under MAPOL ANNEX IV Regulation 5, after survey, a ship shall be issued with a...
(C) International Sewage Pollution Prevention Certificate?



CO-02A-Maintain Seaworthiness - Stability
Which of the actions listed does not form part of the duties of the designated ballast water
management officer?
(A) Deciding whether sea conditions allow exchange to be undertaken safely.


What is the "Ship's Displacement in Tonnes?"
(D) The actual entire weight of the ship.


About which point on a waterline does a vessel change trim?
(C) The Longitudinal Centre of Flotation.


A stiff vessel will have a GM which is....
(A) large


What is the "Volume of Displacement?"
(B) The volume of water needed to fill the moulded hole, if the ship was lifted from the


What is "the moment of a couple?"
(C) It is the product of one of the forces forming the couple, and the lever of the couple.


What is the "Centre of Gravity", of an object?
(C) It is the point at which the whole weight of the object may be regarded as acting.


What is a "Metacentre?"
(C) It is the intersecting point between the vertical lines through the centre of buoyancy in the initial and
slightly listed positions.


Define "Amidships".
(B) The mid-point between the after perpendicular and the forward perpendicular.


What is a "Moment", in terms of stability?
(C) It is the product of force and distance.


What happens to cause a vessel to be in a state of "Unstable Equilibrium?"
(D) When the centre of gravity rises above the metacentre.


What is a "Bending Moment" in a ship?
(A) A beam bends by placing weights on either side of it. The "Moment" is calculated by multiplying the
weight applied by the respective distance.


What do the letters "LBP", stand for in relation to a ship?
(B) Length Between Perpendiculars.

What is a hydrometer used for?

(C) For determining the density of a liquid.


What is the "Centre of Buoyancy of a ship?"
(C) The geometrical centre of underwater volume & the point through which the force of buoyancy may
be considered to act upwards.


When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will be...
(C) zero


What causes a "Free Surface Effect?"
(D) The movement of liquid in slack tanks due to a ship's motion.


The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the...
(B) fresh water allowance.


What does the letter " T " stand for in the diagram?
(D) The Trim of the vessel.


What is the equilibrium state of the vessel in this diagram?
(A) It is in a state of "Stable Equilibrium".


What is an "Angle of List?"
(B) A fixed angle of heel caused by a transverse imbalance of internal forces within the


What do the letters "MCTC" stand for?
(C) The Moment to Change Trim one Centimetre.


How many tonnes are there in 1 cubic metre of salt water?
(D) 1.025


What is the equilibrium state of the vessel in this diagram?
(B) It is in a state of unstable equilibrium.


Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from the...
(D) main deck to the waterline.


In order to replace approximately 95% of ballast water in a tank using the flow-through method of
exchange, the amount of water pumped through the tank must be:
(B) 3 x the tank's volume.


What is the "Centre of Flotation or Tipping Centre" of a vessel?
(A) It is the geometrical centre of the waterplane and also the point about which the vessel trims.


What is the intact volume of a vessel above the waterline called?
(B) Reserve Buoyancy


What are the "effects" of free surface?
(B) It cause a loss of GM, thereby creating a possibly dangerous situation.


With a forward draught of 8.00m and an aft draught of 9.00m, the amidships draught reads 8.30m.
What state is the vessel in?
(A) The vessel is hogged.


What is a GZ curve used to determine?
(D) Stability


What happens when a weight is loaded off the ship's centre line?
(B) When loading or discharging a weight off the centreline, the shift of G must be resolved into both
vertical & horizontal components.


What is the "Change of Trim?"
(A) It is the difference between the original trim and the final trim.


What does the term "Trim" mean?
(A) The difference between the draught at the forward perpendicular and the draught at the after
perpendicular.


What do the letters "GRT" mean?
(D) Gross Registered Tonnage.


If the angle of heel is less than 10 degrees, what is the equation for finding GZ?
(B) GM times Sin(x).


What does the diagram show, and what does it mean?
(B) The block coefficient of fineness, which is the ratio between the underwater volume, and volume of
circumscribing block.


Which of the factors listed is not relevant for port State authorities when implementing their
ballast water management programmes and assessing risks?
(B) The type of vessel concerned.


What do the letters "LCF" mean in relation to stability?
(B) Longitudinal Centre of Flotation.


What is the intact volume of a vessel above the waterline called?
(A) Reserve Buoyancy


The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h, measured from the
bottom, is....
(D) 0.33h


What is the "Breadth Extreme?"
(D) The maximum breadth measured from outside the shell plating P to S.


How many tonnes are there in 1 cubic metre of fresh water?
(C) 1


What is the "Range of Stability" on a statical stability curve?
(A) Angles of heel where all GZ levers are positive.


What is the "Depth Moulded" in relation to a ship?
(C) The vertical distance from the top of keel to the uppermost continuous deck at side.

Part four of the Ballast Water Reporting form is a detailed history of the ballast water. Which of
the items of information listed would not be required?

(A) The types of organism in the water


Define the "Lightweight" of a ship.
(D) Displacement minus the deadweight. It is the weight of the ship itself.


What is the "formula " for calculating the righting moment of a ship?
(D) It is the GZ multiplied by the displacement in tonnes.


What is "Pressure" in the context of stability?
(D) Pressure is force per unit area.


What is "relative or specific gravity?"
(B) The density of a substance, compared to the density of fresh water.


What is a "Ship's Rolling Period?"
(D) It is the time in seconds taken by a vessel to complete a roll i.e port to starboard and back to port.


What causes ships to experience "Stresses?"
(C) Stresses to a ship are mainly caused when it is subjected to forces from wind, waves and loads.


What does "Breadth Moulded" mean in relation to a ship?
(B) The maximum breadth measured from inside the shell plating P to S.


What happens when a vessel passes between water of different densities?
(D) If a ship goes from salt water to fresh water, there will be a bodily sinkage plus a small change of trim.

The IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting form. Which of the
items of information listed does this form contain?
(B) All the above





What is a "Shear Force" in a ship?
(B) A vertical force at the point at which a load is being carried, with the force being the difference between
upward and downward thrust.
What is the "Principle of Suspended Weights?"
(D) When a weight is suspended from a ship's derrick, its centre of gravity is considered as being at the
derrick head.


What is the equilibrium state of the vessel in this diagram?
(A) The vessel is in a state of neutral equilibrium.


What effect does "Hogging," have on a vessel's draught?
(D) It makes the amidships draft appear less than it should be.


What causes "Sagging" in a loaded vessel?
(A) Leaving peak tanks empty, and then loading tanks/holds near to amidships.




What do the letters ML in the attached diagram mean & what is it used for ?
(B) It is the longitudinal metacentre and is used when calculations involving trim are considered.
In the Black Sea, the Comb Jelly became a major contributor to the rapid decline in the catch of
which particular fish?
(B) Anchovy


What is "Deadweight"?
(A) The difference between the vessel's loaded and light displacements. It is the weight that a ship carries.


Which letters signify the metacentric height on the diagram?
(D) The metacentric height is represented by the letters "GM ".


At what angle of heel on a statical stability curve is the GM plotted?
(C) 57.3 degrees.


What do you call the effect of the movement of liquid in a slack tank?
(B) Free surface effect.


Which vessels are considered most prone to poor stability?
(B) Timber-carrying vessels, and Fishing vessels in Arctic waters.


What do the letters "LOA", stand for in relation to a ship?
(A) Length Over All.


What is the "True Mean Draught?"
(C) The draught at the Centre of Flotation is considered as the True Mean Draught or the draught the
vessel would lie in even keel conditions.

Which of the items listed is not included in the section of the IMO Guidelines dealing with ships'
operational procedures?

(B) Training and education


What is a GZ curve used to determine?
(A) Stability

The current, recommended method of ballast water management is:

(A) exchange.


From the diagram, give the formula for the "KG" value.
(C) KG = KM minus GM.

If the forward draught of a vessel is greater than the aft draught, what state of trim is the vessel
in?
(D) The vessel is trimmed by the head.



What does the term "LCB" mean?
(C) Longitudinal Centre of Buoyancy.


What is "reserve buoyancy" in relation to a vessel?
(A) The watertight volume above the waterline.

What is the horizontal distance between the forces of Buoyancy and Gravity, acting on a vessel
when heeled by wind or waves, called?

(D) Righting Lever


What is the principle of Archimedes?
(C) That every floating body displaces it's own weight of the liquid in which it floats.


What are the "Stresses" that effect a ship?
(D) Mainly tensile, compressive and bending stresses.


What does fresh water allowance or "FWA " mean?
(A) The amount the vessel may submerge it's maximum salt water draft by, when loading in fresh water.


What is an "Angle of Loll?"
(D) It is the list angle at which a vessel with negative stability comes to rest.

What minimum distance does 'far from shore' mean for ships entering North American Great
Lakes Ports or visiting ports further up the Hudson River than the George Washington Bridge?
(A) 200 miles




CO-02B-Maintain Seaworthiness - Ship Construction
Where are panting stresses for a ship most severe?
(D) Forward


What is the vertical distance top to top between the load line marks S and F?
(B) Fresh Water Allowance


In the figure, what are the items marked 6 called? (A) Bilge Brackets
What stress is the connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads
designed to resist? (C) Deadweight


What is the condition in which the greatest pounding stresses in a ship are liable to occur?
(B) In ballast, head sea

Where is the top of a stern frame connected to a vessel's structure? (D) Transom Floor


A perforated flat is part of the structure in the.........
(C) fore peak.

The lower end of the stem bar of a ship is attached to a........ (D) keel plate


How are stacked containers prevented from moving in the hold?
(D) By cell guides

A vessel in the condition shown in Figure 1will be.... (A) hogging

What is the item shown in the figure? (A) Bulwark Stanchion

Water is drained from an exposed deck by......... (A) freeing ports.


What is the pipe which directs the anchor cable from the windlass to the chain locker
(B) Spurling


Gross tonnage is defined as....
(C) internal capacity.


What is the hinge on which a rudder turns called?
(C) Gudgeon


What is the type of framing shown in the ship cross section?
(C) Longitudinal


What is the item of structure numbered 12 in the figure called?
(C) Stern Frame


What is the item of structure numbered 9 in the figure?
(C) Panting Stringer


Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the.........
(C) inside of the plating.


What is the type of rudder shown in the figure?
(D) Semi-balanced


What are bulkhead stiffeners attached to the tank top by?
(D) Brackets


What is the connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam called?
(C) Knee

Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkhead to
resist........

(C) pounding.

What stresses are the vessel's structure forward of the collision bulkhead stiffened to

(C) Panting & Pounding

In ideal conditions, the forward distance a propeller will move in one revolution of the shaft is
the:

(C) pitch

What is the minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery WE
aft?

(A) Three

To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should be
constructed with approved........ (B) sills.

What is the item of structure numbered 10 in the figure called? (B) Breast Hook


What is the athwartships cross section structure shown in the figure 2?
(D) Flat Plate Keel


What is a vertically welded shell joint called?
(C) Butt


What is the item of structure numbered 11 in the figure called?
(C) Wash Plate

What could the steel section shown in the figure be used to construct? (B) Bulkhead

What is the uppermost continuous hull plating called? (D) Sheer Strake

What is a keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through called? (A) Duct Keel

What is distortion of a vessel's structure caused by rolling called? (A) Racking


What is the type of weld shown in the figure?
(C) Fillet

The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is the........

(A) statutory freeboard.

What is the transverse curve of the deck called? (A) Camber

Racking stresses in a ship can be reduced by fitting a good system of...... (C) bulkheads.

In the figure, what is the section marked 4 called? (D) Offset Bulb

When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in........ (B) compression.

What is the longitudinal curve of the deck called? (C) Sheer

A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's.... (B) layout


What is a drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates called?
(B) Shell Expansion Plan



CO-03-Monitor Compliance With Legislative Requirements
What is a passenger ship?
(C) A ship that carries more than twelve passengers


"The International Safety Management Code states that the company and the......."
(B) ship shall comply with the requirements of the ISM Code.


In passenger ships, all watertight doors in main transverse bulkheads shall be operated....
(B) daily.



What is the meaning of the word "Convention", as used for instance in SOLAS, MARPOL and
STCW "Conventions"?
(D) A Convention is a treaty between States, which have agreed to be bound by it to apply the principles
contained in the convention within their sphere.
What percentage of your body heat can be lost through your head and neck in cold
(A) 40%


In any 24 hour period, regulations stipulate that the minimum amount of sleep should be:
(D) 6 hours.


What is the legal requirement for minimum rest hours in any 24 hour period?
(B) 10


The MARPOL Annex I regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil apply to which ships?
(B) All ships, unless expressly provided otherwise



The Reference explains the 5-Step system for Fatigue Management. Implementing such a system
should take:
(B) no fixed time - it is a continuous process.


To avoid fatigue you should have a balanced diet comprising mostly:
(D) fats, proteins and carbohydrates.


In international law the territorial sea forms part of a State's territory. At how many miles does the
Law of the Sea Convention set the limit of the territorial sea?
(B) Twelve miles

The best way to minimize disruption to the body clock is by using:

(A) light management techniques.


The law of the sea is embodied in the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea and
the.......
(A) Geneva Conventions of 1958.


To aid rapid development of alertness requires a light level in the region of:
(B) 1000 lumens.




Which of the conditions listed may be symptoms of fatigue?
(C) All the above
Which of the factors listed is not likely to contribute to fatigue in the engine room?
(A) Hypothermia


When we change time zones, our body clocks adjust by:
(C) one hour every day.


The normal base line for measuring the extent of the territorial area along the coast, as marked
on large scale charts officially recognized by the coastal State is..........
(C) the low-water line.


What is the SOLAS Convention?
(D) The "International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea."


A 'microsleep' is:
(B) a few seconds' sleep which is potentially dangerous.


Reports indicate that Fatigue Management systems in Australia and the US have cut trucking
accidents by:
(C) more than 50%.


What is the ideal length for a 'strategic nap'?
(B) 20 minutes


Which of the following statements is not correct?
(D) The exclusive economic zone is the sea area within the 12 mile territorial sea.


What do the letters UNCLOS stand for?
(C) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982

The most substantial meal of the working day should be eaten:

(A) as breakfast.


What is MARPOL?
(B) The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships


The present SOLAS regulations, unless expressly provided otherwise, applies only
(B) cargo ships in excess of 500 gross tonnage.

Before going on a watch at night, how long is it recommended that the watchkeeper spends in a
brightly lit area?

(A) At least 5-10 minutes


What is the intention when adopting international maritime conventions and agreements?
(D) To provide uniform practice internationally.


There are various factors that can make Masters particularly susceptible to fatigue. Which of
those listed is not a valid reason?
(A) They are not allotted sufficient rest hours in the schedule

What sea area is known as "the continental shelf"?

(A) The section that slopes down gradually from the low-water mark to the depth, averaging 130 metres,at
which the angle of declination increase markedly.


Where would you find a sea area known as the "Contiguous Zone"?
(B) It is an area seaward of the territorial sea within which the coastal State enjoys limited jurisdiction

CO-04-MARPOL



Which four classes of atmospheric pollutant are regulated by Annex VI of MARPOL ?
Halons and freons VOCs NOx
Sox


The discharge of oily mixtures is not allowed within special areas (with the exemption of
processed engine room bilge water), unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these
conditions must be satisfied?
(C) II, IV, V, VII, VIII


The volume of any one centre tank on a tanker shall not exceed ....................... cubic
(C) 50,000

Which of these items about the cleaning of cargo tanks must be recorded in the Oil Record Book
- Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)? (A) I, II, IV, V, VIII

Which of these items about crude oil washing operations must be recorded in the Oil Record
Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)?

I, III, IV, VI, VII, VIII, X, XI

What are most oil spills at sea caused by?

(D) Overspills during bunkering

A ship equipped with a sewage treatment plant may discharge sewage into the sea when the
following conditions are met...
(A) I, II, III, IV



To which ships does ANNEX VI apply?
(C) All ships except expressly provided otherwise as stipulated in Regulation 1 of ANNEX

Marpol states that a small diameter line is to be connected outboard of the manifold for the
purpose of pumping pipe and cargo pumps drainage to shore receptives. What does "connected
outboard of " mean?
A connection on the downstream side of the manifold valves on PS and SB


Every tanker operating a Crude Oil Washing System shall be provided with an approved.....
Operations and Equipment Manual.

ANNEX VI stipulates the percentage sulphur content of fuel oil used on board ships which shall
not be exceeded as... 4.5

What is the MARPOL Annex VI maximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oils used outside
a SECA? 4.5% m/m

The IOPP certificate shows under which government authority it was issued as well as the
designation of organization authorized by the government.

Which of these items is the recommended procedure for testing cargo lines on tankers? (D) I, II,
V, VI

On board ship, ozone depleting substances (freons and halons) may be found in….. (C) I, II, III,
IV, V, VI

During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because
..... (C) the oily water separator filters were found dirty.

As from 19 May 2005, which of the following documents are mandatory for diesel engines falling
within ANNEX VI requirements... (D) All the above

What is the NOx emission limit for a diesel engine when the rated engine speed(n) is less that
130rpm? (C) 17.0g/kWh

To conform with MARPOL ANNEX VI, fue oil derived from petroleum refining which is delivered
to and used on board shall meet the following requirements... (C) I, II, IV

With regard to double hull and double bottom requirements for oil tankers delivered before 6 July
1996, a "Category 2 oil tanker" means... (D) II

If the ship needs to dispose of cargo associated waste such as dunnage or pallets while at sea,
how far must it be from land? (B) 25 miles

Which of these items about the disposal of residues and oily mixtures not otherwise dealt with
must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)? (B) I, II, V

On tankers, segregated ballast tank and clean water ballast systems have reduced the amount of
...... (C) oil getting into the sea.

What should be the first priority on board to control waste? (B) To cut down on ship generated
waste.

Under Marpol, the IOPP certificate of any ship must be supplemented by.................. (B) a record of
construction and equipment.

Who is responsible for ensuring that the correct bunker grades have been loaded? (B) The Ship's
Master


Manifold trays on tankers should be checked regularly to ensure that......
(B) they are clean, that the dumping drains are free and operational, that water collected is drained off.

Which of these items must be recorded in the Oil Record Book -Part I, concerning the disposal of
oil residues (sludges)?

(C) I, II

Dump valves fitted to manifold trays on tankers should be ...... (D) checked regularly that they can
be easily opened.


The representative sample of fuel oil retained under the ship's control should be not less than...
(C) 400ml


What may be the effect of carelessly discarded fishing nets?
(D) They may trap and kill seals and other marine mammals.


When filling the final cargo tank at the end of loading on tankers, which of these precautions
should be taken in order to avoid pollution?
(A)I, II, IV, VI, VII

Which of the types of garbage listed is not biodegradable? (D) Disposable plastic cups

Which of these items concerning the operation of machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil
Record Book - Part I? (D) I, III, VI, VII

For how long must the Garbage Record Book be kept on board? (B) 2 years

How much waste does the average cargo ship generate each year? (B) 80 tonnes

When starting to ballast on non-SBT tankers there is potential for pollution, in that oil remaining
in cargo piping may backflow to the sea via the sea chests. Which of these preventative measures
should be taken? (C) III, V

The oil record book for machinery space operations must be completed on a tank to tank basis
whenever which of these operations take place? (D) I, II, III, VII

Pollution incidents have been caused by leaking pipe lines (corrosion on bottom), faulty dresser
couplings, valve flanges, leaking manometer connections etc. To prevent these what preventive
actions should be taken? (B) Hydrostatic pressure tests should be frequently carried out at maximum
pressure,

How many fuel oil samples need to be taken? (D) 4

Pump room sea chest valve leaks are a common cause of pollution on tankers due to leak back
of oil in port. What preventive measures must be carried out to prevent any pollution from this
cause? (B) The outboard sea valve is tested by opening the drain between the outboard and inboard
sea valves which are in series.

Which of these substances are not allowed to be discharged at sea as ash after (A) Plastics

Emission of nitrogen oxides from marine diesel engines under ANNEX VI is controlled by means
of... (C) Test procedures, measurement methods and documentation of emissions in accordance with
the NOx Technical Code

What entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo / ballast operations - tankers)
about the loading of cargo oil?
(C) Place of loading, type of oil loaded and identity of tanks, total quantity of oil loaded



A ship equipped with a holding tank of capacity for retention of all sewage (without further
treatment) may discharge sewage into the sea when the following conditions are met...
(A) I, II, IV

When should fuel oil samples be taken? (C) Continuously during transfer

For oil spill containment on tankers, spilt oil on deck must be dumped in the slop tank or other
receptacle tank. Which of the following arrangements must be checked or (D) I, III, IV, VI

MARPOL regulations require that the slop tank capacity is 3 % of the cargo tank capacity. Under
which of these conditions can the slop tank capacity be reduced to 2 or 1.5 %? (D) I, II, VI

Which of the items listed is not regulated by MARPOL Annex VI? (B) Emergency shut-down
procedures

After oil cargo loading/discharge or bunkering, draining of shore lines, hoses and loading arms
may be done under pressure provided which of these precautions are followed? (D) I, III, IV, VI,
VII, VIII

VOC emission control may be required by ANNEX VI during... (B) II

Existing tankers in specific trades do not need to comply with SBT, CBT and COW requirements
provided that which of these items apply? (A) I, II, V, VI, VII, VIII

What is the MARPOL Annex VI maximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oils used within
a SECA? (B) 1.5% m/m

Roughly what proportion of the world's surface is covered with water? (D) 2/3

Which of these areas has been designated under ANNEX VI as SOx emission control areas
effective from 19 May 2006? (C) The North Sea & The Baltic Sea

The BDN (Bunker Delivery Note) must be kept on board for at least: (C) 3 years

Every oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be provided with an approved
Dedicated Clean Ballast Operating Manual. Which of these items must be contained in the
manual? (D) I, IV, V, VI

The term "tanks with smooth walls" is meant to include which tanks? (B) All of the other options.

Which of these items are listed in the Record of Construction and Equipment for a ship other
than an oil tanker? (C) I, II, III, IV, VI, VII

Existing tankers up to 40,000 dwt which are fitted with CBTand COW and designated as "Crude
Oil/Product Carrier" on the IOPP certificate should operate as which of these? (B) I, II, III, IV, V,
VII, VIII

Which of the areas listed is not, at present, a Special Area under Annex V? (C) The Indian Ocean

For the calculation of hypothetical oil outflow, credit shall be given to double bottom tanks, full
or empty, when cargo is carried in tanks above. Partial double bottoms are credited..... (A) as
non-existent.

For what period after fuel oil has been delivered on board shall the bunker delivery note be kept
on board the ship ? (A) Three years.

What does medical waste refer to? (D) Used "sharps" and needles, dressings, etc. from the ship's
hospital.

In accordance with ANNEX VI, designation by a party of ports or terminals in which VOCs
emissions are to be regulated under ANNEX VI requires submission of a notification to IMO which
includes the following information... (A) I, III, IV

Pick 3 operations from this list which, when conducted on tankers, may lead to a pollution
incident? (C) II, IV, V

A ship equipped with a sewage communuting and disinfecting system may discharge treated
sewage into the sea when the following conditions are met... (B) I, II, III, IV

What dangerous gas may be present during bunkering? (D) Hydrogen sulphide


The percentage sulphur content of fuel oil used on board ships in a SOx emission control area
is...
(C) 1.5


Which of the items listed could be put into the food bin?
(D) Fruit

Under Marpol, do the requirements of Oil Retention and Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment
apply to tankers carrying asphalt? (A) No, retention of residues on board is required with discharge of
all contaminated washings to reception facilities


Which of these items about the discharge of ballast from dedicated clean ballast tanks must be
recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)?
(B) I, II, III, VI, VII, VIII, X

With regard to double hull and double bottom requirements for oil tankers delivered before 6
July 1996, a "Category 1 oil tanker" means... (C) I

During all cargo oil loading/discharging or bunkering operations as well as during oil transfers,
oil spill equipment should be ........
(B) readily available in a place known to all crew members for immediate use by the assigned deck party.



Which information about the fuel oil that has been delivered does the BDN (Bunker Delivery Note)
not include?
(B) Flash-point

Which of these items concerning automatic discharge overboard of bilge water from machinery
spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I? (C) I, IV, V, VII

With regard to double hull and double bottom requirements for oil tankers delivered before 6 July
1996, a "Category 3 oil tanker" means...
(D) III


What is the minimum distance ships must be from land before they can throw anything at 8all
overboard? (A) 3 miles




Which vessels have to display placards notifying the crew and passengers of the disposal
arrangements?
Every ship over 12 metres in length.
What entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operation - tankers)
about the internal transfer of cargo during the voyage?
(A) Identity of tanks involved, quantity transferred and if tanks were emptied.

How many different categories of garbage are indicated on the form in the Garbage Record Book?
(A) 6 and "other"


Which of these items concerning accidental or other exceptional discharges of oil must be
recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I?
(A)I, II, V, VI


The sample of fuel oil required for MARPOL should not be less than:
(B) 400 ml

What entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part I (machinery space operations) about
the condition of the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control system?
(A) The time of system failure, the time that it was made operational again andthe reason for failure.





During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors, ships have been detained because
.....
(C) an oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water separator.
According to Regulation 13.3.b, in which of these exceptional cases can ballast water be loaded
into cargo holds of tankers?
(D) I, III, IV

For how long form the time of delivery shall a representative sample of fuel oil be retained under
the ship's control ? (A) Until the fuel oils is substantially consumed but in any case not less than 12
months.

Which of these items about the ballasting of dedicated clean ballast tanks must be recorded in
the Oil Record Book - Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)?
(D) I, III, IV, VI, VIII, IX, X






Every new oil tanker which is required to be provided with SBT or fitted with COW shall comply
with which of the following items concerning pumping arrangements and piping?
I, IV, V, VI
Regulation 23 of Marpol Annex I is concerned with the hypothetical outflow of oil from tankers.
What is understood by this?
The oil discharged into the sea in the case of side damage or bottom damage

To conform with MARPOL ANNEX VI, fuel oil derived from methods other than petroleum refining
which is delivered to and used on board shall meet the following requirements...
(A)I, II, III, IV
Which of these items about the discharge of dirty ballast must be recorded in the Oil Record Book
- Part II (cargo/ ballast operations - tankers)?
I, II, III, V, VI, VIII, X, XI


Which of the areas listed are designated as Special Areas by Marpol Annex?
(D) I, II, VI, VIII, IX, XI, XIII, XIV, XV



Who is responsible for ensuring that the correct bunker grades have been loaded?
The Ship's Master
Which of these items are listed in the Record of Construction and Equipment for an oil tanker?
(B) I, II, III, IV, V, VIII, IX, XI, XII



CO-05-MARPOL Annex 1

For an existing tanker of 40,000 tons dwt and above, satisfying the requirements of SBT, what
should the designation be on the IOPP certificate?
(B) Crude oil / product carrier



Penalties under the law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be.....
(A) adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of where the
violation occurs.

If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil in bulk of a capacity
of .......... or more, the regulations of Annex I for oil tankers apply.
(A) 200 cubic metres



Which of these design requirements must be met by oil filtering equipment fitted on ships of
10,000 gt and above?
(D) I, II, III, IV


When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid?
(B) Any of the other options.


What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol?
(A) A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank drainings, washings o other oily mixtures


How would an existing oil tanker of less than 40,000 tons dwt be designated on the IOPP
certificate?
(D) As a crude oil / product carrier


Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I?
(C) Fuel oil No 4







The Marpol regulations prohibit discharges of oil mixtures at sea. The regulations will not apply
if the discharge is the result of damage arising from which items in this list?
(B) IV, V
No oil discharge monitoring equipment is to be fitted on tankers if trading in specific areas or
within 50 miles from the nearest land, provided that which of these items apply?
(A) I, II, III, IV, V
Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of
these conditions for a tanker is that ......
(D) the tanker is not within a Special Area

Marpol Annex IV concerning sewage is not yet in force, but a number of countries (for example
USA) have adapted it and have stringent regulations. The regulations concern which of these
items?
(B) I, II, IV, VI, VIII


Which of these waters are the Special Areas as defined by Marpol Annex V?
(A) I, II, IV, V, VIII, X, XII, XIII


Who can certify true copies of Oil Record Books?
(C) The Master

A ship other than a tanker of 400grt and above, but less than 10,000grt, cannot discharge oily
mixtures from machinery spaces, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these
conditions must be satisfied?
(B) II, V, VII



To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to pollution are
conducted on board your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are these questions?
(A) II, IV, VI




Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated by tank washings,
oil and dirty ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not be less than ......% of the tank capacity.
(B) 3
If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified to immobilize the ship,
what are the requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW?
(A) The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply

Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, rags, metal ,
glass and food may be thrown overboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore, provided it is ground to
less than ......... in size.

(A) 25 mm


Who may carry out MARPOL Surveys?
(B) Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organizations recognized by


What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined by Marpol?
(B) Any release how ever caused.


Where is the Oil Record Book to be kept on board?
(D) At a place where it is readily available

New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in cargo tanks, except
when which of these circumstances arise?
(A) IV, V



Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of
these conditions for a tanker is that....
(C) the tanker is en route.


Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with......
(D) the pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangements for discharge of cargo residues

Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fuel oil tank. What is
the exception?
(C) Ships with special nature of trade which stay for a long time at sea, for example: tugs, fishing boats.



For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers, which tanks
may be included?
(D) Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams.

In order to c

ontain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates) should be regularly inspected to make sure that.....

(B) they have not developed cracks or holes.


Which of these are the requirements for an Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System?
(A)I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, IX


There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73/78 (Annex I to VI). They deal with pollution caused by........
(D) I = Oil, II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI
= Air pollution.

The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply if the tanker is engaged
in specific trades, provided reception facilities are existing in ports. What document is to be
endorsed?
(C) The ship's IOPP certificate





The Record of Construction and Equipment has a chapter about "Tanks for Oil Residues
(Sludges)". What information is recorded in this chapter?
(B) The total tank capacity and the means for disposal of oil residue in addition to the provision of sludge
tanks
A new oil tanker of 70,000 dwt and above, satisfying the requirements of SBT, may be designed
as a .............................on the IOPP certificate.
(C) crude oil / product carrier

What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location of Segregated Ballast
Tanks on Oil Tankers?

(A) To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in the event of grounding or collision.

These items are standard inspection items for Marpol, as given in guidelines to inspectors and
surveyors. Which item does not belong?
(D) Item VII - does not belong





If an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the requirements for SBT,
CBT, PL and COW?
(A) The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply
One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is
equipped with.......
(C) an oil content meter.


Which is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast?
(C) The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from the cargo or fuel oil system
and permanently allocated to ballast

Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that, within 3 miles from the
nearest land and in all inland waters.....

(C) you cannot throw anything overboard.

A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above, satisfying the requirements SBT and PL, but not fitted
with COW, should be designated as a ................................. on the IOPP certificate.


(B) product carrier
Every oil tanker of ....... grt and above and every other ship of ...... grt and above shall be subject
to Marpol (IOPP) surveys.
(D) 150, 40






Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record book without delay
and.......
(C) will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and each completed page will be
signed by the Master.
Existing oil tankers which comply at all times with SBT draught and trim requirements without
the use of ballast water, may be considered to comply with SBT requirements in full, provided
which of these items apply?
(D) II, V, VI

Of the four categories of discharge associated with the operation of offshore platforms, for which
type or types is Marpol 73/78 applicable?
(C) Type I only


Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution?
(B) Solvent

The Record of Construction and Equipment for ships other than tankers contains information in
Chapter II about oil discharge from the machinery space and fuel tanks. Which of these items are
included?
(A) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII


Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that plastics, including incinerated
ashes from plastic products which may contain toxic or


heavy metal residues...
(A) cannot be thrown overboard at any time.

Topping off during oil cargo loading or bunkering is a most critical operation. Which five of these
precautions or actions must be taken?
(D) I, III, V, VI, VII






Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker in order to be
allowed to discharge oily mixtures into the sea?
(C) A slop tank arrangement
Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the administration.
These intervals are not to exceed.....
(A) five years.

An oil tanker is prohibited from discharging oily mixtures into the sea except when certain
conditions are satisfied. Which of the conditions mentioned here must be satisfied?
(B) II, III, V, VII, IX, X, XI


Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker?
(C) Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk.


At least two slop tanks are required for....
(B) new oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above.


Under Marpol, can a ship carry oil in the fore peak tank?
(D) No, not on any vessel


Marpol defines Crude Oil as....
(D) a liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally, whether treated or not, irrespective of whether
distillate fractions were removed or added.



There is potential for pollution when starting to take ballast on non-SBT tankers, because oil may
backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this, which notice should be placed
on the ballast pump?
(A) START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION

According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be thrown overboard inside the Special Areas.
Which is the exception?
(D) Comminuted (ground up) food waste beyond 12 miles offshore.


According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel"?
(B) Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery.

It is possible to discharge substances containing oil, approved by the Administration, (eg. oil
dispersants) for the purpose of combating specific pollution incidents, into the sea. Under which
of these conditions?
(B) III , IV







Under which conditions are fore peak tanks, after peak tanks and cofferdams allowed to be
included in the total capacity determination of CBT's for tankers?
(A) Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast water system
The initial Marpol (IOPP) survey carried out before a ship enters service, in order to ensure
compliance with the applicable regulations, shall include.....
(D) a complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangements and materials, in so far
as the ship is covered by this Annex.
At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP certificate. This shall
ensure that the equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME are in order. What is this
survey called?
(B) The Intermediate survey


In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as slop tanks?
(C) Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residue and tank washings from
the cargo tanks.

A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons deadweight and above, which satisfies the requirements for
Segregated Ballast Tanks with protective location as well as COW, may be designated as a.......
(B) crude oil / product carrier.



Which description given is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by Marpol?
(C) If discharged from a stationary ship in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce visible traces
of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below


Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I?
(B) Automotive


What is the meaning of "an incident" according to Marpol?
(C) The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such
substances.

Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited, except when some conditions are satisfied. One
of these conditions for an oil tanker is that ....
(C) the tanker is more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest land.





A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt, NOT fitted with SBT
and PL, should be designated as a ........................... on the IOPP certificate.
(D) product carrier
What does the "instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content " mean, according to Marpol?
(A) The rate of oil discharge in liters per hour at any instant, divided by the speed of the ship in knots at
the same instant




According to Marpol, what does the term "oil " mean?
(A) Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and refined products
When alterations to the ship's construction, equipment, materials , fittings or arrangements are
carried out without sanction, the IOPP certificate ceases to be valid. What is the exception?
(B) The direct replacement of equipment and fittings


For Protective Location of Segregated ballast tanks, which of these items apply?
(A) II, IV, VI, VII

Does the definition of an "oil tanker " apply to a gas carrier?

(A) Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk

Outside special areas there are three ways of disposing of garbage produced on board ships.
From this list, choose the three ways?
(C) I, IV, V



For existing tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be no more than
..................... of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part.
(D) 1/15000


According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture "?
(D) A mixture with any oil content


What is the meaning of a "harmful substance" under Marpol?
(D) Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities.



Annex IV of Marpol, deals with sewage. How does it affect shipboard operations concerning
processing and treatment of sewage?
(D) The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries have adapted them and
have stringent regulations

Which of the following products is not listed as "gasoline blending stock" in Appendix I of Marpol
Annex I?
(D) Flashed feed stock


How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port regulations?
(D) National regulations in the ports visited may be more stringent and must be complied with.

For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated ballast tanks shall
be such that, at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and trim meet which of these
requirements?
(C) I, II, IV. VII
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
Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common causes of oil
pollution. Which five of these items are the main preventive measures against tank overflow?
(D) II, IV, V, VI, VII


Which of these items should be included in an on board pollution prevention training program?
(C) I. III, V, VI

Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at sea. The regulations do not apply if the
discharge is the result of damage to the ship or its equipment. What is the exception?
(B) Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage could probably result

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Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers is prohibited except when,
amongst other requirements, which of the following equipment is fitted?
(C) Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment


According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean?
(C) All of the other options apply

In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed discharge in order to
save life), a statement shall be made in the oil record book explaining what?
(B) The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge



If mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it affect unscheduled
inspections carried out according to Marpol?
(C) The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory


What is the meaning of the term " Combination Carrier "?
(C) A ship designed to carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk

Under Marpol, any ship of 10,000 tons gross and above shall be fitted with which of these items
of equipment for oily-water separation and oily mixture discharges?
(B) I
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What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol?
(C) A sea area where, for recognized oceanographically and ecological conditions, and in view of traffic,
special prevention is required

For new tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea shall not exceed ................ of the
total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part.
(B) 1/30000
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
The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not exceed.....
(C) 30 litres per nautical mile

Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage, lining and packing
materials that float......
(A) may be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.
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Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, glass, metal,
food and rags, bigger in size than 25 mm may only be thrown overboard outside .......... miles
offshore.
(C) 12
Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oily mixtures prior
to discharging these into the sea?
(B) Not allowed at all

What is the maximum oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea when the
ship is not in a special area?
(B) 15 ppm


Who may carry out Marpol Inspections?
(D) All of the other options.


CO-06-OPA 90
Under OPA 90 regulations, each part of the cargo oil or bunkering system not used during fuel
transfer or cargo oil transfer must be secured .... (C) with a blank flange.

Under OPA 90, the penalty for failure to immediately notify the appropriate U.S. Government
agency of an oil spill is .....
(D) a fine of not more than U.S $ 10,000 and/or one year in prison.


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Under OPA 90, the term 'Qualified Individual' means ......
(A) An English speaking person available on a 24 hour basis, located in the United States, authorised by
the owner to activate the vessel's Response Plan.


Regardless of the size of an oil spill in U.S. waters, the following must always be notified.....
(C) the U.S. Coast Guard National Response Center.


OPA 90 - tools for mitigation include the ships fire hoses. Fire hoses may be used to.....
(D) prevent floating oil from escaping downstream.

OPA 90 - the most cost effective and convenient method of disposing of oily debris is.....

(A) incineration.

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According to OPA 90 Pollution Response, clean-up of which oil group may involve underwater
recovery?
(A) Group V
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OPA 90 - under normal conditions a spill of Group V oil will .....
(A) sink.

Under OPA 90, a "Worst Case Scenario" includes the discharge of the vessel's entire cargo during
....
(A) adverse weather.
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OPA 90 - the telephone number of the local US Coast Guard Captain of the Port can be easily
found by checking ....

(A) the geographic Appendix in the Vessel's Response Plan.

Under OPA 90, all verbal reports regarding an oil spill should be followed.... (C) up in writing to
facilitate clear communications.

A tank vessel owner or operator can ensure he has met the planning criteria of OPA 90 by .......

(A) contracting sufficient resources to meet the tiered planning guidelines for each area in which the ship
is trading.
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Under OPA 90, when reporting an oil spill to the National Response Center and a recorded
message is heard and you are placed on hold, your alternate contact should be......
(A) the nearest U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port.

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OPA 90 - during oil spill clean up, booming strategies are most effective to contain spills
(A) calm weather conditions in coastal waters.

OPA 90 - the three types of boom are .....

(A) heavy duty offshore, river & harbour, sorbent.

Under OPA 90, application of Oil Dispersants to an oil spill must ....

(A) have official approval and be made within the first 24 - 48 hours.

Under OPA 90, a tank vessel owner or operator must make contractual arrangements with ......

(A) Oil spill clean-up contractors and fire fighting, lightering and salvage contractors.

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All tank vessels under OPA 90 are required to carry on board spill recovery equipment of
sufficient capacity to.... (C) accommodate oil spilt on deck.
.

With reference to OPA 90, which major port is not a high volume port? (B) Mobile

OPA 90 - the costs of cleaning up a major oil spill can.....

(A) All of the other options

OPA 90 - in the event of a major oil spill, what would most likely happen to a crewmember's job if
"unlimited liability" is assessed on the ship?

(A) He would lose his job

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Under OPA 90, due diligence describes ....
(D) All of the other options

The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is .....

(A) United States legislation.

Under OPA 90 regulations, oils have been divided into ......... different groups based upon their
environmental persistence.

(C) 5
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OPA 90 response times for salvage and lightering contractors are calculated from the time of .....
(C) the occurrence of the oil spill.
Under OPA 90, the Incident Command System is ....
(A) the method used to implement a response to a catastrophic spill under a Unified Command structure.
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One purpose of the US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 is to ......
(C) enhance the preparedness of shipboard and shore based personnel in the event of a pollution
incident.
Under OPA 90, the intentional discharge of 10,000 gallons of oil into the sea is best described
as.....
(D) willful misconduct.

OPA 90 - a key element of the Incident Command System is..... (C) liaison with government agencies.

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Under OPA.90, salvage, fire fighting and lightering contractors must...
(C) be contractually pre-arranged by Owners or Operators.

Under OPA 90, concerning the activation of the OSRO or Oil Spill Response Organisation, which
one of the statements below is true?
(D) The shore management is able to activate the OSRO.

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OPA 90 - if any telephone numbers listed in the Vessel Response Plan arerong, the correct listings
may be found in the USA by contacting .....

(D) local directory assistance , 1 + area code + 5551212.

An oil spill removal organisation that can demonstrate a 40,000 barrel per day recovery capability
under OPA 90 is classified as ...... (D) Level " E ".
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Under OPA 90, the term "OSRO " means .....
(A)Oil Spill Response Organisation.

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OPA 90 - three functions of the Incident Command staff are ....
(C)information, safety and liaison.
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OPA 90 - most important in monitoring the loading of oil or the bunkering rate is .....
(C) that tanks should be sounded very regularly.


The US Oil Pollution Act of 1990 applies to .....
(D) petroleum, animal and vegetable oils.

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Under OPA 90 , Group 1 oils are .....
(C) non-persistent oils.

Under OPA 90 shipboard pollution containers should be capable of recovering at least .......
barrels of oily waste.
(C) 12
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Under OPA 90, the Logistics Section of the Incident Command system is divided into the Service
Branch and the Support Branch. The Service Branch is responsible for .....
(A) communication, medical and food.

OPA 90 - in the event of an oil spill, mooring lines can be used as an interim containment barrier
.....
(D) to keep an oil slick from escaping downstream.


OPA 90 regulations are effective up to .......... miles offshore.
(D) 200

OPA 90 - who is responsible for the supervision of cleanup until the Qualified Individual arrives
on the scene?
(B) the person in charge of oil transfer.
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OPA 90 - spills of persistent oils with greater than 1.0 specific gravity ......
(B) do not readily evaporate and are difficult to recover.
Under OPA 90 regulations, actuation of Tier I response resources must be made ............. after
discovery of discharge.
(A) immediately, in any case not later than 30 minutes


Under OPA 90 a level "A" Oil Spill Removal Organisation" (OSRO) has .....
(C) the lowest recovery capability.

CO-07-ISM Code
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
To carry out their functions, the Company is responsible for ensuring that the designated person
is provided with:
(C) Adequate resources and shore-based support.


What is a "short-term" Safety Management Certificate?
(A) A certificate issued following completion of an audit by the auditor.


Under the ISM Code the owner must:
(A) Report the full name and details of the Company.


What is the window for the annual periodical audit of a company for the DOC?
(D) +/- 3 months


What is the threshold of Gross Tonnage that requires a ship to comply with the ISM Code?
(B) 500 GT

The testing and maintenance of stand by equipment and inactive systems associated with
alternatives should be part of the Company's maintenance plan. Example of tests are......

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
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(A) Emergency and safety equipments tests (eg EPIRB, VHF, CO2 detectors).
(B) Pre-arrival and pre-departure tests.
>(C) Any or all of the other options.
(D) Operation of alarms and emergency shut-downs.


Manning requirements and qualifications are part of ................. with which the Company should
be familiar.
(B) National and International requirements


On compliance with the ISM Code, a DOC is issued to:
(D) The Company.
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Who is responsible for ensuring that the ship's personnel are able to communicate effectively in
the execution of their duties related to the SMS?
(C) The Company.
The SMS should include procedures ensuring that .................... are reported to the company,
investigated and analysed with the objective of improving safety and pollution
(C) Non-conformities, accidents and hazardous situations
What are the best means of verifying that specified requirements (procedures and instructions)
regarding the Safety Management System are observed?
(A) By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities of crew members.
An Interim Safety Management Certificate (SMC) may be issued when a company takes over the
management of a ship which is new to the company. For what period of time is such an Interim
Safety Management Certificate valid?
(A) Six months.
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The Company should ensure that each ship is manned with ........................ seafarers in
accordance with national and international requirements.
(B) Qualified, certified and medically fit
What are the language requirements of the ISM Code?
(D) Procedures written in a working language or languages understood by the crew.


The Safety Management System should ensure in the first place....
(C) Compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations.

Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of Compliance is the company
which......................... the ship.
(B) Has assumed responsibility for the operation of



The purpose of the ISM Code is to provide:
(B) An international standard for the safe management and operation of ships and for pollution
prevention.


When verified that the Company and its shipboard management operate in accordance with the
approved SMS, a ................. should be issued to the ship by the Administration or organization
recognized by it.
(B) Safety Management Certificate


The documents used to describe and implement the SMS may be referred to as the......
(C) Safety Management Manual.

The Company should establish and maintain procedures to control all documents which are
relevant to the SMS. The Company should ensure that: 1) ................. 2) ................ 3) .....................
(A) 1) Valid documents are available 2) Changes to documents are reviewed and approved by authorized
personnel 3) Obsolete documents are removed promptly



On compliance with the ISM Code, a SMC is issued to:
(C) The Ship.


Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting arrangements for manning, technical support or
maintenance, how many Documents of Compliance are to be issued?
(D) Only one DOC can be issued to the Company.


Verification of the Master's qualifications should be done firstly by....
(D) Confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with the STCW convention.
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Under SMS, sufficient instructions in a suitable language need to be verified, as well as ensuring
an understanding of them by the crew. How can this be verified?
(A) By witnessing an exercise.
It is the Master's responsibility to review the Safety Management System and report its
deficiencies to ......
(C) The shore based management.
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining procedures for identifying any training which
may be required in support of the SMS and ensures that such training is provided for all personnel
concerned?
(D) The Company.
The Code requires that safeguards are established against all identified risks. How would you go
about identifying the risks associated with the operation of your ship?
(B) Carry out a form of risk assessment.
For key shipboard operations concerning the safety of the ship and pollution prevention, the
Company should establish:
(A) Procedures for the preparation of instructions, as appropriate.
(B) Procedures for the preparation of checklists, as appropriate.
(C) Procedures for the preparation of plans, as appropriate.
> (D) All of these options.
Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible risks to the safety of
the ship and pollution of the environment?
(D) Inerting, tank cleaning, gas freeing.
The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should include any deficiencies
and may include......
(D) Proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving the SMS.
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The objective of the ISM Code is to ensure:
(A) Safety at Sea.
(B) Prevention of human injury or loss of life.
> (C) All of these options.
(D) Avoidance of damage to property and environment in particular the marine environment.


Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person?
(D) Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and control of safety and pollution
prevention requirements of the ISM code

It is the responsibility of the Company to define and document the company's
.................................., which forms an integral part of the Safety Management System.
(C) Safety management objectives



When developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations with safety and pollution
prevention as primary objectives, the focus is on......
(B) Prevention.


What is the meaning of the word "observation" as used in the ISM Code?
(A) It is a statement of fact made during a safety management audit and substantiated by objective
evidence.

The Company should have procedures established for corrective action. Corrective actions
involve solutions which......
(D) May reduce or prevent occurrence of a non-conformity.



What is the primary legislation on which all other legislation concerning the operation of the ISM
Code is based?
(D) SOLAS Chapter IX - Management for the Safe Operation of Ships.


Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the auditor must be satisfied
that the company is in control of.....
(A) All activities concerning the Safety Management System which have been subcontracted.


The Safety Management System (SMS) needs to be a dynamic system. Why is this true?
(A) A dynamic system allows for adjustments and corrections when the ship's operational and/or crew
needs and circumstances change.

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
SMS Management reviews should be initiated at least by......
(A) Changes in the market strategy, social and environmental conditions.
(B) Analysis and investigation of accidents, results obtained due implementation of SMS.
> (C) Any of the other options.
(D) Recommendations based on statutory/classification surveys and outdated SMS in the light of new
rules/ regulations brought in force.


Personnel carrying out audits should be ...................... the areas being audited.
(C) Independent of


The ISM Code is expressed in broad terms because:
(B) It can have a wide spread application.

A .................................. should be issued for every Company complying with the requirements of
the ISM code by the Administration, or by the Organization recognized by the Administration .
(B) Document of Compliance



The Company should establish procedures under SMS to identify equipment and technical
systems of which the sudden failure may result in hazardous operations. Once
(A) Tests and other procedures should be established to ensure reliability.


Under ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which is
subcontracted......
(C) Remains the responsibility of the Company.


What is meant by 'Observation'?
(B) A statement of fact made during the SMS audit and substantiated by objective


What is the advantage of fostering a "no-blame" culture?
(A) A "no-blame" culture will encourage the reporting of non-conformities which can help improve the
safety management system.

The Master is to be fully conversant with the Company's SMS and should be informed of all
requirements through formal meetings with the......
(A) Shore management.
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The ISM code aims to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship operation through
.....
(D) Written procedures and work instructions.
The various tasks involved in key shipboard operations should be defined and assigned to
qualified personnel by:
(C) The Company.
Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authority and
interrelation of all personnel who manage, perform and verify work relating to and affecting safety
and pollution prevention. How?
(B) By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety and pollution prevention
activities for each functional area.
The cornerstone of good safety management is:
(A) Commitment from the top management.

What is the window for the intermediate verification audit of a ship for the SMC? (C) +/- 6 months

The functional requirement for a Safety Management System is to develop, implement and
maintain a system which includes the following :- ....
(C) 1) a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and procedures to ensure safe
operations and protection of the environment.

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What is meant by 'Objective Evidence'?
>(A) All of these options.
(B) Records or statements pertaining to the SMS which can be verified
(C) Quantitative or qualitative information which can be verified.
(D) Observation, measurements or test records which can be verified.

What procedures should be in place to deal with new personnel and personnel transferred to new
assignments related to safety and protection of the environment on board your ship?
(C) They must be given proper familiarization with their duties.

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Under ISM, the Company should establish ...................... to describe how the objectives of the ISM
code will be achieved.
(D) A safety and environmental policy
The scope of drills should exercise the company's ashore and on board personnel and develop
familiarity with a particular emergency. Documented evidence of drills should exist which
demonstrate.......
(B) That the Company has been able to respond effectively.
A Company's safety management objectives and requirements, which are set above the
standards of the ISM code, should be ....
(C) Encouraged and supported.
.
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Under ISM, who is responsible for implementing the Company's Safety and Environmental Policy
on board?
(D) The Master


What determines the end result in the matter of safety and pollution prevention?
(D) Commitment, competency, attitudes and motivation of individuals at all levels.

The ISM code aims to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship operation through
written procedures. These requirements include the following information:- ......
(A) The provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations and procedures for internal audits
and management review.
(B) The procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the provisions of the Code.
>(C)All of the other options.
(D) The defined levels of authority and lines of communication between and amongst shore and
shipboard personnel.
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The Company should establish procedures to ensure that the ship is maintained in conformity
with the provisions of the relevant rules and regulations and with....
(B) Any additional requirements which may be established by the Company.

Under ISM, which methods can the Master use to implement the Company's Safety and
Environmental policy?

(A) As defined and documented by the Company

To ensure that the Company meets its requirements regarding maintenance of the ship and
equipment, it should ensure that:
(A) Any non-conformity is reported, with its possible cause, of known and appropriate corrective action
is taken.
(B) Vessel inspections are held at appropriate intervals.
>(C) All of these options.
(D)Records of these activities are maintained.
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When should the Master review the Safety Management System and report to the
(B) The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews

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The safety management objectives of the Company should, among other things, include .....
(D) Continuous improvement of safety management skills of personnel including preparing for
emergencies related to safety and environmental protection.

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It is an ISM requirement that all relevant documents:
(A) Should be carried on board.
The Company should establish and maintain procedures in its SMS to
(A) Control all documents and data which are relevant to the SMS.
(B) Identify equipment and technical systems the sudden operational failure of which may result in
hazardous situations.
>(C)All of these options.
(D) Regular test ship's stand-by arrangements and equipment or technical systems that are not in
continuous use.

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A programme for drills and exercises to prepare for emergency actions should be established
by: (D) The Company

Procedures for key shipboard operations should have safety and pollution prevention as primary
objectives and should include, among other things.....

(A) Measures to mitigate identified risks.

Objective evidence is required to confirm conformance with established maintenance
requirements, inclusive.....
(D) Of documented procedures and instructions for the onboard work routinesand verification of their
implementation by the appropriate personnel.
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The Company is required to designate a person:
>(A) All of these options.
(B) Who has direct access to the highest level of management.
(C) To ensure the safe operation of each ship.
(D) To provide a direct link between the Company and those on board.

The Company should establish procedures for the ship's personnel to receive relevant
information on the SMS and the amount of documentation should be determined by......
(A) Whatever is necessary to ensure that all appropriate shipboard personnel understand their respective
roles.
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Concerning the ability of the ship's personnel to communicate effectively in the execution of their
duties related to the SMS, documented evidence must be available......
(B) On the procedures required for effective communication and what verification is carried out on board.

It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures and
instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who should actually verify
this on board?
(B) The Master and Officers


What is the minimum number of manuals required to complete a Safety Management System?
(C) As many volumes as needed to ensure that the requirements are met.


"Continuous survey" by a classification society means that...
(C) A vessel's hull and machinery will be completely inspected over a 5 year cycle.


What is the purpose of appointing a Designated Person(s)?
(C) To provide a link between the highest level of management ashore and those on board.


The management personnel responsible for the area audited should take:
(C) Timely corrective action on deficiencies found.

The SMS (Safety Management System) should ensure, among other things, that applicable codes,
guidelines and standards recommended by ........................... are taken into
(A) Classification Societies
(B) Maritime industry organisations
(C) The IMO, and Flag-State administrations
>(D) All of the other options.
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The safety objectives and requirements of a Company may be .......................... standards required
by the ISM code.
(A) Set above.
In addition to routine drills prescribed in International and National regulations, drills should also
include......
(D) Emergency situations such as identified potential emergency shipboard situations.
The Company should establish procedures to ensure that personnel transferred to new
assignments related to safety and environment protection are given familiarization training. What
are defined as new assignments?
(A) Another ship
>(B) All of the other options
(C) A different job
(D) Promotion
What is meant by a major non-conformity under the ISM code?
(A) A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety of the ship or personnel or to
the environment.
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If individuals require essential familiarization prior to sailing....
(C) Then the company should identify such requirements and develop an appropriate plan.
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Familiarization for personnel transferred or on new assignments could be accomplished by.......
> (A) All of the other options.
(B) Observing overlap while vessel in port.
(C) On board training in a supernumerary capacity.
(D) Visual aids such as manuals, operating instructions and videos.


Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person should include.....
(D) Monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation of each ship.

The Company should identify the individual(s) having the responsibility to define training needs
appropriate to specific tasks, taking into account....
(A) Previous training, experience and required proficiency in operation of the ship.
(B) Drills for emergencies, results of internal auditing.
(C) Familiarity with new equipment, familiarity with equipment when transferred to different type vessel.
> (D) All of the other options.
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
Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided to the Designated Person in order to carry out
his functions?
(C) Adequate resources and shore based support


In the ISM Code the reference to 'Convention' means:
(D) SOLAS Convention.


Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the Designated Person?
(D) As may be necessary.

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
The Company should establish that the master has overriding authority:
(A) To request the Company's assistance as may be deemed necessary.
> (B) For all of these options.
(C) To make decisions with respect to safety of the ship.
(D) To make decisions with respect to pollution prevention.


What is meant by the term 'Administration'?
(C) The Flag State.

Under ISM, what methods should be used to motivate the crew to observe the Safety and
Environmental protection policy?
(D) Ensure that the crew understands how they will personally benefit from the implementation as well
as encouraging perception of ownership.



The safety management objectives of the Company should, among other things, provide for .....
(D) Safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment.


The audits and possible corrective actions should be carried out:
(A) In accordance with the documented procedures.


The Company should have available shoreside organizational structure, resources means and
procedures for communications and equipment for responding to a shipboard emergency. This
means that......
(C) A 24-hour contact has to be available.


Safety management objectives of the Company should, among other things, establish.....
(B) Safeguards against all identified risks.

Shipboard personnel, as part of day to day operation of the ship, should be expected to correct
non-conformities whenever possible. In this respect, what are "Non-Conformities"?
(A) Defects, malfunctioning.
(B) Deficiencies.
> (C) Any one the other options.
(D) Damage.
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
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
The Company should ensure that all personnel involved in the SMS have an adequate
understanding of relevant rules, regulations, codes and guidelines. How could such information
be communicated?
(A) Through written instructions.
> (B) All of the other options.
(C) Described in the job responsibilities.
(D) Formal discussions with company representatives.

The choice and level of detail to assist familiarization to new or newly assigned crewmembers
will depend upon....
(A) The individual experience with the new assignment and the job responsibilities.


Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and Environmental Policy is....
(D) Known and maintained at all levels of the organization both ship based as well as shore based.

It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master has overriding
responsibility and authority as required......
(C) By the Company's Main Policy Objective.



The Company should establish procedures by which the ship's personnel receive relevant
information on the SMS:
(A) In a working language or languages understood by the ship's personnel.


Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the Safety Management system?
(D)The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the ship contains a clear statement
emphasizing the Master's authority.


What is"non-conformity"?
(C) A "nonconformity" is an observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-fulfillment of
a specified requirement.


The Company should carry out................................ To verify whether safety and pollution
prevention activities comply with the Shipboard Management System.
(B) Internal safety audits

Under the SMS, as part of shipboard responsibilities, there should be routine inspections of.....

(D) Machinery, ships equipment and structural integrity of the ship.

A company is expected to have documented emergency procedures applicable for use onboard
the particular type ship being operated, including the duties and responsibilities of the
crewmembers and......
(C) Shipboard communication methods available.

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
Instructions which are essential must be identified, documented and given to newly assigned
personnel prior to sailing. What are "essential instructions"?
(C)Those that clearly define the crew member’s role within the SMS and insure that they are prepared
prior taking up their duties on board
Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible person for on-board safety, finds a deficiency
in the Safety Management system relevant to the ships operation, he should....
(D) Inform the Company.


What is the ISM or International Safety Management Code?
(B)An international management code for the safe operation of ships and for pollution prevention as
adopted by the IMO.


What is meant by a "Safety Management System"?
(D) A structured and documented system enabling personnel on board to implement the company safety
and environment protection policy.


The Company should define and document, stating the responsibility, authority and interrelation
of all personnel who manage, perform and verify work relating to and affecting:
(A) Safety and pollution prevention.


'Company' means an entity who has agreed to:
(C) Take over all duties and responsibilities imposed by the ISM Code.

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


Under the ISM Code, what is understood by the Shipping Company or "The Company"?
(A) Could be any of the other options.
(B) The Owner
(C) The Manager
(D) The Bareboat Charterer

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


The Master is responsible:
(A) For issuing appropriate orders and instructions in a clear and simple manner.
> (B) For all of these options.
(C) For verifying that specified requirements are observed.
(D) For motivating the crew in observation of the safety and environmental policy.

Under ISM, can a company contract with third parties to manage specific ship related activities
such as manning, technical support or maintenance?
(B)Yes, it is allowed.

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
An interim SMC may be issued on the delivery of a ship and when a company takes responsibility
for a ship that is new to their fleet. What is the validity of such an interim
(D) Six months.
The Company should establish procedures to identify,
to...................emergency shipboard operations.
(A) Potential.
Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master applies....
(B) In both normal and extreme circumstances.
describe
and
respond


Who should periodically evaluate the efficiency of and, (when needed) review the SMS?
(B) The Company


The Master must be given the necessary support so that he can perform his duties safely. If the
Master reports deficiencies in the SMS, the company should......
(B) Respond to identified deficiencies in the SMS.


The results of the audits and reviews should be brought to the attention of:
(D) All personnel having responsibility for the area involved.

The Company should have................. for responding to non-conformities identified from internal
audits and during routine operation of the ship.
(B) Procedures.



The Company should ensure that the Master is informed of all requirements relating to safety and
environmental protection by......
(B) Including such requirements in operating instructions.


Under ISM, what is the role of the Designated Person as defined by the ISM Code?
(D) To ensure the safe operation of each ship and to provide a link between the company and those on
board.

The SMS should provide for measures ensuring that the Company's organization can respond at
any time to:




> (A) All of these options.
(B) At any time to accidents involving its ships.
(C) At any time to hazardous situations involving its ships
(D) At any time to emergency situations involving its ships.


Under the ISM code, what is meant by a non-conformity?
(D) A situation which indicates the non-fulfillment of a specific requirement.



Under ISM, the Master must implement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy and
should issue appropriate orders and instructions in a clear and simple manner. How should this
to be done?
(A)By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as examples.

Concerning developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations, it is expected that
the Company has identified risks associated with......
(C) The particular type of vessel and it's trade.


What is the validity of a short-term SMC?
(B) 5 months.





To which of the following ship types does the ISM Code not apply?
> (A)All of these options
(B) Warships
(C) Non-propelled barges
(D) Fishing boats

Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively implemented the
Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the Company?
(B) Through interviewing officers and crew.




CO-08 -MARPOL Annex VI
Who is responsible for drawing the fuel oil sample required by Annex VI?
(A) The fuel oil supplier or their representative


Until what date are systems using HCFCs allowed to be installed?
(D) 1 January 2020


On board ship, ODS could be contained in:
(B) fire fighting equipment.


What is the power output above which Annex VI NOx controls apply to marine diesel engines?
(A) 130 kilowatts


Which of the items listed is not a concern of MARPOL Annex VI?
(D) Sewage disposal


What is the limit on the sulphur content of fuels to be used in a SECA?
(D) 1.5%


Which of the details listed does not need to be recorded on the bunker delivery note?
(B) The ambient temperature


What do the letters SECA in the attached diagram stand for?
(D) iv


Which was the first SECA?
(B) The Baltic


What is the minimum quantity of fuel oil required for the Annex VI sample?
(B) 400 ml


Annex VI may require VOC emission to be controlled during:
(A) the loading of petroleum products.

Which of the gases shown in the picture is not classed as an atmospheric pollutant to be
controlled by Annex VI?
(C) 3


For ships already in service on the applicable entry into force date of Annex VI, within how
many years must the IAPPC survey be satisfactorily completed? (C) 3 years


After 19 May 2005, a number of documents relating to the engine will be mandatory for
qualifying vessels built after 1 January 2000. Which of those listed is not required?
(C) AN IMO engine type approval certificate.


For how long after loading bunkers should the associated Annex VI fuel sample be
(C) 12 months


For ships of 400 GT and above, the bunker delivery note must be kept on board for at least:
(B) 3 years.


The sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used outside a SECA is:
(A) 4.5% m/m.

DM-05-Manoeuvre and Handle a Ship


What is a growler?
(A) A small iceberg

A tug is connected by a line at your bow. Will the bollard pull be the same at any speed?
Choose the most complete answer.
(D) No, when the speed exceeds 5 knots the tug will not be of much help.




In the Northern Hemisphere, which is the most dangerous part of a storm in relation to the
direction in which it is moving?
(C) Its right hand side

Most large tankers are moored using wire ropes on winches in order to remain safely moored
alongside. If extra mooring lines are required, would a mixture of wires and full-length synthetic
fibre ropes be appropriate?
(C) No, because the wires would take most of the strain and the fibre ropes practically


What shape of a hull would you say a course unstable ship would have?
(D) A length to beam ratio less than 5.5.


In which direction does the Coriolis force deflect winds in the Southern Hemisphere?
(D) To the left


What do tightly spaced isobars indicate?
(B) Strong winds


Which of these is not a meteorological classification of an air mass?
(A) Equatorial maritime
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
The rudder is in the hard over position, propeller stopped. The ship is turning slowly. What can
be done to make her turn faster without increasing forward speed?
(B) Give a kick ahead.
You observe a strong breeze of 25 knots accompanied by large waves with white foam crests
and some spray. What Force on the Beaufort scale would this be rated at?
(C) 6
You are on a VLCC and are approaching shallow water with an underkeel clearance of 15%.
What speed should you have when entering the shallow water and when should you slow
down?
(D) Reduce to slow or less in due time before entering.
In the Northern Hemisphere, which direction will the wind normally be from just before a cold
front arrives?
(C) SW
The breaking of long waves can be triggered by their meeting the Continental Shelf. How deep
is the Continental Shelf?
(B) 200 metres
The graph shows the decrease of speed, against time, on a 100,000 deadweight tanker
proceeding at full speed of 13.3 knots and at minute 0 the engine was stopped. What is the
decrease in speed most likely to be?
(B) Series 1

The rudder is hard over, engine full ahead in shallow water. How much rudder lift force remains
when the engine is stopped?
(D) About 10%.


In which direction do jet streams normally travel?
(B) West to east



In certain latitudes icebergs present a considerable hazard to shipping. What proportion of their
volume is normally visible?
(A) 10%

You have made a turning test at full speed in deep water. You are now going to make one with
initial speed, slow ahead. Do you think the diameter will differ from that of initial full ahead?
(D) The diameter will be the same whatever initial speed we have when starting the turn.


What is 'ice blink'?
(A) A glare on the horizon perhaps indicating ice ahead

A ship is being turned short round in a tidal stream that is running at three knots. If in still
waters this normally takes 12 minutes, what allowance, if any, should be made for the drift of
the ship during the turn?
(A) 6 cables



What is the most important way of using air pressure measurements to predict bad weather is
coming?
(C) Noticing a steady, rapid fall in air pressure


The frequency of slamming can be more than halved by reducing the ship speed by:
(A) 20 - 25 %

The rudder is hard over, engine full ahead in deep water. How much rudder lift force remains
when the engine is stopped? (B) About 20%.

You are sailing in shallow water, with 15 % underkeel clearance. How will your stopping
distance and turning circle change compared with deep water?
(D) Stopping distance longer & turning circle larger.



If vessels cut their speed by 50% how much does this reduce any damage caused by collision?
(C) 75%


At what temperatures can ice start to form on a vessel's superstructure?
(B) -2° C

When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force. When the
ship has to turn, how much lift force remains if the rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees
from the hard over position?
(C) About 80%.



Overshoot is an expression used when talking about a ship's steering ability. How can
overshoot be determined?
(B) Do a 20/20 degree zigzag manoeuvre.


What distance must visibility be reduced to before water vapour is classed as fog?
(A) 1000 m


Your vessel is to turn to port in a narrow canal using one tug (turning the bow to port). In which
position and how will you use the tug ? (Your vessel's engine will also be used.)
(B) Make the tug fast on the port shoulder and pull.


What level of visibility does 'poor' indicate in a weather forecast?
(A)Between 1000 - 2000 m


What is an isobar?
(A) A contour line of constant air pressure


What is the biggest cause of high waves forming?
(C) Wind


You are in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If you reduce speed while in the turn, how
will the turning diameter change?
(B) The turning diameter will increase.


What wind speeds are likely when a weather forecast predicts an imminent Force 8 gale?
(C) Over 34 knots


What is the minimum sea water temperature necessary for a hurricane to develop?
(A) 26°

At what altitude do altostratus clouds generally form? (B) 2000 - 5500 m


You are sailing in shallow water, with 15 % underkeel clearance. Coming full astern from full
ahead , how will your course change compared with deep water?
(C) The heading will most likely change by a large amount.


Arctic air is usually:
(C) cold and dry


What shape of hull does a course stable ship usually have?
(B) A long, slim hull.


A depression is formed when:
(A) warm, damp air meets cold, dry air


In a weather forecast what wave height is indicated by the term 'moderate sea'?
(D) 1.25 - 2.5 m


When manoeuvring, when will you notice the effect of shallow water?
(A) When your underkeel clearance is 50% or less.

At roughly what latitude does the warm air, that has risen from above the equator, start to
descend forming a belt of high-pressure circulation?
(D) 30°



The diagram shows the manoeuvring characteristics of a ship. What are the distances A1 and
A2 called?
(A) Transfer


What is normally the air pressure at sea level?
(B) 1013 mb


If you are facing into the wind in the Southern Hemisphere, where would an area of lowpressure lie?
(A) To your left


During which month do most tropical storms form in the Northern Hemisphere?
(D) September


What does 'soon' mean in a weather forecast?
(C) Within 6 -12 hours of the warning being given

You are berthed with a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots. This wind suddenly increases to
60 knots. When this happens, the force pushing the vessel off the berth will be (D) quadrupled.


On a synoptic weather chart, what level of air pressure would be represented by the figure 113?
(D) 1011.3 mb


Buys Ballot's Law says that if a seafarer faces the wind in the Southern Hemisphere then the
area of low pressure will be:
(C) To the left


What does it mean when the barometer shows air pressure to be falling rapidly?
(A) Bad weather is on the way


Tropical maritime air is usually:
(C) warm, moist and unstable


The passage of a cold front is often marked by Stratus or Stratocumulus cloud giving way
(A) Cumulus

After allowing for latitude daytime variation, what sort of fall in air pressure might indicate an
approaching storm? (B) 3 mb in three hours



DM-11-Manoeuvring and Emergency Action
What action should be taken immediately after a fire has been extinguished?
(A) Establish a continuous watch at the fire area against re-ignition and remove any smouldering material.


You are involved in a collision what will be your initial actions
(D) Sound general emergency signal.


When unberthing a conventional ship port side to with no wind and tide present, what will be your
first engine and rudder movements
(A) Dead slow ahead / hard to port.


You detect flooding in a cargo hold on passage what should be your first reaction
(C) Sound the general alarm signal.


How frequently must portable fire extinguishers be hydraulically tested
(D) Every 10 years.

When unberthing a conventional vessel starboard side to with no wind or tide present, what line
will you let go last
(D) Aft breast line.



What is the best strategy for fighting a fire in a general cargo hold?
(A) Keep hatches battened down and control the fire with smothering gas until the nearest port is reached.
Boundary cool and monitor temperatures.


Which volume of IAMSAR contains information about search and rescue operations
(C) Vol 2.

You are required to berth your vessel alongside a fragile berth - which anchor would you use to
minimize any impact while berthing
(B) The offshore anchor.



How frequently must all lifesaving appliances be inspected
(A) Monthly.


Where is the International shore connection kept
(C) At the gangway.


When unberthing in calm weather and with no current - what will be the last line you let go
(D) Forward spring line.

Once the fire is contained, the Master needs to evaluate the best strategy for the next stage. This
might include a number of actions. In your opinion which action does NOT
(B) Re-introducing air circulation by opening up fire dampers and other openings.






When unberthing a conventional ship port side to with no wind and tide present, which line will
you single up to
(D) Forward spring line.
Your vessel is approaching a sharp bend with the tide astern - where should you position your
vessel
(D) On the inside of the bend.

You are berthed with a strong offshre wind blowing - which of the following manoevres would be
recommended
(C) Single up to breasts fwd and aft _ slack off ropes allow wind to blow vessel off the


Which organizations publish the IAMSAR manual
(D) IMO and International civil aviation organization


How would you conteract an angle of loll following a collision
(D) Ballast on the low side


Why are accommodation fires difficult to contain?
(D) Ventilation systems, open alleyways, and stairwells can aid the spread of fire.


You receive a distress signal on 2187.5 khz in Area 2 - what will be your actions
(C) tune to 2182 khz and listen for distress communications


You are required to berth your vessel with a strong offshore wind blowing, what angle of approach
is required
(B) A broad angle of approach


Which vessels must be fitted with Emergency towing equipment
(D) Tankers over 20 000 dwt


Your engines have broken down -The master asks you to transmit a warning - what type of
message will you broadcast
(D) Pan Pan


What is the responsibility of the Master and the emergency organisation when an incident arises?
(C) To assess, with minimum delay, the best possible action to take when the incident arises.


You have to abandon your vessel -how soon after abandonment will you issue water to survivors
(C) After 24 hours


How often would you expect the International shore connection to be checked and
(A) Quarterly


How often should a crew member participate in a fire drill and an abandonment drill
(C) Once a Month


What does IAMSAR mean
(C) International Aeronautical & Maritime search and rescue


Which emergency party would you expect to operate the fire pumps in the event of a fire
(D) Engine room party


In vessels over 500 grt where must there be a copy of the Solas training manual
(D) In the crew mess / recreation room


When berthing with a strong head wind - which rope should you deploy first
(B) Headline




Your vessel has a right handed propellor - what direction does it turn when going astern
(A) Anti clockwise
How soon after departure from a port where more than 25% of the crew has been changed must
you hold an abandon ship drill
(C) 24 hours


You are involved in a collision what will be your first action
(B) Sound general alarm signal


Your vessel is approaching a sharp bend against the tide - where should you position your vessel
(D) On the outside of the bend

In an emergency with risk for total loss of the ship, the Master orders the support party to lower
the life boats to embarkation level and prepare them in readiness to abandon ship. When should
abandonment be undertaken?
(D) As a last resort on orders from the Master.



Your vessel is sinking what message will you send
(D) Mayday


What is the duration of an Emergency Escape Breathing Device
(C) At least 10 mins


You witness a man falling overboard - what will be your first action
(A) Release lifebouy and smoke signal


How often should an EPIRB hydrostatic release be serviced
(C) Every 2 years

Under normal circmstances how is it recommended to berth with a strong stern wind (B) This
manoevre is not recommended


Which of the following will not be contained in the vessels fire wallet
(A) Current muster list


You are unberthing port side to with a strong head tide running , what line will you let go last
(C) Aft spring


How often would you expect a full inventory to be made of the fire fighting equipment lockers
(B) Every 3 months


You are proceeding to a distress which publication should you consult
(B) IAMSAR Vol 3


What is the main advantage of a 406 mhz EPIRB
(A) It provides worldwide coverage

You are planning a fire drill - what is the minimum number of fire extinquishers that should be
discharged (A) At least one.

What is the best strategy for the Master to follow after receiving the initial information of a fire on
board?
(A) Immediate response and rapid attack by the emergency party.



You have a fire onboard your vessel in port - where wil you find updated stability information to
give to shore authorities
(D) In the Fire wallet





Your vessel has a left handed propellor - what direction does it turn in when going astern
(C) Clockwise
When unberthing with a strong onshore wind port side to - what will be your initial
(D) Single up to back spring - engine dead slow astern - rudder hard to port
.


When moored between 2 buoys -one forward one aft, with the wind and tide ahead , what will be
your first action
(A) Release the sternline -rudder to starboard - dead slow ahead


What language should be used in the SOLAS training manual
(B) A common language understood by the crew


An EPIRB is used on life boats after abandoning ship, what is the EPIRB?
(B) Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon.


Under what circumstances would you use a single turn during a man overboard incident
(C) In an immediate situation to bring ship around in quickest time


What is needed for a successful response to an emergency situation?
(D) A small close-knit group working together as a team w/ effective leadership & understanding the
importance of: Co-ordination, Communication & Control.


After a fire the Master will need to take several actions. Which item below does NOT
(B) Establish who is to blame.


In the event of a man overboard which of the following actions would not be in your initial
response
(D) Update GMDSS information


What is the urgency signal
(B) Pan Pan


If there is an isolated incident on the poop deck, where should the Master take control
(C) The bridge, using this facility as a control and communications centre.


You intend to berth your vessel port side to. There is no wind and no tide present, what angle of
approach is best
(B) An angle of 30 to 40 degrees


Where will you find information on sources of radio medical aid.
(C) ALRS vol 1


Below what sea temperature should abandonment suits be worn
(A) Below 16 deg celcius


In case of fire on board, what do you think is the primary consideration of the Master?
(C) The safety of the crew.


What is the emergency signal for a man overboard
(A) 3 prolonged blast


You receive a distress message on VHF ch 70 in area 1 - what will be your reaction
(B) Tune to CH 16 and listen for distress communications


You have a fire onboard in port - how is stability information passed on to the fire services
(C) It is contained in the fire walllet


When turning in a river with a following tide - which anchor will you use
(D) Upstream


Where must the ships fire control plans be kept
(A) At the gangway


How many volumes of the IAMSAR are there
(A) 3


Which frequencies are used in EPIRBS
(D) 121.5 or 406 mhz


Why should the Master remain at the control centre at all times during an emergency?
(C) As the person with the greatest overview and authority, the Master must be at the control centre to
receive information and to give orders.

If you are berthing a conventional ship with no bow thruster in an onshore wind, how will you
control the rate of drift of the bow

(D) By using the offshore anchor

When moored between 2 buoys -one forward one aft, with the wind and tide astern , what will be
your first action
(B) Slack off stern line to see if stern cants away from buoy.



Which volume of IAMSAR is it compulsory to carry onboard ships
(D) Vol 3.


When might you send a distress on behalf of another vessel
(A) When the vessel itself cannot send the distress.


How many fire extinguishers should be used in an emergency drill
(B) At least one.

You intend to berth with a strong tide running, how will you position your vessel in relation to the
tide
(A) With the head to the tide.



When unberthing a conventional vessel starboard side to with no wind or tide present, what will
you single up to
(D) Forward spring and an aft breast line.


You are towing an offshore rig how will you inform other vessels
(C) Securite.


Where must records of emergency and abandon ship drills be kept
(D) In the Official log book.


You experience a steering gear failure, how will you alert other vessels in the vicinity
(C) Exhibit NUC signals and broadcast urgency signal.


How many fire pumps must a cargo vessel of over 1000 grt have
(C) At least 2.


You have a serious medical injury on board what type of message will you broadcast
(D) Pan Pan medico.


You have a man overboard what signal will you broadcast
(B) Mayday.


Which search pattern does the IAMSAR manual recommend for a single vessel
(A)Expanding square search.

You intend to berth your vessel starboard side to. There is no wind and no tide present. How will
you approach the berth
(A )At a narrow angle with minimum headway.




DO-01A Plan and conduct a passage - Celestial Navigation
The value of the "equation of time" is...
(D) Between zero and about 17 minutes.


The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 31° 30' and
the declination is 16° 25'.4 N. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(D) 47° 55.4' N.


Which of the statements listed about the first point of Aries is true?
(D) It moves slowly westwards.

Star


s tabulated in the nautical almanac which have a negative magnitude (e.g.-1.4)...
(C) Are very bright.


The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 39° 14.3'
and the declination is 17° 22'.1 N. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(C) 21° 52.2' S.


At the summer solstice, the altitude of the sun at noon to an observer at the pole would
(C) 23.5°.

A first observation of the Sun was taken at 0915 Local Time. If the vessel is steaming at 16 knots,
how far should the position line be moved along the course made good to find the position at
1200?
(B) 44 miles.



What do you call the error in the observed altitude of the sun, which results from the observer
being on the surface of the earth not at its centre?
(A) Parallax.




To an observer in longitude 164°E, the LHA of the sun is 26°. What is the GHA of the sun?
(A) 222°.
The true altitude of Arcturus is 42° 28'.4. Find the true zenith distance.
(A) 47° 31.6'.


The magnitude of a star which can only just be seen with the naked eye on a clear, dark night is...
(A) 6th magnitude.


What is "side error" on a marine sextant?
(C) When the horizon glass/mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant.

If the Azimuth of a body is found to be 222° True, the position line would be drawn through the
Intercept Terminal Position in a direction of...
(B) 132°/312°.



To an observer in longitude 172°E, the LHA of a star is 315°. If the SHA of the star is 036°, what is
the GHA of Aries?
(D) 107°.


The moon spins on its axis approximately every...
(A) 28 days.


The times of sunrise and sunset are tabulated in the Nautical Almanac. These times are...
(B) The LMT when the upper limb is on the visible horizon for an observer at sea level.


To an observer at the south pole, at the beginning of September...
(A) There will be twilight throughout the day.


If the GHA of the sun is 173° and the LHA is 358°, what is the longitude?
(A) 175°W.



The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 6° 57.4' and
the declination is 16° 25'.4 N. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(C) 09° 28.0' N.

The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 46° 23.9'
and the declination is 9° 15'.0 S. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(C) 55° 38.9' S.


The first point of Aries is the point on the celestial sphere where...
(C) The ecliptic cuts the equinoctial on the sun's apparent path from south to north.


If a ship is in 90°E longitude and the equation of time is -4 minutes, what is the GMT of noon at
the ship?
(C) O556.


The moon rotates around the earth approximately every...
(A) 28 days.

The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 54° and the
declination is 4° S. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(B) 50° N.



The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 6° 57.4' and
the declination is 14° 36'.2 S. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(D) 07° 38.8' S.


What would you adjust in an attempt to eliminate index error of a sextant?
(C) The horizon glass.


The sun is at the first point of Aries on the celestial sphere at approximately...
(B) 21st March.


The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 54° 28'.6
and the declination is 4° 28'.4 S. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(B) 50° 00.2' N.


When the index mirror and the horizon mirror of the sextant are parallel, the sextant should read...
(D) 0°.


If the GHA of the sun is 315° and the LHA is 36°, what is the longitude?
(B) 81°E.

A position line drawn in the direction 150°/330° could correspond to an azimuth of the observed
body of...
(C) 240° True.




A position line drawn in the direction 045°/225° could correspond to an azimuth of the observed
body of...
(B) 315° True.

A first observation of the Sun was taken at 0815 Local Time. If the vessel is steaming at 14 knots,
how far should the position line be moved along the course made good to find the position at
1200?
(A) 52.5 miles.


The path of the earth's rotation around the sun, relative to the plane of the equator, is...
(A) At an angle of 23.5°.

Given that the True Zenith Distance is 36° 24.8' and that the Calculated Zenith Distance is 36°
22.0', find and name the intercept, with respect to the direction of the observed body.
(B) 2.8' Away.



The true altitude of the suns lower limb is 74° 45'.4. Find the true zenith distance.
(A) 15° 14.6'.


The declination of a celestial body is the...
(D) Arc of the celestial meridian between the equinoctial and the parallel of declination passing through
the body.


At the winter solstice, the sun will not rise at all in higher latitudes than...
(D) 66.5°.


At sunrise and sunset, the effect of atmospheric refraction is to...
(A) Reduce the sun's apparent vertical diameter.


The true altitude of Canopus is 64° 52'.4. Find the true zenith distance.
(D) 25° 07.6'.


What is the "error of perpendicularity" on a marine sextant?
(A) When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant.


If a ship is in 150°E longitude and the equation of time is +6 minutes, what is the GMT of noon at
the ship?
(C) O206


The summer solstice in the southern hemisphere is approximately on...
(B) 21st December.


Latitude on the terrestrial sphere is comparable with what on the celestial sphere?
(A) Declination.




To an observer in longitude 75°W, the LHA of the sun is 327°. What is the GHA of the sun?
(A) 042°.
After all the adjustments have been made to the sextant, any remaining error is called...
(B) Index error.


Given that the true altitude is 61° 47.9' calculate the True Zenith Distance
(D) 28° 12.1'.


From those listed, how can the index error be detected in a marine sextant?
(D) Clamp the index at zero; hold the sextant vertically and observe true and reflected image of a star
through the telescope.


What is the "error of collimation" on a marine sextant?
(D) When the telescope is not parallel to the plane of the sextant.

Given that the True Zenith Distance is 64° 44.0' and that the Calculated Zenith Distance is 64°
53.0', find and name the intercept, with respect to the direction of the observed body.

(D) 9.0' Towards.


The times of civil twilight are tabulated in the Nautical Almanac. These times are...
(D) The LMT when the sun's centre reaches 6° below the visible horizon before sunrise and after sunset.

If a ship is in 30°W longitude and the equation of time is -4 minutes, what is the GMT of noon at
the ship?
(C) 1356.














A position line drawn in the direction 070°/250° could correspond to an azimuth of the observed
body of...
(D) 160° True.
A position line drawn in the direction 095°/275° could correspond to an azimuth of the observed
body of...
(A) 005° True.
If the Azimuth of a body is found to be 305° True, the position line would be drawn through the
Intercept Terminal Position in a direction of...
(A) 035°/215°.
The index error of a marine sextant read as 35° 25'.3 is known to be 2' off the arc. Find the
observed altitude.
(A) 35° 27.3'.
The path of the moon's rotation around the earth, relative to the plane of the earth's rotation
around the sun, is...
(A) At an angle of 5°.
The plane of the index mirror of the sextant is at an angle of 20° to the plane of the horizon mirror.
What is the reading on the arc?
(D) 40°.

Which error exists when the axis of the telescope of a sextant is not parallel to the plane of the
instrument?
(C) Collimation.


The summer solstice in the northern hemisphere is approximately on...
(C) 21st June.

Given that the True Zenith Distance is 17° 44.0' and that the Calculated Zenith Distance is 17°
46.0', find and name the intercept, with respect to the direction of the observed body.
(C) 2.0' Towards.



The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 6° and the
declination is 16° N. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(C) 10° N.


Which one of the following errors of the sextant would you be unable to adjust or minimize?
(A) Centering.


The earth rotates around the sun approximately every...
(A) 365 days.


The earth is said to be in "aphelion" on approximately...
(A) 4th July.


A first observation of the Sun was taken at 0815 Local Time. If the vessel is steaming at 12 knots,
how far should the position line be moved along the couse made good to find the position at 1200.
(B) 45 miles.
The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 6° 57.4' and
the declination is 21° 28'.4 S. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(A) 28° 25.8' S.


Which of the statements listed is true in relation to the magnitude ofstars?
(D) A 1st magnitude star is 100 times brighter than a 6th magnitude star.


The sidereal hour angle of a celestial body is the...
(C) Arc of the equinoctial (measured westwards from the first point of Aries) to the celestial meridian
through the body.

The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing North is 6° and the
declination is 21° S. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(B) 27° S.





The earth is said to be in "perihelion" on approximately...
(C) 1st January.


Sidereal hour angle is defined as the angular distance of an hour circle...
(B) west of the First Point of Aries.


The correction for atmospheric refraction as applied to the observed altitude of a body...
(A) Decreases with altitude.

A position line drawn in the direction 085°/265° could correspond to an azimuth of the observed
body of...
(C) 355° True.



To an observer in longitude 65°W, the LHA of a star is 48°. If the SHA of the star is 217°, what is
the GHA of Aries?
(C) 256°.


Given that the true altitude is 17° 44.0' calculate the True Zenith Distance.
(A) 72° 16.0'.

The earth spins on its axis approximately every...

(A) 24 hours.

If a star has a northerly declination and the observer is in north latitude, which of the statements
listed is true?
(D) The star will be above the horizon for more than 12 hours.



The index error of a marine sextant read as 48° 25'.3 is known to be 5' on the arc. Find the observed
altitude.
(B) 48° 20.3'.



The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 15° and the
declination is 22° N. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(B) 37° N.

The true zenith distance of the Sun when on the observer's meridian bearing South is 15° 23.6'
and the declination is 22° 19.5' N. Calculate the observer's latitude.
(D) 37° 43.1' N.


For a circumpolar star, which, from those listed, is NOT true?
(B) The LHA of the star will always be less than 90°.


The "equation of time" is...
(D) the interval between apparent time and mean time.


Given that the true altitude is 57° 24.9' calculate the True Zenith Distance
(D) 32° 35.1'


What is the angle between the ecliptic and the equinoctial?
(A) 23.5°

If the Azimuth of a body is found to be 355° True, the position line would be drawn through the
Intercept Terminal Position in a direction of...
(C) 085°/265°



From those listed, how can the error of perpendicularity be detected in a marine sextant?
(B) Clamp the index somewhere on the arc; hold the sextant horizontally with the arc away and look at
the arc and its reflection in the index glass.


The magnitude of a star is a measure of its...
(D) relative brightness.


Given that the True Zenith Distance is 36° 22.0' and that the Calculated Zenith Distance is 36°
24.8', find and name the intercept, with respect to the direction of the observed body.
(B) 2.8' Towards


Given that the true altitude is 46° 20.2' calculate the True Zenith Distance.
(D) 43° 39.8'


Which one of the following errors of the sextant would you attempt to remove?
(D) Perpendicularity.

If the Azimuth of a body is found to be 069° True, the position line would be drawn through the
Intercept Terminal Position in a direction of... (D) 159°/339°

DO-01B-Plan and Conduct a Passage - Terrestrial and Coastal Navigation


The use of radar ranges is preferred to radar bearings for position fixing because...
(C) they are more accurate.


A chart suitable for inshore navigation, for entering bays and harbours, would have a scale of....
(D) 1:50,000 to 1:150,000


When choosing objects for position fixing by radar ranges you should, if possible, avoid....
(B) gently sloping land features.


A vessel in initial position 38° 46' S 111° 31' E then steams on a course of 056° for 393 miles.
Calculate (using plane sailing) the final latitude to the nearest minute.
(B) 35° 06' S


What is the definition of the "luminous range" of a light?
(B) The maximum distance at which a light may be seen, under prevailing meteorological conditions.


Spring tides normally occur...
(C) about every two weeks.

You are planning a passage across the North Atlantic. The chart most useful for evaluating
Ocean Currents and weather probabilities is a.....
(B) Routeing Chart.



When taking a navigation chart from the folio how can you reliably determine the state of
correction?
(B) Check the number of the Notice to Mariners entered at the bottom left-hand corner of the chart.



A vessel left 42°30'N, 24°25'W, and steamed 245 miles on a course of 050°T. Use plane sailing to
find the arrival position
(D) 45°07'N, 20°07'W

You are on watch at night and you stop the main engines. What changes would you make to
your navigational lights?
(B) Switch on two vertical red lights and switch off steaming lights.



When details on a chart have to be cancelled one should:
(C) cross through using permanent violet ink.
.


The direction towards which a tidal stream runs is called ......
(C) set


What do the initials VTS stand for?
(D) Vessel Traffic Service.


What does this chart symbol mean?
(B) Direction of Buoyage

A vessel steers a course of 007°T for a distance of 391 miles. Find the difference of latitude (to
the nearest whole minute) and the departure (to the nearest whole mile).
(D) Difference in latitude 388' and departure 48 miles.


Which of the following are NOT normally included in the initial notification? (D) Any health
problems of those on board.


From those listed, the best land target to use for a radar bearing is....
(C) an isolated feature.

Calculate (using plane sailing) the true course to steer to the nearest degree between initial
position 49° 55' N 02° 50' W and 49° 05' N 01° 22' E
(C) 107°




Calculate the distance (to the nearest mile) along the great circle between position 45° 36' N 8°
46' W and 12° 18' N 79° 24' W
(C) 4064 miles

A vessel is in 22° N and steams on a course of 000°T until it is in latitude 38° 14'N. What
distance has she steamed?
(D) 974 miles


The period of a semidiurnal tide is approximately.....
(A) half a lunar day.


On the Beaufort scale, force 3 is described as a....
(D) gentle breeze.


Which of the following options would be considered "good seamanship"?
(A) Sounding a fog signal when in clear weather, but approaching a fog bank.


When must a passage plan be prepared?
(D) Before the voyage commences


In 45°34'N, a ship sails due east from 164°10'E to 170°20'E. How far has the vessel traveled?
(B) 259 miles

Calculate the difference in latitude between the following two positions: 35° 20' N 20° 35' W and
50° 00' N 20° 35' W (C) 14° 40'


Which item does NOT belong? Notices to Mariners provide information:
(C) on changes to ship agency offices throughout the world.

A vessel in initial position 50° 00' N 02° 00' W then steams on a course of 045° for 6 hours at a
constant speed of 14 knots. Calculate (using plane sailing) the final latitude.
(A) 50° 59' N



What is the definition of the "geographic range" of a light?
(C) The maximum distance at which a light may be seen, limited only by the curvature of the earth, in
perfect visibility.


"What symbol on a navigational chart would be shown for a sea bottom of clay?"
(D) Cy


You see a Notice to Mariners numbered 3234(T). What does the (T) tell you about this notice?
(D) It refers to a Temporary situation.


How should tidal predictions be made for stretches of coastline between Secondary Ports?
(A) By using a co-tidal line chart.


You see a Notice to Mariners numbered 3235(P). What does the (P) tell you about this notice?
(D) It is a Preliminary notice.


The shortest distance between two points on the earth's surface is....
(D) an arc of a great circle.








A vessel steamed 210 miles on a course of 295°T. The departure point was 35°30'N. What
latitude do you arrive at?
(C) 36°58'N
Which of the items listed should be included in the notebook to amplify and support the track
on the chart?
>(A) All of the above
(B) Course alteration positions
(C) Manpower requirements
(D) Minimum depth clearances where critical

A vessel in initial position 40° 30' N 179° 00' E steams due east for 240 miles. Calculate the new
longitude to the nearest minute.
(B) 175° 44' W


Which statement is true of a position line on a chart?
(A) It can be a straight or a curved line.

Find the distance (departure) to the nearest whole mile between initial position 50° 00' N 02° 00'
W and 50° 00